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2T251 Volume 2 2012

2012 edition of 2T251 Vol 2 CDC's

QuestionAnswer
1. (201) A shipper is responsible for a. planning, assembling, consolidating, and documenting a shipment and arranging for its movement.
2. (201) Which of the following is not a purpose of the Advance Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD)? b. It allows cargo processors to calculate critical leg Allowable Cabin Load (ACL) information.
3. (202) What is another name for a receiver? c. A consignee.
4. (202) Who is responsible for ensuring a shipment is complete and removing any radio frequency identification (RFID) tags? b. The receiver.
5. (203) When is a shipment, other than TP–4 cargo, considered cleared by the Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA)? d. When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the Advance Transportation Control and Movement Document (ATCMD) date shipped field.
6. (204) How many cargo applications do the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) hand-held terminals (HHT) provide access to? c. 17.
7. (204) You perform a soft reset on the hand-held terminals (HHT) by pressing d. Alpha + Function + Backlight keys.
8. (205) What two types of information are entered on the Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD)? a. Prime data and trailer data.
9. (205) Which appendix in Part II of the Defense Transportation Regulation explains how to fill out a TCMD block-by-block? b. Appendix M.
10. (205) What do the air commodity and special handling codes tell you? c. The nature of the shipment and how it should be treated.
c. The nature of the shipment and how it should be treated. b. The 16th position.
12. (206) Which transportation priority (TP) includes shipments requiring routine transportation? c. TP–3.
13. (206) Which transportation priority (TP) is considered “deferred air freight” and is moved as a last priority, only if there is room on a given aircraft? d. TP–4.
14. (206) How many days must transportation priority (TP) 4 cargo remain at an aerial port before the air terminal manager (ATM) can decide to send it through surface modes or upgrade it to TP–2? b. 20 days.
15. (206) The three-position date shipped code is comprised of the c. Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date.
16. (207) When receiving a shipment into the air terminal, you do not have to inspect for d. correct national stock numbers (NSN).
17. (207) Identification markings and labels tell you a. what the shipment is.
18. (207) You place two military shipment labels (MSL) on any item over how many cubic feet? b. 10.
19. (208) You must correct a discrepancy with a shipment received at your terminal c. when the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot
20. (208) Which form do you use to frustrate a shipment? a. AMC Form 33.
21. (208) After the Customer Service Branch (CSB)/Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA) corrects the frustrated shipment and returns the original AMC Form 33 to the work center that frustrated the shipment; what actions must the work center take? c. Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected and file them both.
22. (208) What must you annotate on both copies of the Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD) when receipting for a shipment? c. The Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival.
23. (208) When the system entry time (SET) is equal for two or more shipments, you determine which shipments are processed first by using the b. expedited handling indicators and the required delivery date (RDD).
24. (208) Within how many hours of receipt must you process all cargo? b. 6 hours.
25. (208) You finalize the receipt of a shipment by c. writing the warehouse location or assigned pallet identifier in block 25c of the TCMD.
26. (209) An over shipment is a shipment that b. arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifest.
27. (209) Who is responsible for initiating an immediate investigation to determine if pilferage has occurred for a shipment? c. Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) duty officer.
28. (209) You leave intransit pallets intact, without removing the nets, tie down or radio frequency identification (RFID) tags when the pallets c. are destined for a single location.
29. (210) Terminating cargo release letters are effective for how long from the date they are authenticated by the organizational commander? d. Two years.
30. (211) Which best describes the role of a hazardous materials handler? c. Loads or transports hazardous materials to/on an aircraft.
31. (211) All personnel who operate, handle, transport, or load missiles, explosives, or nuclear weapons must receive which type of training and how often? a. Weapons safety training; annually
32. (212) Which hazardous materials class consists of explosive materials? a. Class 1.
33. (212) Which hazardous materials class consists of flammable liquids? c. Class 3.
34. (212) Which hazardous materials class consists of infectious and toxic materials? c. Class 6.
35. (212) Which hazardous materials class consists of miscellaneous hazardous materials? d. Class 9.
36. (212) How should hazardous materials be positioned on a pallet or in the back of a vehicle? a. So the labels are clearly visible.
37. (212) What form do shippers use to certify their hazardous materials shipments? c. AMC Form 1033, Shipper’s Declaration for Dangerous Goods.
38. (213) How must hazardous materials placards be displayed at aircraft? c. Front, rear, both sides and at entry points.
39. (213) Which class requires a placard for any amount of hazard? a. Class 1.3.
40. (213) Which class requires a placard for 1,001 pounds or more aggregate gross weight of material? c. Class.2.1.
41. (213) When a load contains class 1.1, class 1.2, and class 1.3 materials, which placard will you use? a. Class 1.1
42. (214) In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, the letter “X” means these articles a. must not be loaded, transported, or stored together.
43. (214) In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, if the material is not listed or there is a blank space in the table, that means these articles c. have no restrictions for being loaded, transported, or stored together.
44. (214) How many fire extinguishers minimum must be available for use at any location where explosives are handled? c. Two.
45. (214) How many fire extinguishers must a vehicle contain while transporting explosives? c. Two.
46. (214) Where on the aircraft should hazardous materials be loaded? a. Aft of non-jettisonable cargo.
47. (214) During explosives operations, to reduce electrostatic discharge, aircraft will be d. grounded.
48. (215) Which form must shippers complete for security or classified shipments? a. DD Form 1387–2, Special Handling Data/Certification
49. (215) If a shipment is hazardous and requires security, which form(s) must shippers complete? c. DD Form 1387–2, Special Handling Data/Certification and AMC Form 1033, SDDG.
50. (215) What is Defense Courier Service (DCS) material? b. Highly classified national security shipments that require courier escort
51. (216) You stow human remains (HR) shipments on the aircraft with the b. head higher than the feet and the head towards the nose of the aircraft.
52. (216) What is the maximum number of human remains (HR) transfer cases that can be safely transported on one 463L pallet if absolutely necessary? d. 12.
53. (217) You have received three blood shipments that require refrigeration and re-icing before they are airlifted. On which form would you document the re-icing and refrigeration? c. AMC Form 106, Biologicals/Re-icing/Refrigeration Log.
54. (218) When receiving registered mail, the two pieces of information you must check against the manifest are the d. TCN and register number.
55. (219) You have received a terminating piece of Air Mobility Command Mission Capability (AMC MICAP) cargo with a receipt time of 0815 Greenwhich Mean Time (GMT). What is the latest time it must be available to the consignee? c. 0845 GMT.
You work at an air terminal without an (ACA) or a (CSB) and receive a call from a Navy customer who wants to green sheet some Navy equipment. Who will initiate green sheet action for this customer when it is necessary to meet a shipment’s (RDD)? c. The air terminal operations officer
57. (220) An 8,000-pound piece of cargo is built on a pallet and you are responsible for adding enough restraint to get the pallet to the aircraft. How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain? b. 7,500 pounds
58. (220) You are loading an aircraft and must winch a heavy pallet into position. How many attaching points will you use to safely winch this pallet on the aircraft? b. Two
59. (221) Your supervisor has asked you to restrain four pallets in the warehouse with varying weights and heights. Which pallet is most effectively restrained with a full 463L net set? b. An 89-inch high pallet weighing 8,225 pounds.
60. (221) While sorting through net sets, you discover several unserviceable radio frequency identification (RFID) tags still attached to the nets. What must you do with these unserviceable tags? c. Return them to the Defense Logistics Agency for repair.
61. (222) You are issuing three CGU–1/B straps to an Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC) C–130. Which form would you use to maintain accountability for the items issued to this aircraft? a. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.
A pallet destined for Aviano, only has space for one more piece of cargo on the pallet. All of the available pieces have the same destination and transportation priority. Which other two factors will you use to consider which piece to build? c. Movement indicator and SET.
63. (224) Which two manual forms must both be placed on a completed 463L pallet after it is built? a. AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice and DD Form 2775, Pallet Identifier.
64. (225) For the locks on a C–17 to clear the cargo and engage properly, household goods containers may overhang the 108-inch side, provided they overhang no more than c. one inch and are raised up ¾-inch
65. (225) How much of an aisleway must you create on the usable surface of a pallet loaded in the wheel well area of a C–130? b. 6 inches
66. (226) You received several shipments in for airlift; which one will you not mark with a center of balance (C/B)? d. A single pallet.
69. (227) At a minimum, how much ramp services experience should load planning personnel have? b. 6 months
70. (227) At a minimum, what hazardous materials qualification must load planners have? c. Inspector.
71. (228) The KC–10 has two basic configurations for load planning. When airlines seat kits are installed, how many pallets are available for cargo? a. 16 pallets.
72. (228) What is the maximum height allowed for the belly pallets of a B–747? b. 60 inches.
73. (229) You are working load planning and your supervisor tasked you to conduct an inventory. Which areas of the air terminal will you inventory? b. Outbound cargo and mail.
74. (230) How much weight an aircraft can carry is called the a. allowable cabin load (ACL)
75. (231) Which type of load plan are users authorized to use when they do not have Automated Air Load Planning System (AALPS) capability? a. DD Form 2130-XX series load plans.
76. (231) What must remain the highest priority when load planning cargo? d. Safety of flight.
77. (232) You need to manually manifest cargo? Which form would you use? a. DD Form 1385, Cargo Manifest
78. (232) Which form do you attach to the manual manifest when pallet header data is listed in the body of the manifest? a. AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice.
79. (233) Which forklift is designed for operating on rough terrain? d. 10K AT.
80. (233) You are driving a forklift; when is it safe to raise or lower a load on the fork tines? b. Only after you have come to a complete stop
81. (233) When parking a forklift, how do you position the tines? c. Tilt the mast so the tines are level with the ground and lower the forks flat.
82. (234) What is the 40K loader winch’s capacity in both low and high range modes, respectively? b. 2,500/8,000 lbs.
83. (235) Which cab controls on the 60K-loader are used to operate the deck functions when on/offloading cargo? c. The deck and conveyor control panel.
84. (235) Which K-loader has a deck range up to 225 inches and allows adjustable pallet guides to accommodate pallets on the 88- or 108-inch side? d. NGSL Halvorsen
85. (235) You are working on a load crew. At which deck height are you required to wear a fall restraint harness? d. 11 feet.
86. (235) You are bridging two 60K-loaders to accelerate loading operations and you need to transfer all your pallets from one to the other. Which of the following best describes how to do this? b. Lower both K-loaders and place a spotter on the left side of the loader to monitor the transfer and guide the operators.
87. (236) You are conducting a before-operation inspection of a K-loader. Which action will you complete? c. Review the AF Form 1800, Operator’s Inspection Guide and Trouble Report, for open discrepancies.
88. (237) You are performing a before-operation inspection on a 4K forklift. You must open the hood to check for which items? d. Security of the battery terminals.
89. (237) You are performing a during-operation inspection on a 10K forklift. Which fluid level will you check? d. Transmission.
90. (237) You are inspecting a 40K-loader. During which part of the inspection will you check the steering and steering wheel for free play and excessive wear? b. During-operation.
91. (238) You are loading a heavy piece of cargo on an aircraft between the treadways. Which type of shoring will allow you to place it on supporting beams that span to the treadways? a. Bridge shoring.
92. (238) You are loading a trailer on a C–5 that is very long, very tall, and has extremely low ground clearances. In order to reduce the ramp angle this vehicle must travel during the onload, which type of shoring would you use? d. Approach shoring.
93. (239) How do you secure rolling stock to a K-loader? b. Forward and aft with chains and devices.
94. (239) Which types of loading aids are used to pull cargo slowly into the aircraft? b. The cargo winch and snatch blocks.
95. (240) You are within 10 feet of an aircraft. In which zone are you? b. Spotter zone.
96. (240) You are spotting 60K in to an aircraft. How many feet minimum from the aircraft must you stop the vehicle operator for preliminary alignment? b. 10 feet.
97. (241) You are loading passengers on a C–17 in which several pallets are loaded. How many inches away must your passengers sit from the palletized cargo at a minimum? c. 30 inches.
98. (242) How many 25,000-pound (lb) chains would you use to restrain a piece of cargo weighing 17,700 lbs for the vertical direction when the cargo is restrained to the floor of a C–5? a. 2.
99. (242) Up to how many angles does tie down provide restraint for when applied properly? c. Three
100. (243) When can passengers enter or exit an aircraft during concurrent servicing operations? a. When a jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the opposite side of the aircraft.
Created by: aarriaga32