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Vol #1 - 2A551

100 Q & A

1. (001) What estimated percent of accidents are caused by nature? a. 2.
2. (001) In the operational risk management process, the responsibility for identifying and controlling hazards rests with b. everyone.
3. (001) Which safety-training phase is an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airman? a. Initial.
4. (001) Responsibility for initiating a lost tool report rests with the c. person that was issued the tool.
5. (001) The lowest person authorized to clear a red X when a lost tool cannot be located is d. an individual assigned to maintenance supervision.
6. (001) The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the c. green markings.
7. (001) Minimum requirements for positioning of fire extinguishers is listed in b. TO 00–25–172.
8. (002) Wearing dog tags, wristwatches, or other jewelry is expressly forbidden d. when you’re working on electrical equipment.
9. (002) Fall protection is required when it becomes necessary to perform required tasks where a worker can fall b. 10 feet or more.
10. (003) Radiation hazards are affected by a. strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.
11. (003) The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location, then d. allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.
12. (003) Normally, the safe distance behind an operating jet engine exhaust is d. 200 feet.
13. (003) How is a maintenance stand secured when placed near an operating propeller? d. Wrap chains around each wheel individually.
14. (003) Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue? c. A feeling of emptiness.
15. (004) Any fuel spill not over 50 square feet and not continuous is classified as a b. class II.
16. (004) Individuals who are not directly involved in a nitrogen servicing operation should be outside a b. 20 foot radius.
17. (005) To ensure equipment is ready and available at the time of need, the Air Force uses a. preventive maintenance.
18. (005) Responsibility for establishing a climate that promotes maintenance discipline rests with c. immediate supervisors.
19. (006) Prime contributors to dropped objects are b. latches and fasteners.
20. (007) The objectives of the maintenance data documentation system include d. collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.
21. (007) The basic rules for the maintenance data documentation system are contained in TO c. 00–20–2.
22. (008) The three phases of the operational events subsystem of the IMDS CDB are d. mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis.
23. (008) You can use the IMDS CDB Training Management Subsystem to monitor a. upgrade training.
24. (009) After student graduation, how many days later is the technical school graduate assessment survey normally sent out to organizations? c. 90.
25. (009) Unsatisfactory comments on the graduate assessment survey are answered by a. the instructor of the student using an AETC Form 156. b. a telephone call from the instructor of the student.
26. (010) Tasks that a person is expected to perform in a duty position or workcenter but are not included in the CFETP Part II or AFJQS are listed c. on an AF Form 797.
27. (011) Who may standardize the arrangements of the forms binder? c. MAJCOMs.
28. (011) To obtain billing information for fuel and oil on an aircraft, you would check the AFTO Form b. 781F.
29. (011) When must the AFTO Form 781 be removed from the forms binder? d. After the IMDS CDB event number is entered at maintenance debriefing.
30. (011) Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on the AFTO Form b. 781J.
31. (011) You would use the AFTO Form 781K to document a. engine data.
32. (012) The standards for the entries to be made in the AFTO 781 series forms are specified in the a. 00–20 series of technical orders.
33. (012) Which is the proper way to manually record a date in the 781 series forms? c. 20091212.
34. (012) What action is necessary to clear an erroneous red diagonal symbol? d. Place the statement “Symbol entered in error,” in the discrepancy block and sign the “CORRECTED BY” block.
35. (012) During an aircraft inspection, you find a deteriorated insignia decal. What symbol would you use in the aircraft forms? d. None.
36. (013) How many Air Force TO catalogs are there? a. One.
37. (014) Inspection workcards are known as a. abbreviated TO.
38. (014) Which TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs (X) around the border of the first page? b. Urgent action.
39. (014) As a general rule, ITCTO are replaced by formal TOs within c. 10 days.
40. (015) The procedures for the entries on an AFTO Form 22 are outlined in a. TO 00–5–1.
41. (015) What type of TO improvement is issued for TCTO deficiencies? b. Urgent.
42. (016) Which type of directive publication is an extension of an instruction? c. Manual.
43. (016) An example of something that should not be published in an OI would be d. Installation traffic rules.
44. (016) Publications are listed in AFIND2 in a b. numerical sequence.
45. (017) A sequence chart used in aircraft maintenance best serves as a. a ready reference for determining the progress of the inspection
46. (018) Which inspection is basically a flight preparedness check? a. Preflight.
47. (018) What inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems? d. End-of-runway.
48. (018) If a basic postflight inspection is not required, the thru-flight inspection is normally Performed b. after flights when a turn-around sortie or a continuation flight is scheduled.
49. (018) The basic postflight inspection is performed to d. determine if the aircraft is suitable for another flight.
50. (018) Which is the most extensive inspection? a. Periodic.
51. (018) The home station check is accomplished in conjunction with a. minor and major inspections.
52. (018) What aircraft inspection requires skills, equipment, or facilities not normally possessed by operating locations? d. Programmed depot maintenance.
53. (018) What symbol is entered on the forms if an aircraft exceeds the programmed depot maintenance cycle by 90 days and an extension is not granted? a. Red X.
54. (018) What type of inspection is used to ensure the completeness of historical documents? d. Acceptance.
55. (019) Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in lowtorque applications? c. Prevent corrosion.
56. (019) What bolt is used where heavy tension or lengthwise stress must be sustained? d. Hexhead.
57. (019) Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications? d. Internal wrenching.
58. (019) At least how many threads must be showing through a self-locking nut for maximum locking effect? b. Two.
59. (019) To use .032 gauge safety wire properly, there should be how many turns per inch? a. 7–12.
60. (019) If the manufacture’s brochure is not available, prior to using a torque wrench, you should cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the d. maximum setting and at least six times.
61. (020) Aircraft cable size is determined by its c. diameter
62. (020) A 7 × 19 cable has a. 7 strands with 19 wires per strand.
63. (020) Normally, pressure seals are constructed of a. soft rubber.
64. (020) To check the engagement of a push-pull rod end, you would d. insert a piece of safety wire into the hole in the end of the terminal.
65. (021) Aircraft tubing can be constructed of a. aluminum-alloy and stainless-steel.
66. (021) Generally, low-pressure hoses are used for pressures of what pounds psi and below? b. 300.
67. (022) What parts of a cannon plug complete the electrical circuit? d. Pin-and-socket contacts.
68. (022) What can you use to tighten cannon plugs? d. All of the above.
69. (023) Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is d. exhausted or salvaged.
70. (023) What is the most severe type of corrosion, because it’s hard to detect without some type of nondestructive test? c. Intergranular.
71. (023) Which type of corrosion appears as corroded cracks in a metal? a. Stress.
72. (023) To reduce corrosion, what procedure do you follow when working on aerospace equipment? d. All of the above.
73. (024) The optimum temperature used to cool sealants that were mixed in an automatic mixing machine is a. 70º F.
74. (024) What advantage is gained by using accelerators to speed up an adhesive curing process? d. Air isn’t required to affect a cure.
75. (025) For the most part, the frequency of cleaning an aircraft exterior varies depending on the c. environmental conditions.
76. (025) What type of cleaners are not very effective on grease, but are excellent for lightly soiled areas, plastics, and instrument glass covers in the interior of an aircraft? c. Detergent cleaners. c. Detergent cleaners
77. (025) What solution is used to treat areas that have been affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery? c. Sodium bicarbonate and water.
78. (025) Which statement is not a good lubrication tip? a. Heat lubricants to make them easier to apply.
79. (026) Under ideal conditions, an aircraft is operationally ready when d. the required inspection and servicing are complete.
80. (026) Responsibility for accomplishing the –1 preflight check rests with a. the aircrew.
81. (026) Which condition is most likely to cause aircraft damage? c. Sudden local storms.
82. (026) What type of jack would you use to raise an aircraft strut prior to a tire change? a. Axle.
83. (027) The F–2 lifting bag is designed to lift c. 24,000 pounds to a maximum height of 6 feet.
84. (027) During crash recovery, what method of aircraft hoisting is confined to emergencies when no other method is available? c. Crane hoisting.
85. (028) Bench stock levels are established to provide a c. 60-day usage.
86. (028) The maintenance activities that have the option to develop and maintain quick reference lists are those with how many or more aircraft of the same mission, design, and series? c. Nine.
87. (028) To issue an item of equipment for short specified periods, use the c. AF Form 1297.
88. (028) Critical items are generally small numbers of items that cause the largest number of d. NMCS conditions.
89. (028) The base critical items list is maintained by d. personnel in Base Supply in coordination with MSL.
90. (028) Internal control of repairable items within maintenance is accomplished through the use of the DIFM notice and the c. AFTO Form 350.
91. (028) What copy of the DD Form 1348–1 is retained by the individual who receives an item from supply? b. 2..
92. (028) What form is used to report accomplishment of TCTO? b. AFTO Form 349.
93. (028) Red margins and letters are used to allow you to easily identify the DD Form d. 1577 and DD Form 1577–1.
94. (028) Green margins and letters are used to allow you to easily identify the DD Form a. 1577–2 and 1577–3.
95. (029) To report quality deficiencies attributed to errors in workmanship, use a Category b. II DR.
96. (029) Submission of a Category II deficiency report is required within how many calendar days? d. 13.
97. (029) Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for the first b. 100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.
98. (030) A commander assures that property is receiving proper care and is being properly safeguarded by c. making frequent visits to base activities.
99. (030) What type of responsibility is assumed by an individual who has acquired physical possession of government property? b. Custodial.
100. (030) When pecuniary liability is not involved, an individual may be relieved of property responsibility b. by turn-in or by transfer.
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