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2T251 Volume 1 CDC

2012 Edition of the 2T251 Volume 1 CDC

1. (001) An Airman is qualified in two Air Force specialty codes (AFSC). Which type of AFSC identifies the one in which the Airman is currently performing duty? b. Duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC).
2. (001) An Air Force specialty (AFS) is a group of d. positions requiring common qualifications.
3. (001) A duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) is the AFSC (Air Force specialty code) c. used to identify the position in which an individual is performing duty.
4. (001) A group of closely related Air Force specialties (AFS) requiring basically the same knowledge and skills is known as a a. career field
5. (001) A Senior Airmen may use the title Supervisor when he or she a. has graduated ALS and supervises the work of others
6. (002) Which specialty is not a part of the transportation career field? b. Air Traffic Control.
7. (003) Which is not a component of the Air Force On-the-job Training (AF OJT) Program? d. Job requirement.
8. (003) How many days are trainees given to complete each volume of their career development courses (CDC)? a. 30 days.
9. (003) Who is responsible for conducting and documenting work center orientations and initial qualification evaluations within 60 days of assignment? d. Supervisor.
10. (003) Who is responsible for actively participating in all opportunities for training? a. Trainee.
11. (003) Which is not a trainee responsibility in the Air Force On-the-job Training (AF OJT) Program? b. Identify and certify position qualifications and skill level upgrade training requirements.
12. (003) What is the minimum amount of time a trainee must be in training to be awarded the 7-skill level? b. 12 months.
13. (003) Before a trainee can be awarded the 5- or 7-skill levels all core tasks must be identified a. in the CFETP and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor.
14. (004) Which training document is the foundation for ensuring the completion of all work center job requirements? a. Master Training Plan (MTP).
15. (004) The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is a comprehensive a. core training document that identifies education and training requirements.
16. (004) The scale values on the proficiency code key indicate b. how well a trainee needs to perform a task or understand a task or subject.
17. (004) Which form is a continuation of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and is used and annotated the same way as the specialty training standard (STS)? a. AF IMT 797.
18. (005) What is the purpose of the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection, and Health (AFOSH) program? b. Minimize loss of Air Force resources and protect personnel.
19. (005) You injured your ankle playing basketball over the weekend. Your responsibility under the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection and Health (AFOSH) program is to promptly a. report the injury to your supervisor.
20.Your supervisor just conducted very thorough safety training with you that included job hazards, personal protective equipment wear, jewelry safety and manual lifting procedures. Which form will you and your supervisor use to document this training? a. AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record.
21. (005) You must be mindful of bulky uniform items with cords and strings because b. they can get caught in conveyor belts or moving parts and machinery.
22. (005) You are entering the warehouse wearing several items. Which of them must be removed before entering the area? d. Jewelry
23. (005) You have finished downloading pallets onto the finger docks. Which is the best way to exit the dock? c. Use the ladder located at the end of the dock
24. (005) You have acquired a bad safety habit of walking while spotting. It is important for you to eliminate this poor and unsafe work practice because a. new people can learn work habits by observing your performance.
25. (006) Operational risk management (ORM) is a continuous process designed to do what? c. Detect, assess, and control risk while enhancing performance and maximizing combat capabilities
26. (006) Which form would you use to report hazards that cannot be eliminated immediately? b. AF IMT 457, USAF Hazard Report
27. (007) The Base Weather Station has issued a lightning warning for your location. What does this warning mean and what should you do? a. Lightning is occurring within a 5-nautical-mile radius; immediately take shelter in a safe place
28. (007) You are entering the flight line area in a vehicle. What must you do before entering? b. Stop and do a foreign object damage (FOD) check.
29. (007) You have parked your vehicle on the flight line and need to leave it unattended to board the aircraft. What must you do? b. Leave the keys in the ignition and the vehicle unlocked; turn off the ignition; place it in park or reverse; and chock one rear wheel, in front and behind
30. (007) You are stopped on the flight line at night with your vehicle and its headlights on and an aircraft is approaching your direction. You are not in the aircraft’s path. What is your best course of action? c. Turn your headlights off and turn your parking lights/emergency flashers on until the aircraft is out of range
31. (007) You are crossing the active runway and see a red and green light coming from the control tower. What should you do? d. General warning. Exercise extreme caution.
32. (007) You are crossing the active runway and see a flashing white light coming from the control tower. What should you do? b. Return to your starting point
33. (008) What is the focus of the Pollution Prevention program? c. Preventing or reducing the amount of waste Air Force personnel create before it becomes a problem.
34. (008) A solid waste is any discarded material, a. including solids, liquids, and containerized gases only, which is abandoned, recycled, or considered inherently waste-like.
35. (008) What are the two main elements of minimizing waste? a. Prevention and control.
36. (008) Pollution control consists of which three activities? a. Recycling, treatment, and disposal.
37. (008) Which is not a benefit of pollution prevention? b. It reduces the need for federal standards and regulations
38. (008) What can you do each and every day to reduce air emissions at work? c. Inspect, operate, refuel and maintain vehicles in accordance with their applicable TOs and other authorized guidance.
39. (009) You have knowledge of some North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) SECRET information in which one of your coworkers has asked about. Which United States security clearance level must your coworker possess for access to this information? d. SECRET.
40.Your work center is storing some classified material in the vault and you have been asked to let a lighting technician in to fix the lighting. He doesn’t have the required “need-to-know,”. What is your best course of action? c. Escort him into and stay with him in the vault at all times until his work is complete.
41. (009) An aircraft diverted into your station with classified material on it and will remain overnight (RON) for repairs. The material is too large to be placed in an approved container. What is the best course of action? c. Download the classified material and store it in an authorized US facility.
42. (009) Which one of the following represents an operational security (OPSEC) vulnerability? b. Taking pictures of the helicopters you loaded on the C–5 and posting them on the internet.
43. (009) Which type of cargo consists of highly classified national security material and requires an escort? d. Defense Courier Service (DCS) material.
44. (009) Which type of cargo must you always protect, safeguard, and handle as if it were classified? b. Registered mail.
45. (010) Which term refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies and equipment to reinforce or resupply already deployed or employed forces? b. Sustainment.
46. (010) Which command provides common-user and commercial air, land and sea transportation? c. US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).
47. (010) Which command is not a component of the US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)? c. Military Traffic and Airlift Command (MTAC).
48. (010) Which command is the link between Department of Defense (DOD) shippers and the commercial transportation carrier industry? d. Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC).
49. (010) Which command is the US Transportation Command’s (USTRANSCOM) single component command for air mobility and provides airlift, air refueling, special air mission and aeromedical evacuation services? a. Air Mobility Command (AMC).
50. (010) Which agency serves as Air Mobility Command’s (AMC) strategic air operations hub and plans, directs, schedules, and tracks aircraft operations worldwide? c. Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC).
51. (011) Through which system does the Air Force provide rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system (DTS)? b. National Air Mobility System (NAMS).
52. (011) Which area is an air terminal located on a prepared airfield that is designated for the sustained air movement of cargo and passengers? b. Aerial port
53. (011) Which is a station that serves as an authorized port to process and clear aircraft and traffic for entrance into the country in which it is located? c. Aerial Port of Debarkation (APOD).
54. (012) Joint forces can be organized on which basis? d. Geographical or functional
55. (013) Which aircraft can hold up to 36 standard pallets and 73 passengers? a. C–5.
56. (013) Which aircraft is used for both strategic and theater airlift as well as airdrops and aeromedical evacuations? b. C–17.
57. (013) Which organic aircraft can hold up to six standard pallets and is capable of landing on dirt strips? c. C–130.
58. (013) Which program is where United States commercial airlines augment Department of Defense’s (DOD) airlift capability in time of war or during a President-declared emergency? c. Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) program.
59. (013) Which stage of Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) activation supports minor regional crises or small-scale contingencies? a. Stage I, Committed Expansion
60. (014) Improperly constructed mission numbers b. interfere with automated data updates between the various C2 systems
61. (014) Which type of mission moves mostly airlift sustainment cargo in which users reimburse the Transportation Working Capital Fund (TWCF)? a. Channel mission
62. (014) The last three digits of a mission number represents the c. Julian date on which the mission originated in Zulu or GMT
63. (015) Intransit Visibility (ITV) provides commanders the d. capability to determine if a force has reached its destination and is ready to perform its mission
64. (015) The Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) allows users to d. process, manifest and track passengers and cargo.
65. (015) At a minimum, aerial port personnel should verify in the Global Transportation Network (GTN) the c. presence of cargo and passenger data, mission number, and aerial port code.
66. (015) Who has a responsibility to provide accurate data to the aerial ports or agencies that enter data into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)? b. Individual units
67. (015) Which disk system is not used to import cargo or passenger information into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)? d. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
68. (015) Radio frequency identification (RFID) technology consists of which three parts? a. Tag, interrogator, and data server.
69. (016) The Deployed Global Air Transportation Execution System (DGATES) is set up and used until the c. capability is no longer necessary or until fixed R/GATES systems have been set up in its place.
70. (017) You are working in the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) for a mobility movement and want to locate information about mobility movements. In which part of the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) would you look c. Part III.
71. (017) You are helping a customer determine if he and his family are eligible for Department of Defense (DOD) air travel. In which publication would you look? a. DOD 4515.13-R, Air Transportation Eligibility.
72. (018) You want to find out if two pieces of hazardous cargo are compatible with each other. In which publication would you look? b. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24–204(I).
tactical, contingency, or emergency airlift and you need to look up the hazardous cargo restrictions and requirements for this type of airlift. Which chapter in(AFMAN) 24–204(I), would you go to find this information? c. Chapter 3
74. (019) You are load planning cargo for a Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) aircraft and want to look up the aircraft specifications to safely plan the load. In which publication series would you look to find the information d. Air Mobility Command Pamphlet (AMCPAM) 24–2.
75. (020) You are loading helicopters on a C–17 aircraft and want to find information on specific procedures for loading the items. Which section number of the 1C–17B–9 technical order (TO) contains that information? d. Section VI.
76. (021) Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) is both a process and a collection of automated computer systems used to develop b. operational plans (OPLANS) and time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDDs).
77. (021) The time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) is d. the electronic data that exists within the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) to help execute deployments in phases.
78. (022) Which volume of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) documents the aircraft activity for each geographical location in support of all regional OPLANs (operation plans) and certain CONPLANs (concept plans)? c. WMP–4, Wartime Aircraft Activity.
79. (022) Which war reserve material (WRM) support is sourced using Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)? a. Small scale contingencies
80. (023) Which automated system schedules, controls, and monitors the movement of passengers and cargo via air or surface transportation using tasking information? a. Logistics Module (LOGMOD).
81. (023) Which deployment work center is the hub of deployment operations and is responsible for the overall control and supervision of deployments? a. Deployment Control Center (DCC).
82. (023) Which deployment work center processes all deploying personnel through stations such as legal and finance and is responsible for processing and manifesting passengers and processing their baggage? d. Passenger Deployment Function (PDF).
83. (023) In which area of the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) do deploying units have sole responsibility? a. Marshalling area.
84. (023) Mobility forces will not start a joint inspection (JI) until a. all the cargo for the chalk is present and available.
85. (024) To whom does a copy of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 2133 not go? c. The troop commander with the consolidated flight package and manifest
86. (024) Satisfactory items are identified on the DD Form 2133 by c. a check mark.
87. (025) Which hazardous materials certifications allow personnel to sign the Shipper’s Declaration for Dangerous Goods (SDDG)? d. Hazardous materials preparer and technical specialist
88. (026) Which type of airdrop is used to feed stranded animals in a winter storm? b. Freedrop.
89. (026) Which type of airdrop requires large, clear drop zones, because they usually consist of large complex loads? c. Low-velocity drop.
90. (027) What is the capacity of the A–21 cargo bag? c. 500 pounds.
91. (028) For what type of drop is the Type V platform used? c. Low-velocity drop.
92. (029) Which parachute is the largest? a. G–11.
93. (029) How much weight will the G–12 parachute support? b. 2,200 pounds.
94. (030) When operating the lavatory service truck (LST), how will you know when the waste tank is full? b. Look through the sight window.
95. (031) On the AMC Form 249, Fleet Service Equipment Record, to conduct an inventory, which form will be used as a source document to annotate the total number of items out on mission aircraft? b. AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist
96. (032) You have been tasked to load non-expendable supplies on an Air Mobility Command (AMC) C–5. Which form should you use? a. AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist
97. (032) You are servicing an arriving aircraft and notice a personal item left by a passenger, what action must you take? a. Turn it into the passenger terminal’s lost and found or Security Forces
98. (033) Which describes the proper way to clean and service an oven? b. Remove the dirty racks, clean the oven interior, install clean racks and ensure the oven is operational.
99. (033) You are picking up clean and filled 5-gallon igloos and coffee jugs from the flight kitchen to take to an aircraft. How must they be when you pick them up so will they stay clean? d. The spouts will be covered in plastic.
100. (034) A flight is leaving with a departure time of 0800. What is the latest time passenger service personnel can call in a firm meal order for that flight? b. 0645.
101. (034) What must you do before you print and sign your name on the AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer, when picking up meals from the flight kitchen? b. Verify you have every item listed on the form.
102. (034) You have performed final fleet service on a C–17 that blocks out at 0800. Within what timeframe are aircrews required to pick up their own meals? d. 0720.
103. (034) You have delivered 73 meals to a C–5. Who will stow those meals in the galley or air transportable galley lavatory (ATGL) storage areas? d. The aircrew members and Fleet Service personnel
104. (034) You are stationed at McChord AFB, WA, and a flight just arrived from Kadena AB, Japan, that has unused meals onboard. What must you do with these meals? c. After USDA inspection and approval, place them in two plastic bags and incinerate or sterilize them at an approved facility.
105. (035) When servicing an aircraft with potable water you should fill the aircraft water tank until b. water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity.
106. (035) When servicing the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) water tank you should fill it with potable water until c. the gauge indicates that it is full or 39 gallons, whichever comes first.
107. (036) You serviced the C–17 with the lavatory service truck (LST); and you came into direct contact with waste from the aircraft. You were wearing all required personal protective equipment (PPE). What actions should you take? a. Wash immediately and change clothes.
108. (036) How much water or solution do you use to rinse and fill the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) waste tank? c. 11 gallons.
109. (037) When recording the various Fleet Service activities on an AMC Form 244, such as “latrine serviced by,” you should include the initials of the a. person who serviced the latrine, the Julian date, and start and complete times
110. (037) As a Fleet Service dispatcher, you have just completed and signed an AMC Form 244, Fleet Service Arrival/Departure Worksheet. Who else needs to sign it before it can be turned into records? d. The Fleet Service shift supervisor.
Created by: aarriaga32
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