Question | Answer |
the action of CRP can be distinguished from that of an antibody in which of the following ways | CRP acts before the antibody appears |
which of the following can be attributed to pasteur | first attinuated vaccines |
the subclasses of IgG differ mainly in | the arrangement of disulfide bonds |
all of the following are true of IgM except that | it can cross into the placenta |
in which zone might the antibody screening test be false positive | prozone |
which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ | thymus |
which of the following best describes the t-cell receptor antigen | alpha and beta chains are unique for each antigen |
which best characterizes the membrane attack complex | c9 polymerizes to form the transmembrane channel |
a heterophile antigen is one that | exists in unrelated plants or animals |
which of the following best describes the role of TAP | they transport peptides into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum |
the structure formed by the fusion of the engulfed material and enzymatic granules within a phagocytic cell is called a | phagolysosome |
which receptor on the t-cell is responsible for rosetting with sheep red blood cells | cd2 |
which is a distinguishing feature of a pre-b cell | u(mu) chains in the cytoplasm |
the classical complement pathway is activated by | antigen-antibody complex |
the CH50 test measures which of the following | *dilution of patient serum required to lyse 50% of a standard concentration of sensitized sheep red blood cells
*functioning of both the classic and alternative pathways
*genetic deficiencies of any of the complement complex |
which best describe the law of mass action | the equilibrium constant is relating to the strength of an antigen-antibody binding |
precipitation differs from agglutination in which way | precipitation involves a soluble antigen while agglutination involves a particular antigen |
a FAB fragment consists of | one L chain and 1/2 a H chain |
all of the following are true of IgE except that | is heat stable |
enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum protein is called | opsonization |
measurement of CRP levels can be used for all of the following except | diagnosis of specific bacterial infection |
MHC molecules are associated with which of the following | graft rejection
autoimmune diseases
determining to which antigen an individual responds to |
which of the following best describes hapten | antigenic only when coupled to a carrier |
which statement is true of measurements of turbidity | it indicates the ratio of incident light to transmitted light |
which technique represents a single-diffusion reaction | radial immunodiffusion |
which of the following is true of nk cells | they recognize lack of MHC proteins |
where does the major portion of antibody production occur | lymph nodes |
factor H acts by competing with which of the following for the same binding site | factor B |
how many antigen binding sites does a typical IgM molecule have | 10 |
which of the following are L chains of antibody molecules | k |
the presence of normal flora acts as a defense mechanism by which of the following means | competing with pathogens for nutrients |
which of the following peripheral blood cells plays a key role in killing of parasites | eosinophils |
if crossed lines result in an ouchterlony immunodiffusion reaction with antigens 1 and 2 what does this indicate | the two antigens are unrelated |
which of the following statements apply to rate of nephelometry | readings are taken before equivalence is achieved
it is more sensitive than turbidity
measurements are time dependant |
which of these are found on a mature B cell | IgM and IgD |
which of the following would represent a double negative thymocyte | CD2 +CD3 -CD4 -CD8 |
why is complement not activated with anti rh(d)antibodies | rh antigens are too far apart on red blood cells |
all of the following represent functions of the complement system except | decreased clearance of antigen-antibody complexes |
which antibody is best at agglutination and complement fixation | IgM |
all of the following are characteristic of a good immunogen except | found on host cells |
which of the following are true of MHC(HLA) class II antigens | they are found on B cells and macrophages |
Jenner's work with cowpox,which provided immunity against smallpox demonstrates which phenomenon | cross-immunity |
which technique is typified by radial immunodiffusion combined with electrophoresis | rocket electrophoresis |
all of the following are characteristic of complement components except | present as active enzymes |
Bence-Jones proteins are identical to which of the following | L chains |
all of the following describe an epitope except | consists of sequential amino acids only |
where are all undifferentiated lymphocytes made | bone marrow |
skin,lactic acid secretions,stomach acidity,and the motion of cilia represent which type of immunity | natural immunity |
an individual is recovering from a bacterial infection and tests positive for antibodies to a protein normally found in the cytoplasm of this bacterium.which of the following statements are true of this situation | class II molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD4 and T cells |
The following are mechanisms that are thought to contribute to autoimmunity EXCEPT | clonal deletion of self reactive T cells |
what is the target tissue for good pasture syndrome | kidney and lungs |
name the key to the pathogenisis to SLE | dysunctional processing in the routine immunological clearing of cellular debris |
the following autoantibodies have a homogenous immunofloruescent pattern accept | anti-ds-dna |
antibodies that have a homogenous staining pattern | ANTI-DS-DNA,ANTI-HISTONE,ANTI-DNP |
what antibody is most specific for SLE | Ds-dna |
antibodies that are stimulated by DNA complexed to histone are known as | DNP |
the antibody found in 75% of patients is called | RF-IgM isotype |
proinflammatory cytokines found in synovial fluid that contribute to inflammation are | IL-1,6,8,15,18,tnfa |
another name for chronic autoimmune thyroiditis is | hashimotos |
name the two isotypes for RF | IgA,IgM,IgG |
name one way self tolerance is maintaned | by deleting potentially reactive B and T cells,peripheral tolarance |
name the syndrome that is characterized by the presence of autoantibody to glomeruler membranes | goodpastures |
which type of diabetes has an autoimmune origin | type IA |
what autoimmune disease affects the intestines | crohns |
name one treatment for type 1 diabetes mellitus | injected insulin |
an negative RF test rules out RA (T or F) | false |
name a disorder associated with a deficiency in the B-cell system | Hgb of infancy,IgA deficiency,x linked agammglobunemia,cvi,isolated IgG |
name the most common congenital agammaglobilinemias | Iga deficiency |
what is diagnosed when patients with reoccuring bacterial infections demonstrate a low IgG | cvi |
name a cellular immunity deficiency that is a result of a developmental abnormality of the third and fourth pharungeal pouches | Digeorge |
defects in B-cell immunity generally lead to recurrent infections with intracellular pathogens (Tor F) | false |
what region of a SPE will you find immunoglobulins | gamma |
how many protein bands are in a SPE | 5 |
what is the most predominent protein in serum protein | IgM |
name the type of measurement where specific antibody is applied directly to the seperating gel | (IFE) immunofixation electrophoresis |
what is the suspected disorder if i did a leukocyte adhesion molecule analysis | phagocyte defect |
name the test for screening of compliment deficiencies | CH50,c3 levels |
the feature of this disease is decreased platlet number and size and a prolonged bleeding time | thrombocytopenia (WAS) |
this gene is responsible for the processing of an IL binding signal from the cell membrane to the nucleus | Jak 3 gene |
the primary molecular defect in this syndrome is CD43 | WAS (wiskott-aldrich syndrome) |
name the most common aquired spirochete disease in the u.s | syphilis |
what stage of syphilis causes neurosyphilis | tertiary stage |
what is the causitive agent of syphilis | treponema pallidum |
what type of microscopy is used to diagnose the presence of T.pallidum | darkfield |
another name for inflammation of the liver | hepatomegaly |
which serological marker is seen first in acute hepatitis | ALT(alanine aminotransfertase) |
which hepatitis has an incubation period of 7 weeks | C |
what virus causes chicken pox | varicella zoster virus |
what virus causes german measels | rubella |
name one way for HIV to be transmitted | sexual contact |
once hiv replicates which antigen showes increased levels | P24 antigen |
name a lab test that has played a significant role in testing for HIV infection | CD4 |
what catagory of hiv shows ITP | catagory b |
what is the name of the enzyme that has a unique enzyme called reverse transcriptase | Hiv |
name the three structural genes that make up the genome of hiv | gag,env,pol |
which of the following is a test for antibody to specific antigen | rast |
Type II could involve all of the following | ADA,AHA,transfusion rejection |
compliment is responsible for tissue damage in which of the following reactions | type IV |
If a coombs test is positive what does that mean | invitro binding of rbc |
T cell dependant hypersensitivity occurs within what time frame | 24-72 hours |
which isotype of immunoglobulin is involved in a type I hypersensitivity | IgE |
in an indirect fluorescent immunoassay such as FTA confirmatory test for syphilis what is true | directly proportional to amount of patient antibody |
pregnancy testing is based on an increase in which hormone | hcg |
principle difference between type II and type III are | type II reacts with a antigen on cell wall,type IIIreacts with a soluble antigen in tissue |
to determine if a patient is allergic to peanuts what test should be done | RAST |
which of the following best describes a homogenous assay | no seperation step,direct proportional relationship |
which of the following best describes competitive binding assay | radiolabeled analyte competes for limited number of binding sites |
an example of type III hypersensitivity is | arthus,serum sickness,sle |
a positive DAT might indicate what | HDN,AHA,transfusion reaction |
complement is responsible for tisse damage in which reactions | IV,goodpastures |
which antibody class may require the use of an enhancement technique to visualize | IgG |
a hypersensitivity reaction characterized by presence of IgG that reacts with a soluble antigen | type II |
which is an example of type II hypersensitivity disorder | HDN,AHA,goodpastures |
reaction to poison ivy is which type of sensitivity | IV |
anaphylatic reactions are mediated by | IgM mast cells |
components of a competitive immunoassay include | all reactant are mixed simutanously,labeled antigens compete for binding site |
radioimmunosorbant assay can be used for the diagnosis of which type of hypersensitivity | immediate or type I |
what test should be used to determine evidence of HDN | DAT |
the immune mechanism involved in contact dermatitis is which of the following | sensitized cytoxic T cells |
cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia is an example of which hypersensitivity | type II |
the PPD reaction to determine exposure to tuberculosis is based on which of the following | sensitized T cells |