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AAB PER
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Hemostasis involves all of the following EXCEPT | VASODILATION |
| Factor XII is most commonly activated by exposure to which one of the following | SUBENDOTHELIUM |
| Which coagulation family is dependent on vitamin K synthesis | PROTHROMBIN |
| which of the following factors does not require vitamin K for its production by the liver | VIII |
| Which activated coagulation factor is NOT a serine protease | VIII |
| What is the precursor of thrombin | PROTHROMBIN |
| Which activated coagulation factor converts fibrinogen to fibrin | THROMBIN |
| The end result of most coagulation tests is the production of which one of the following | FIBRIN CLOT |
| Factor X is associated with which coagulation pathway | COMMON PATHWAY |
| All of the following factor activation occur in the alternate pathway EXCEPT which one | FACTOR XII ACTIVATES PREKALLIKREIN |
| What does the prothrombinase complex consist of | Xa-Va-PHOSPHOLIPID-Ca++ |
| What is the inactive form of plasmin | PLASMINOGEN |
| In the presence of fibrinolysis, which of the following acts on fibrin | PLASMIN |
| Which inhibitor degrades Factor Va and Factor VIIIa | PROTEIN C |
| Which inhibitor acts as a cofactor and accelerates the inactivation of Factor Va and Factor VIIIa | PROTEIN S |
| Which is the principal inhibitor of thrombin and Factor Xa | ANTITHROMBIN III |
| What is the most frequently aqcuired inhibitor in hereditary deficiencies | ANTI-VIII |
| Which inhibitor inactivates coagulation factors through phospholipoprotein components | LUPUS-LIKE ANTICOAGULANT |
| The following results are available on a 25-year old male patient: PTT 56.8 seconds mixing study performed PTT (unincubated) 55.8 seconds PTT (incubated) 57.0 seconds | CIRCULATING ANTICOAGULANT |
| If a coagulation test is prolonged due to a deficiency of a plasma coagulation factor, then the test should be corrected by the addition of which one of the following | NORMAL PLASMA |
| Diagnosis of von Willebrand's disease can be made from all of the following test results EXCEPT which one | DECREASED PLATELET COUNT |
| Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP)is used in the treatment of which disorder | VON WILLEBRAND'S DISEASE |
| Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy is associated with all of the following disorders EXCEPT which one | HEMOPHILIA |
| A 27 year old female complains of mucous membrane bleeding | DISSEMINATED INTRAVASCULAR COAGULOPATHY |
| The following results are available on a 27 year old female: PT 20.5 PTT 43.0 Fibrinogen 141 | LIVER DISEASE |
| What is the origin of platelets in the bone marrow | MEGAKARYOCYTES |
| Which coagulation factors are liable | FACTORS V AND VIII |
| Which coagulation factors are monitored in severe liver disease | FACTORS I AND V |
| Classic hemophilia is the result of a deficiency of which coagulation factor | FACTOR VIII |
| What is the normal plasma concentration of fibrinogen | 300-400 mg/dL |
| Which coagulation factor is known as the christmas factor | IX |
| What is the average life span of a platelet | 8-11 DAYS |
| What is the normal range for a platelet count | 140,000-440,000/uL |
| Which one of the following is a hereditary platelet disorder characterized by decreased platelet production accompanied by the presence of Dohle bodies in polymorphonuclear cells | MAY-HEGGLIN ANOMALY |
| Idiopathis thrombocytopenic purpura is usually characterized by which of the following | INCREASED PLATELET DESTRUCTION |
| A prolonged bleeding time with a normal platelet count indicates all of the following EXCEPT which one | BERNARD-SOULIER SYNDROME |
| Bernard-soulier syndrome is a platelet disorder that has what type of abnormality associated with it | ABNORMAL ADHESION |
| Which platelet disorder is associated with abnormal primary aggregation | GLANZMANN'S DIESEASE |
| Wiskott-Aldrich is a qualitative platelet disorder that is associated with which one of the following | ABNORMAL SECONDARY AGGREGATION |
| Thrombocythemia is most commonly associated with which myeloproliferative disorder | POLYCYTHEMIA VERA |
| While performing a platelet estimate using 1000x magnification, how many platelets are associated with a normal platelet count | 8-20 |
| What do a low platelet count and normal bleeding time indicate | AUTOIMMUNE THROMBOCYTOPENIA |
| What is the only coagulation test is sensitive to a Factor VII deficiency | PROTHROMBIN TIME |
| The activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) serves as a screening procedure for which plasma factor deficiencies | XII,XI,IX,VIII,X,V,II,I |
| Which test can monitor heparin therapy, increased levels of fibrin split products, and quantitative and qualitative fibrinogen abnormalities | THROMBIN TIME |
| Which caogulation methodology is monitored by a photoelectric system | OPTICAL |
| Which automated assay is used to detect fragment D and fragment E | D-DIMER |
| Which coagulation test is used to differentiate between a factor deficiency and the presence of a circulating anticoagulant | MIXING STUDY |
| Which one of the following is a quantitative method for determining the amount of Factor VIII present | FACTOR ASSAY |
| What is hemaglobin composed of | 4 HEME, 4 IRON, 1 GLOBULIN |
| What disorder does defect in heme synthesis lead to | PORPHYRIA |
| What is the function of the enzyme methemoglobin-cytochrome C reductase in a red blood cell | TO KEEP IRON IN FERROUS STATE |
| Which hemoglobin has a 200 times greater binding capacity for the hemoglobin molecule than oxygen | CARBOXYHEMOGLOBIN |
| What hemoglobin derivative causes irreversable changes in the red blood cells | SULFHEMOGLOBIN |
| Which of the following hemoglobins is NOT normally presnt in a normal adult | Hb-S |
| Which embryotic hemoglobin is normally found in newborns | Hb-F |
| What is the most abundant hemoglobin in a newborn | Hb-F |
| What is the molecular structure in hemoglobin S | vALINE REPLACES GLUTAMIC ACID IN THE 6TH POSITION OF THE BETA CHAIN |
| Which of the following hemoglobins is insoluble under lowered oxygen tension | Hb-S |
| What laboratory test is used to confrim the specific diagnosis of sickle cell anemia | HEMOGLOBIN ELECTROPHORESIS |
| In the solubility test for hemoglobin S, what is the reagent responsible for the reduction of the hemoglobin molecule | SODIUM DITHIONITE |
| In hemoglobin C, what replaces glutamic acid | LYSINE |
| Which red blood cell inclusion is characteristic of hemoglobin C disease | ROD-SHAPED CRYSTALS |
| What is hemoglobin F composed of | 2 ALPHA+2 GAMMA CHAINS |
| Which hemoglobin is resistant to alkali denaturation | Hb-F |
| What hemoglobins are differentiated by the Kleihauer-Betke technique | Hb-A1 AND Hb-F |
| What is the order of migration of hemoglobins, from faster to slowest, on cellulose acetate at pH 8.4 | A1,F,S,C |
| Why is citrate agar used when abnormal hemoglobins are identified on cellulose acetate at pH 8.6 | IT SEPERATES HEMOGLOBIN S FROM HEMOGLOBIN D |
| The cyanmethemoglobin method measures all hemoglobin pigments EXCEPT whoch one | SULFHEMOGLOBIN |
| What is the diluent used in the cyanmethemoglobin method for determination of hemoglobin | DRABKIN'S SOLUTION |
| Which plasma protein binds free hemoglobin | HAPTOGLOBIN |
| Which one of the following statements concerning hemolytic anemia is flase | THE SERUM HAPTOGLOBIN IS INCREASED |
| Myoglobin can be separated from hemoglobin by saturating the specimen with which one of the following reagents | AMMONIUM SULFATE |
| The hematocrit is also known as which one of the following terms | PACKED RED BLOOD CELL VOLUME |
| The degree of packing of cells during centrifugation depends on all of the following EXCEPT which | BORE SIZE OF THE MICROHEMATOCRIT TUBE |
| During examination of a spun hematacrit, in which layer are the white blood cells found | BUFFY COAT |
| When performing a microhematocrit, where should one read the percentage of packed red blood cell column from a microhematocrit reading device | BELOW THE BUFFY COAT |
| An increase in the erythrocyte sedimentation rate can be the result of an increase in the quality of which one of the following | FIBRINOGEN |
| Which test is increacsed in acute infection | ERYTHROCYE SEDIMENTATION RATE |
| All of the following sources of error will falsely elevate the erythrocyte sedimentation rate EXCEPT which one | POLYCYTHEMIA |
| What is the westergren ESR reference range for males | 0-15 mm/hr |
| A ceriborospinal fluid has 285 red blood cells counted in the 5 red blood cell squares after being diluted in a unopette(1:100). What is the calculated red blood cell count/uL | 1,425,000 |
| Any cell that passes through the aperature will momentarily increase the resistance of the electrical flow between the electrodes, generating a pulse. This is the basic principle of which of the following | ELECTRICAL IMPEDANCE |
| Which principle utilizes laminar flow and hydrodynamic focusing to characterizes cells based on granularity and feflectivity | LASER LIGHT SCATTER |
| Scatterplots are created using all of the following EXCEPT which one | FLORESCENCE |
| Both nucleated red blood cells and large platelets interfere with which one of the following perameters | WBC |
| Lyse-resistant red blood cells detected by automated hematology analyzers are seen in which clinical condition | SICKLE CELL ANEMIA |
| On automated hematology analyzers, which one of the following will affect both the red blood cell count and the platelet count | SCHISTOCYTES |
| The white blood cell count is 10.5 There are 5 nucleated red blood cells seen on the 100 cell differential. what is the corrected WBC count | 10.0 |
| On automated hematology analyzers, hemoglobin determinations may be falsely elevated due to the presence of which one of the following interfering substances | LIPEMIA |
| CBC results are as follows:WBC 6.5, RBC 1.69, HGB 9.1, HCT 22.8, MCV 135, MCH 53.8, MCHC 39.9: What is the most likely cause of these results | COLD AGGLUTINATION |
| All of the following may cause a falsely decreased platelet count EXCEPT which one | SCHISTOCYTES |
| A leukocyte count greater than the linearity of the automated analyzer will falsely elevate which other CBC parameter | HGB |
| Fragile white blood cells seen in leukemia patients may cause pseudoleukopenia, which in turn may cause automated WBC and WBC estimate not to match. Which action should be taken if this occurs | PERFORM A MANUAL WBC HEMACYTOMETER COUNT |
| What is the dilution factor for performing a platelet count from a sodium citrate tube | 1.1 |
| Smudge cells can cause the automated WBC and the WBC estimate not to match. What action can be taken to prevent this occurence | ADD 22%BOVINE ALBUMIN TO STABILIZE THE WBC |
| If cryoglobulin causes WBC cellular interference, then what is the most appropriate action to take to resolve this interfering substance | INCUBATE THE SPECIMEN AT 37C FOR 15 MINUTES |
| If a cold agglutinin is suspected to be causing erroneous results, then what is the most appropriate action to take before reporting the results | INCUBATE THE SPECIMEN AT 37C FOR 15 MINUTES |
| After centerifuging a microhematocrit, the presence of lipemia is noted. what is the most appropriate correction action | PERFORM SALINE REPLACEMENT PROCEDURE |
| Which on of the following can produce a normal MCV but hypochromic red blood cells to appear on the peripheral blood smear | HYPERGLYCEMIA |
| If a WBC count is performed on a 1:100 dilution and the number of cells counted in a total of 8 squares is 50, then what is the WBC count | 6,250 |
| A blood smear shows 80 nucleated red blood cells per 100 leukocyted. The total leukocyte count is 18.0x10^9/L. What is the corrected WBC count | 10.0 |
| Which reagent is the fixative incorporated in the Wright's stain | METHANOL |
| How can the color of Wright-stained red blood cells be adjusted | ADJUSTING THE pH OF THE BUFFER |
| Malarial parasites in red blood cells are best demonstrated by which stain | GIEMSA |
| Which of the following RBC inclusions is NOT visible with wright stain | HEINZ BODIES |
| Which on of the following is a stain for iron | PRUSSIAN BLUE |
| In which special cytochemical stain are homogeneously pink cells counted as positive | Kleihauer-Betke stain |
| Which one of the following stains both nonspecific and specific granules in myelogenous cells | SUDAN BLACK B |
| In the cytochemical stain for peroxidase, which cell stains negative | LYMPHOCYTES |
| The results on a leukemic patient are as follows: alpha-naphthol-AS-D-acetate esterase (NASDA) 3+ NASDA with sodium fluoride (NaF) 1+: The results are suggestive of which type of leukemia | ACUTE MYELOMONOCYTIC LEUKEMIA OR AMML |
| In which leukemia are the blasts periodic acid-schiff (PAS) stain positive | ALL |
| Which of the following is a stain for neutral lipids | OIL RED O |
| Which stain is used to differentiate chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) from a leukmoid reaction | LEUKOCYTE ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE |
| What stainis positive for hairy cell leukemia | ACID PHOSPHATASE |
| What is the most reliable criterion for the estimation of a cell's age | NUCLEAR CHROMATIN |
| what is the last red blood cell precursor to retain the nucleus before it becomes an erythrocyte | METARUBROCYTE |
| Which peripheral smear finding is consistent with reticulocytosis | POLYCHROMATOPHILIA |
| What is the life span of an erythrocyte | 3 months<<<<<< typo should be 4 months |
| All of the following are indictations of anemia EXCEPT which one | DECREASED PLT |
| Which of the following patient's labs results are not consistant with anemia | TODDLER:HBG 12.5 |
| The following results were obtained from a CBC specimen: WBC 10.3, RBC 4.19, HBG 9.9, HCT 27, MCV 95, MCH 33.2, MCHC 33.1: What is the most probable cause of these results | ANEMIA |
| To calculate the mean corpuscular volume (MCV), what parameters must be known | RBC and HCT |
| Given the following lab results: RBC 3.01, HGB 9.4, HCT 27.5, what is the calculated MCH | 31.2 |
| What is the reference range for the mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration | 32%-36% |
| Which CBC parameter is a numerical expression of anisocytosis | RDW |
| What is the abnormal variation in the size of erythrocytes known as | ANISOCYTOSIS |
| Which determination is concidered a reliable assessment of effective erythropoiesis in the bone marrow | RETICULOCYTE COUNT |
| To calculate the reticulocyte production index, other than the reticulocyte count (%), what other hematological parameter is needed | HCT |
| What are erythrocytes with a diameter of 9 to 12 microns referred to as | MACROCYTES |
| What causes the red cell color of immature erythrocytes to appear polychromatophilic | RESIDUAL RNA |
| What is abnormal variation in the shape of the erythrocytes known as | POIKLOCYTOSIS |
| What does the peripheral blood smear show in a patient with iron deficiency anemia | MICROCYTIC,HYPOCHROMIC CELLS WITH POIKLOCYTOSIS PRESENT |
| Which on of the following is a characteristic finding in iron deficiency anemia | LOW FERRITIN, LOW IRON, HIGH TIBC, HIGH TRANSFERRIN |
| Which red blood cell shows peripheral rim of hemoglobin with a dark staining central area | LEPTOCYTE |
| Targert cells are present in all of the following conditions EXCEPT which one | MYELOFIBROSIS |
| Basophilic stippling refers to which one of the following | AGGREGATED RNA IN THE RED BLOOD CELL |
| Which red blood cell inclusion is described as a threadlike oval or figure-eight-shaped | CABOT RINGS |
| RNA remnants in red blood cells are visualized by which supravital stain | NEW METHYLENE BLUE |
| What are red blood cells that contain iron-stained granuales termed | SIDEROCYTES |
| Chronic blood loss can lead to what kind of anemia | IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA |
| Increased iron in the mitochondria of normoblasts is characteristic of which type of anemia | SIDEROBLASTIC ANEMIA |
| A peripheral blood smear from a patient with thalassemia would exhibit which of the following | TARGET CELLS, BASOPHILIC STIPPLING, TEARDROP CELLS |
| What lab results are found in iron deficiency anemia but not in thalassemia | LOW SERUM IRON AND INCREASED TOTAL IRON BINDING CAPACITY |
| A macrocytic anemia characteristically accompanies all of the following EXCEPT which one | IRON DEFICIENCY |
| Which one of the following is NOT typically seen in the peripheral smear in megaloblastic anemia | SPHEROCYTES |
| What is the most characteristic change seen in the white blood cell of megalobtastic anemia bone marrow | GIANT METAMYELOCYTES |
| Which of the following is a true of hereditary elliptocytosis | OSMOTIC FRAGILITY AND AUTOHEMOLYSIS ARE USUALLY NORMAL |
| An increase osmotic fragility is observed in which type of hemolytic anemia | HEREDITARY SPHEROCYTOSIS |
| All of the following tests are associated with the diagnosis of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria EXCEPT which one | OSMOTIC FRAGILITY |
| What is the most common thalassemia in the United States | BETA THALASSEMIA MINOR |
| Substitution of valine for glutamine as the 6th amino acid in the beta chain results in the production od which hemoglobin | HB-S |
| Which disorder is associated with an enzyme defect of aerobic glycolysis (HMP SHUNT PATHWAY) | G-6-PD DEFICIENCY |
| Pancytopenia is the most commonly associated with which type of anemia | POLYCYTHEMIA VERA |
| Leukopenia can occur in all of the following conditions EXCEPT which one | LEUKEMOID REACTION |
| Which one of the following is a characteristic of immune blood cells | PRESENCE OF EUCHROMATIN |
| Toxic granulation of neutrophils is usually associated with which one of the following | SEVERE BACTERIAL INFECTIONS |
| Dohle bodies are found in the cytoplasm of which cells | NEUTROPHILS |
| At what stage will specific (secondary) granules of polymorphonuclear cells appear | MYELOCYTES |
| What is the immediate precursor of the band polymorphonuclear neutrophil | METAMYELOCYTE |
| What white blood cell is least often seen on a normal peripheral smear | BASOPHIL |
| What is the largest leukocyte seen on a normal peripheral blood smear | MONOCYTE |
| Which anomaly is characterized by bi-lobed nuclei | PELGER-HUET |
| Of the following, which is a white blood cell inclusion | DOHLE BODIES |
| Which of the following cells are commonly seen in chronic lymphocytic leukemia | SMUDGE CELLS |
| Reactive leukocytosis is present when the absolute count of granulocytes reaches what value | >7.0 X 10^9/L |
| A "Shift to the left" refers to which of the following | IMMATURE MYELOGENOUS CELLS |
| Eosinophillia may be found in all of the following conditions EXCEPT which one | ERYTHROLEUKEMIA |
| which cell is characteristically increased in the peripheral smear of a patient with infectious mononucleosis | LYMPHOCYTE |
| Acute leukemias are associated with all of the following EXCEPT which one | SMUDGE CELLS |
| Acute lymphocytic leukemias that have a predominance of homogeneous cells with a high N/C ratio belong to which FAB group | L1 |
| Which FAB classification of the acute lymphocytic leukemia has prominent cytoplasmic vacuolation | L3 |
| In acute myelocytic leukemia, which FAB classification of type II blasts distinguishes them from type1 blasts | FEW CYTOPLASMIC GRANULES |
| Auer rods are characteristically found in the cells of which leukemia | ACUTE MYELOGENOUS LEUKEMIA |
| What specific cytological finding can be differentitate acute myelogenous leukemia from acute lymphpcytic leukemia | PRESENCE OF AUER RODS |
| Which FAB classification of acute myelogenous leukemias is frequently associated with disseminated intravascular coagulopathy | M3 |
| Which stain differentiates acute myelocytic leukima from acute myelocytic leukemia from acute lymphocytic leukemia | MYELOPEROXIDASE |
| Which leukemia does not have peroxidase activity | ACUTE LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA |
| Which leukemia can be identified by a positive periodic acid-schiff stain | ACUTE LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA |
| The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with which leukemia | CHRONIC MYELOMONOCYTIC LEUKEMIA |
| Which leukemia has increased basophils and/or eosinophils in the early stages | CHRONIC MYELOMONOCYTIC LEUKEMIA |
| Which stain can be used to differentiate chronic myelogenous leukemia from a leukmoid reaction | LEUKOCYTE ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE |
| Which one of the following findings is characteristic of chronic lymphocytic leukemia | LYMPHOCYTOSIS |
| A peripheral blood smear demonstrating an absoulute increase in small, mature lymphocytes and smudge cells is suggestive of which clinical condition | CHRONIC LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA |
| Most chronic lymphocytic leukemias are neoplasms of which subset of lymphocytes | B CELLS |
| Tartrate resistant acid phosphatase is useful in the diagnosis of which leuKemia | HAIRY CELL LEUKEMIA |
| All of the following are characteristic of a bone marrow of Waldenstrom's macroglobinemia EXCEPT which one | INCREASED MEGAKARYOCYTES |
| Reed-Sternberg cells are diagnostic for which clinical condition | HODGKINS DISEASE |
| Which laboratory results are consistent with a diagnosis of Hodgkins lymphoma | HIGH WHITE BLOOD CELL COUNT, NEUTROPHILLIA,ELEVATED ERYTHROCYTE SEDIMENTATION RATE, LOW FIBRINOGEN, LOW SERUM IRON |
| Giant, bizzare platelets, nucleated red blood cells, and teardrop red blood cells are associated with which clinical condition | MYELOFIBROSIS |
| Which other abnormal laboratory finding is seen in myeloid metaplasia | INCREASED URIC ACID |
| The measurment of creatinine is based on the formation of a yellow-red color and which reagent? | alkaline picrate |
| Human chorionic gonadotropin is secreted by which one of the following? | placenta |
| The colorimetric method for magnesium employs which reagent? | titan yellow |
| Bilirubin is converted in the intestine to which of the following substances? | bilirubin diglucuronide |
| The following metabolic panel results are available on an ICU patient: Glucose 90 mg/dL BUN 15 mg/dL Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL Sodium 165 mmol/L Potassium 3.5 mmol/L Chlorine 125 mmol/L Carbon dioxide 25 mmol/L | saline contamination |
| by the urease method, urea is enzymatically converted to which end product? | ammonia |
| Sweat is an appropriate type of specimen for which electrolyte? | chloride |
| What will happen if blood is exposed to air during specimen collection for pH and blood gases? | pCO2 decreases |
| how are amino acids joined together to form a chainlike structure? | peptide bonding |
| A potassium result of 6.8 mmol/L is obtained from a dialysis patient. Before reporting this result, what is the most appropriate action? | check for hemolysis |
| Direct-reacting bilirubin is also known as what substance? | bilirubin diglucuronide |
| in acute renal failure, which nonprotein nitrogen rises the fastest? | blood urea nitrogen |
| In the coulometric-amperometric method for chloride, how is the amount of chloride measured? | time needed to reach the titration end point |
| which hormone is produced by the beta cells if the islets of Langerhans? | insulin |
| What is the purpose of lanthanum in the atomic absorption determination of calcium? | It will bind phosphate |
| Which serum enzyme begins to rise 2 to 4 hours, has peak activity occuring 12 to 36, and returns to normal 2 to 4 days after as acute mycardial infraction? | creatinine kinase |
| what is the classical method for creatinine reaction? | jaffe |
| Because ionized calcium can be changed without affecting the total calcium level, what other parameter(s) must be known to properly evaluate calcium? | pH and protein |
| Which one of the following specimens is acceptable for the determination of total calcium? | heprinized plasma |
| which of the following is NOT true of the biuret reaction? | is relatively free from interference by lipids and hemoglobin |
| The Porter-Silber reaction employs phenylhydrazine to detect which analyte? | corticosteroids |
| what is the most frequently employed automated method for glucose? | coupled enzyme system consisting of glucose oxidase and peroxidase |
| which if the following is true of an isoenzyme? | The electrophoretic property is different for each isoenzyme |
| what is the specimen of choice for glucose determination? | fluorinated plasma |
| An LD isoenzyme electrophoretic pattern that shows an increase in LD1, LD2, and LD3 is seen in which disease state? | Pernicious Anemia |
| which one of the following applies to cryoglobulins? | the are temperature-sensitive proteins |
| which disaccharide is composed of two glucose molecules? | maltose |
| Glycoproteins and mucoproteins are usually bound to which substance? | monoclonal gammopathy |
| The "port wine" color of some urines can be attributed to which of the following? | porphyrines |
| proteins may become denatured when subjected to mechanical agitation, heat, or chemical treatment. what does denaturation of proteins refer to? | alteration in tertiary structure |
| Which one of the following is the major intracellular ion? | potassium |
| Which hormone stimulates the renal production of vitamin D? | parathyroid hormone |
| The classic Clark-Collip method for calcium is based on which assumption? | Calcium will be precipitated as a oxalate |
| contamination of the glucose reagent with catalase is a problem with which glucose method? | glucose oxidase |
| What is the principle of flame photometry? | emisson of a color when an element is burned |
| Inorganic phosphate can be determined fom a coloimetric method involving which reagent? | molybdate |
| Which on of the following tests is used to differentiate between inappropriate exogenous insulin administration and endogenous insulin production? | C-Peptide |
| p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde is a constituent of which reagent? | Ehrlich |
| What is the principle of atomic absorption spectrophotometry? | It measures light absorption of electromagnetic radition |
| The Michaelis-Menton constant in the rate of conversion of substrate to product is determined by what factor? | Substrate concentration and the rate of dissociation of the complex |
| Which colligative property is most commonly used in osmometry? | freezing point |
| What is the most common method for measuring sodium? | ion-selective electrode |
| A creatinine clearance test is performed. The 24hr urine volume is 770mL serum creatinine is 2.0 mg/dL and urine creatinine is 240 mg/dL. what is the clearance, assuming average body surface area? | 64 mL/minute |
| Which enzyme is most greatly affected by hemolysis? | lactate dehydrogenase |
| Which precaution should be followed in regard to specimen handling instructions for bilirubin determinations? | protect from light |
| A labor and delivery patient with preeclampsia is being treated for premature contractions. Which one of the following is the most likely laboratory finding? | hypermagnesemia |
| What is the T3 uptake measuring? | thryroid-binding globulin |
| Which statement concerning optical density according to Beer's law is true? | It is directly proportional to the concentration |
| Given the following, what is the anion gap? | Sodium 145 mmol/L Potassium 4.0 mmol/L Cholride 100 mmol/L Bicarbonate 22 mmol/L |
| A high alkaline phosphatase level in the presence of the other negative liver function test is indicative of which disorder? | bone disorder |
| which of the proteins is soluble in water? | albumin |
| Which one of the follow statements is true concerning a protein at its isoelectric point? | net zero charge |
| Which analytical method measures the amount of light scattered by the particles in solution? | nephelometry |
| Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is present in which form? | bicarbonate ion |
| In the complexometric titration (EDTA) method for calcium, the pH must be adjusted to prevent what occurrence? | interference by magnesium |
| What is the major binding protein for thyroxine? | thyroid-binding globulin |
| which reagent is employed in the alkaline oxidation of uric acid? | phosphotungstic acid |
| Which enzyme is characteristically elevated in mumps amylase | Amalyase |
| What is the substrate for the Cherry-Crandall lipase method? | olive oil |
| Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction?lactase+NAD->pyruvate+NADH | lactate dehydrogenace |
| In the classic Schales-Schales (mercurimetric titration) method for chloride, what substance reacts with the indicator to form a violet color? | excess Hg++ |
| In which disease state are the highest levels of aldolase seen? | muscular dystrophy |
| A low parathyroid hormone level will cause which of the following? | low serum calcium |
| Which one of the following diseases is associated with hypoglycemia? | von Gierke's disease |
| Asparate transminase is elevated in all of the following conditions EXCEPT which one? | acute pancreatitis |
| Quenching is a disadvantage in which type of instumentation? | fluorometry |
| Both porphobilinogen and urobilinogen form a red-colored compound with Ehrlich's reagent. How can they be differentiated? | urobilinogen is soluble in chloroform |
| why should hemolyzed serum not be used for total protein analysis? | hemoglobin is absorbed at the same wavelength protein in the reagent |
| which test gives a 2- to 3- month picture of a diabetic's glucose levels? | Hemaglobin A1C |
| what is hexokinase methodology for glucose determination based on? | reduced coenzyme read at 340 nm |
| Creatinine kinase is frequently elevated in acute myocardial infraction and which other disorder? | Duchenne's muscular dystrophy |
| why is bromcresol purple the preferred indicator for albumin dye binding techniques? | there is less interference from pigment(s) |
| Which protein transports the majority of copper in the bloodstream? | ceruloplasmin |
| For the ultraviolet range, which of these must be employed in the spectrophotometer? | quartz cuvette |
| Which one of the following definitions best describes an enzyme? | biological catalyst |
| which disease state is associated with an elevation of serum uric acid? | gout |
| what is the normal fasting blood glucose reference range for adults? | 70-110 mg/dL |
| Why is a metal ion sometimes necessary in an enzymatic reaction? | acts as an activator of the enzyme |
| An increase in indirect-reacting bilirubin is suggestive of which condition? | hemaglobin breakdown |
| Which hormone is important in bone and calcium metabolism? | calcitonin |
| Which hormone appear to function solely in the initiation and maintenance of lactation? | prolactin |
| What term describes a substance that minimizes any change in hydrogen ion concentration? | buffer |
| What is the clinical significance of an elevated acid phosphatase? | prostatic disease |
| What is the optimum pH for acid phosphatase? | 5.0 |
| which of the following analytes is used as a prognostic indicator for liver failure? | ammonia |
| Which enzyme is liver specific? | alanine transminase |
| which aminoacidopathy is NOT caused by an enzyme deficiency? | cystinuria |
| which one of the following proteins transports iron? | transferrin |
| Catecholamines are secreted by which one of the following? | adrenal medulla |
| All of the following can cause low chloride levels EXCEPT which one? | dehydration |
| Which hormone exhibits diurnal variation? | cortisol |
| All of the following regulate calcium levels EXCEPT which one? | aldosterone |
| what is the reporting unit of measure for anzymes? | IU/L |
| Which analyte is an early indicator of tissue hypoxia? | lactic acid |
| Lipase catalyzes the hydrolysis of which substrate? | triglycerides |
| what is the most common clearence test used to measure the glomerular filtration rate? | creatinine |
| Which of the following will interfere with the Evelyn Malloy method for bilirubin? | hemolysis |
| Which hormone acts on the distal convoluted tubule to increase sodium reabsorption? | aldosterone |
| A serum protein electrophoretic pattern displaying a beta gamma bridge or broad gamma is seen in which disease state? | active cirrhosis |
| Prehepatic bilirubin has which of the following for protein carrier? | albumin |
| Which statement is true concerning immunoelectrophoresis? | There must be excess antibody present and constant trough distance between antibody and antigen |
| The total protein is 7.2 g/dL. the serum protien results are as follows: Albumin 53.0% 3.8 g/dL Alpha1 3.6 % 0.3 g/dL Alpha2 11.0% 0.8 g/dL Beta 17.6% 1.2 g/dL Gamma 14.8% 1.1 g/dL What is the A/G Ratio? | 1.1 |
| which term is used to describe the process of glycogen degradation? | glycogenolysis |
| All of the following tests are good indicators of hypothyroidism EXCEPT which one? | T3 uptake |
| All of the following specimens can be analyzed for carbon dioxide EXCEPT which one? | urine |
| What is the major extracellular cation? | sodium |
| Which enzyme is the most sensitive indicator of obstructive jaundice? | alkaline phosphatase |
| Lab results on a known diabetic patient revealed a decreased bicarbinate and decreased pH. Which acid-base disorder would most likely cause these lab values? | metabolic acidosis |
| To achieve the best levels of sensitivity and specificity, a gas chromatograph may be coupled with which of the following? | mass spectrophotometer |
| Which of the following is true of the isoenzyme LD1? | It is present in the highest concentration in the heart tissuse |
| the creatinine clearance test is based on which assumption? | creatinine passes into the ultrafiltrate |
| In a zero-order reaction, there will be no further increase in velocity due to which one of the following? | all enzyme is bound to substrate |
| What is the hormone that controls the absorption of sodium in the kidney? | aldosterone |
| Which hormone acts on the renal tubules to increase water reabsorption? | antidiuretic hormone |
| What is the normal range for pH of blood? | 7.35-7.45 |
| all of the following are glycoproteins EXCEPT which one? | cryoglobulin |
| If an electrophoretic pattern shows 30% albumin, 4%-10%alpha-globulin, 4%-10% beta globulin, and 45% gamma-globulin, then what condition may exist in the patient? | monoclonal gammopathy |
| When performing spectrophotometer quality checks, what is the holmium oxide glass filter used to assay? | wavelength accuracy |
| which of the following hormones is considered a glucorticoid? | cortisol |
| Increased serum copper is seen in which disease? | Wilson's disease |
| what is the renal threshold for glucose? | 160-180 mg/dL |
| What is the light source in atomic absorption instrumentation? | cathode lamp |
| which reagent is employed in the serum protein determination? | biuret |
| Which hormone is responsible for the reduction of blood sugar levels? | insulin |
| creatinine kinase is clinically significant in diseases of which organ? | muscle |
| At a pH of 7.4, most of the phosphorus in the body is in which form? | bone |
| which of the following statements is true of albumin? | it is produced in the liver and it is water soluble |
| how many immunoglobulin classes are currently recognized? | five |
| Which of the following is a metabolite of epinephrine? | vanillylmandelic acid |
| which of the four elements in protein differentiates this class of substances from the carbohydrates and lipids | nitrogen |
| why can untreated urine be used for the determination of urea by the diacetyl monoxime method? | the method is not measuring ammonia |
| what does the uricase method for uric acid depend on? | ultraviolet absorption at 290 nm before.after treatment with uricase |
| The zimmerman reaction is used to detect which anyalyte? | 17-ketosteroids |
| Prenatal patients with borderline blood glucose levles are further evaluated by which test? | 3-hour glucose tolerance test |
| A 40 year old male has a random glucose of 470 mg/dL. this lab finding is consistent with which one of the following clinical conditions? | diabetes mellitus |
| What is the ratio of bicarbonate:carbonic acid in normal plasma? | 20:1 |
| Why should serum iron be drawn at the same time on consecutive days? | to avoid diurnal variation |
| what is the most anodic protein on electrophoresis at pH 8.6? | albumin |
| decreased alpha-fetoprotein values are associated with which conditions? | down syndrome |
| Valinomycin can enhance the selectivity of which ISE electrode? | potassium |
| Which of the following is true of the pCO2 electrode? | The actual pH of the sample has no effect |
| An elevated creatinine value is most likely to be accompanied by which of these values? | elevated blood urea nitrogen, 10X creatinine value |
| Which of these potassium values would be termed hypokalemia? | 3.0 mmol/L |
| Which enzyme may be monitored in recovering alcoholics? | gamma-glutamyl transferase |
| Which hormone stimulates contraction of the gravid uterus at term and also results in contraction of myoepithelial cells in the breast, causing ejection of milk? | oxytocin |
| Which electrolytes results are within the normal range? | 140 5.0 101 24 |
| Which of the following is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation? | pH |
| What does the presence of urinary keytones MOST likely indicates? | storage lipids are being used as the primary energy source |
| Which organ primarily regulates the level of carbon dioxide? | lung |
| What is the most abundant iron-containing compound in the body? | ferritin |
| All of the following are nucleic acid amplification techniques EXCEPT which one | FLOW CYTOMETRY |
| Which of the following laboratory procedures is routinely used for the detertion of hepatitus B virus in blood donors | ENZYME-LINKED IMMUNOSORBENT ASSAY |
| In what family of viruses, after primary infection, does an individual become latently infected, after which the infection can be reactivated | HERPESVIRIDAE |
| Which one of the following is a DNA virus | HERPESVIRIDAE |
| What virus is the most frequent cause of gastroenteritis in children during the winter months | ROTOVIRUS |
| Which of the following virues causes acute central nervous system disease | RABIES |
| Influenza A viruses can most rapidly be detected by which procedure | DIRECT ANTIGEN DETECTION |
| if the initial HIV screening test is positive, then what should the next step of action be | REPEAT IN DUPLICATE BEFORE CONFIRMING RESULTS |
| Enteric cytopathic human orphan viruses are also known by what name | ECHOVIRUSES |
| Which of the following is an RNA virus | ORTHOMYXOVIRIDAE |
| All of the following are considered potential viroterrorism agents EXCEPT which virus | SARS-CoV Virus |
| WHat is a mature virus particle containing a nucleic acid core surrounded by a protein coat, with or without an envelope, called | VIRION |
| All of the following are advantages of the sedimentation method of concentrating stool speciemens EXCEPT for which one | SEPARATES PROTOZOAN CYSTS AND HELMINTH EGGS |
| WHat color does the cytoplasm of protozoan cysts stain in the iodine wet stool preperation | YELLOW-BROWN |
| Which zoonoses can be caused by the ingestion of raw fish infected with larvae from shishimi | ANISAKIASIS |
| Cutaneous larva migrans or creeping eruption is caused by which organism | ANCYLOSTOMA BRAZILIENSE |
| Muscle biopsy is a diagnostic technique employed to detect which one of the following tissue roundworms | TRICHINELLA SPIRALIS |
| Which intestional roundworm migrates to the perianal skin to deposit embryonated eggs | ENTEROBIUS VERMICULARIS |
| Which tapeworm eggs have an operculum at one end and a small terminal knob at the other end | DIAPHYLLOBOTHRIUM LATUM |
| Which tapeworm could be aquired through the ingestion of medium-rare steak | TAENIA SAGINATA |
| What is the common name for the schistosomes | BLOOD FLUKES |
| Which of the following worms has a oral and ventral cup-shaped sucker in the adult stage | TREMATODES |
| Which malarial species can be identifed by the presence of crescent-shaped gametocytes in the peripheral blood | PLASMODIUM FALCIPARUM |
| Which intestional flagellate trophozoite has a sucking disc, two nuclei, eight flagella, and an axostyle | GIARDIA LAMBLIA |
| What is the infection form of dimorphic fungi for laboratory workers | HYPHAL FORM |
| What does the tissue phase of Histoplasma capsulatum characteristically show | TUBERCULATE MACROCONIDIA |
| Which one of the following organisms has a wide, refactive capsule | CRYPTOCOCCUS NEOFORMANS |
| Which of the following is found in the yeast phase of Sporothrix schenckii on culture medium at 37C | CIGAR-SHAPED YEAST CELLS |
| Which statement is NOT true concerning the causative agents of dermatophytoses | TRICHOPHYTON RUBRUM HAS CLUBED-SHAPED MACROCONIDIA |
| Which test,when positive, can be used for the presumptive identification of Candida albicans | GERM TUBE TEST |
| How does Mycosel differ from Sabouraud dextrose agar | CONTAINS CHLORAMPHENICOL AND CYCLOHEXIMIDE |
| When preparing temporary mounts of fungal elements, which of the following acts as a clearing agent to eliminate debris and make fungal elements more prominent | 10% KOH |
| True yeast produce which of the following in the asexual stage | BLASTOCONIDIA |
| Which term best describes the branching, intertwinning structures of molds | MYCELIUM |
| Which type of mycoses produces no cellular response by the host | SUPERFICIAL MYCOSES |
| Which of the following fungal infection is another name for oral candidiasis | THRUSH |
| What does the size of the zone of growth inhibition correlate with if the correct procedure has been used | MINIMUM INHIBITORY CONCENTRATION |
| When doing a susceptibility test with sulfonamides, there are two concentric zones around the disk. How should the zone be measured | MEASURE THE DIAMETER OF THE OUTER ZONE |
| Which of the following antibiotics are the best indicators of poor disk storage | PENICILLIN AND METHICILLIN |
| If there is too much moisture on the surface of a Mueller-Hinton plate when performing a Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, what will happen to the growth | SMALLER ZONE |
| After inoculating the Muller-Hinton plates for the Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, how long should the plates dry before the disks are added | AT LEAST 3 MINUTES, BUT NOT MORE THAN 15 MINUTES |
| In the KB susceptibility test, what is the 0.5 McFarland standard used for | TO ADJUST THE TURBIDITY OF THE INOCULUM |
| Resistance to an antibiotic can be tranferred from a resistant to a susceptible organism by which mechanism | EXTRACHROMOSOMAL PLASMID |
| What is the time it takes half a dose of antibiotic to disappear from the blood called | HALF-LIFE |
| Bacteriostatic agents do which of the following | INHIBITS THE GROWTH OF THE ORGANISM |
| All of the following are characteristics of broad-spectrum antibiotics EXCEPT which one | ACT AGAINST VIRAL AGENTS |
| What are substances, produced by microorganisms, that in very small amount inhibit other micoorganisms | ANTIBIOTICS |
| What is erythema chronicum migrans | SIGN OF LYME DISEASE AT THE SITE OF TICK BITE |
| What is the most common tick-borne diesase in the united states | LYME DISEASE |
| Which organism causes pelvic inflammatory disease | CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS |
| Which of the following is not caused by Rickettsia | TYPHOID FEVER |
| How is Rickettsial diseases transmitted | ARTHROPOD VECTORS |
| Which of the following is a small, nonmotile, coccobacillus that grows in egg yolk sacs | RICKETTSIA |
| Which of the following have a bacterial type cell wall | CHLAMYDIAS AND RICKETTSIA |
| What is the cause of primary atypical pneumonia | MYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIAE |
| what is the best method for the identification of Mycoplasma species | INHIBITION OF GROWTH OF SPECIFIC ANTISERA |
| Which of the following organisms forms colonies that are embedded in the agar giving a "fried egg" appearence | MYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIAE |
| Why are mycoplasmas not considered true bacteria | THEY HAVE NO CELL WALL |
| Which one of the following best describes Peptococcus | ANAEROBIC, GRAM POSITIVE COCCI |
| Which gram-negative, anerobic cocci produces a red fluorescence under ultraviolet light | VEILLONELLA |
| Which one of the following species of Clostridium causes antimicrobial-associated diarrhea | C.DIFFICILE |
| Which anaerobic, gram-positive rod produces termincal "tennis racket" spores | CLOSTRIDIUM TETANI |
| Which clostridium produces a double zone of hemolysis around colonies on blood agar | C. PERFRINGENS |
| Which one of the following best describes Propionibacterium | ANAEROBIC, GRAM POSITIVE BACILLI |
| Which Gram-negative anaerobic is resistant to penicillin | BACTEROIDES FRAGILIS |
| Nagler agar is selective medium for whoch organism | CLOSTRIDIUM |
| Which one of the following is an acceptable anaerobic specimen | BODY FLUID SUBMITTED IN A SYRINGE |
| Which one of the following is part of the normal flora of the skin | ACINETOBACTER CALCOACETICUS |
| wHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING ORGANISMS IS OXIDASE POSITIVE | PSEUDOMONAS AERUGINOSA |
| How many tubes of OF media is(are) inoculated, and under what atmospheric conditions | TWO TUBES, ONE COVERED WITH OIL SO THAT AIR IS EXCLUTED |
| Which of the following allows visibility of acid production by oxidizers in oxidation-fermentation (OF) medium | PEPTONE CONTENT IS LOW |
| Which of the following is the reagent used for the string test | 0.5% SODIUM DEOXYCHOLATE |
| Rice water stools often contain a pure culture of which organism | VIBRIO CHOLERAE |
| Which one of the following organisms is NOT oxidase positive | YERSINIA ENTERCOLITICA |
| A gram-negative rod was isolated from a blood culture with the following biochemical reactions:Urease-Positive,Phenylalanine deaminase-Positive,Citrate-Positive, Motility-Positive, What is the most likely identification of the organism | PROTEUS MIRABILIS |
| Gram-negative rod isolated from a urine culture has the following reactions: IMViC ++-- Motility Positive Urease Negative What is the most likely identification of the organism | ESCHERICHIA COLI |
| Salmonella, Shigella, and Escherichia coli have what in common | ALL MEMBERS OF ENTEROBACTERIACEASE |
| what is the purpose of the ONPG test | DETECTS SLOW LACTOSE FERMENTERS |
| If the negative nitrate reduction test does not change color after the powdered zinc is added, how is it reported | POSITIVE |
| What indicates a positive DNase result after 0.1N HCl is added to the plate | CLEARING AROUND THE COLONY |
| Genatinase breaks downs gelatin in which end product(s) | AMINO ACIDS |
| All of the following organisms are nonmotile at 37C except which one | PROTEUS VULGARIS |
| Hydrogen sulfide production, other than in triple sugar iron agar, requires a source of metal and what other component in the test medium | AN ORGANIC SOURCE OF SULFUR |
| Organism that produces urease do what to the medium | HYDROLYZE UREA TO AMMONIA |
| Which of the following is an enzyme that removes the amino group from an amino acid | DEAMINASE |
| how many tubes are required to performthe decarboxylase test | 4 TUBES ARE NEEDED, ONE FOR EACH SUBSTRATE PLUS ONE FOR CONTROL TUBE |
| Which of the following amino acids are used in the test for decarboxylase | LYSINE, ARGININE, ORNITHINE |
| Nonfermenters produce the reaction in triple sugar iron (TSI) agar | ALKALINE SLANT, ALKALINE OR NEUTRAL BUTT |
| What is the indicator in Simmons citrate agar | BROMTHYMOL BLUE |
| Which pair organisms can be used for quality control in the Voges-Proskauer test | ENTEROBACTER(POSITIVE) ABD ESHCERICHIA(NEGATIVE) |
| What is the indicator on the methyl red test | METHYL RED |
| IMViC is a series of which of the following tests | INDOLE, METHYL RED, VOGES-PROSKAUER, CITRATE |
| What is the hydrogen sulfide indicator in triple sugar iron agar | SODIUM THIOSULFATE |
| Which type of selective media for Samonella and Shigella uses bromthymol blue and acid fuchsin as indicators | HEKTOEN ENTERIC (HE) AGAR |
| What kind of media extends the lag phase of normal flora and decreases the lag phase of pathogens | ENRICHMENT |
| Clue cells may be found in infections with which organism | GARDNERELLA VAGINALIS |
| Which organism colonizes the human stomache and is associated with peptic ulcer disease | HELIOBACTER PYLORI |
| What does Campy gas mixture consist of | 5% O2, 10% CO2, 85% N2 |
| A motile, gram-negative, slender, curved rod that is the cause of enteritis is best isolated on which agar | CAMPYLOBACTER BLOOD AGAR |
| A curved, Gram-negative rod that is nonfermentative, nitrate positive, and microaerophilic is probably which organism | CAMPYLOBACTER JEJUNI |
| Which atmospheric conditions best describe Campylobacter | OBLIGATE MICROAEROPHILIC |
| Which Gram-negative, fastidious bacillus has been isolated from air-conditioning towers | LEGIONELLA PNEUMOPHILIA |
| What is the BEST medium for the isolation of Legionella | BUFFERED CHARCOAL YEAST EXTRACT AGAR |
| A realatively slow growing and fastidious, Gram-negative rod that produces a characteristic brown pigment on Feeley-Gorman iron cysteine agar is most probably which organism | LEGIONELLA PNEUMOPHILIA |
| A Brucella isolate that does not produce H2S, does not require CO2, and is not inhibited by thionin or basic fuchsin is probably which species of Brucella | B. MELITENSIS |
| Which of the following species of Bordetella are urease-positive and oxidase-positive | B.PARAPERTUSSIS |
| What is the perferred medium for the isolation of Bordetella pertussis | REGAN-LOWE MEDIUM |
| Which one of the following organisms causes whooping cough | BORDETELLA PERTUSSIS |
| Cultures of Staphlococcus aureus supply which of the following cultures of Haemophilus | V FACTOR |
| Which medium is preferred for the culture of Haemophilus species | ENRICHED CHOCOLATE |
| A fastidious, small to filamentous, Gram-negative rod from a nasopharyngeal swab is most likely to be which organism | HAEMONPHILUS INFLUENZAE |
| Nocardia will grow on any medium that does not contain which one of the following | ANTIBIOTICS |
| Which one of the following organisms is urease positive | NOCARDIA |
| Which one of the following is anaerobic | ACTINOMYCES ISRAELIL |
| Lumpy jaw is caused by which organism | ACTINOMYCES ISRAELIL |
| What are "Lepra" cells | MACROPHAGES CONTAINING ACID-FAST BACILLI |
| What specimen is usually used for the diagnosis of Hansen's Disease | TISSUE FLUID |
| Which statement is true concerning acid-fast bacilli from a nasal mucosa specimen | ARE NOT A DIAGNOSTIC CHARACTERISTIC |
| Which one of the following organisms does NOT belong to Group IV (rapid growers) | MYCOBACTRIUM GORDONAE |
| One tube of Lowenstein-Jensen medium is incubated covered with foil, and one tube is incubated uncovered. When is the covered tube observed | WHEN GROWTH APPEARS ON THE UNCOVERED TUBE |
| Which differential test for identifying the species of mycobacterium splits phenolphthalein from tripotassium phenolphthalein-sulfate within 2-3 days | ARYLSULFATASE TEST |
| A slow-growing, unbranched, acid-fast bacilli that is nitrate negative and niacin nagative is most likely which organism | MYCOBACTERIUM BOVIS |
| How is mycobacterium tuberculosis best differentiated from Mycobacterium bovis | NIACIN AND NITRATE TESTS |
| What color is a negative enzymatic hydrolysis Tween 80 test | AMBER |
| Which of the following is NOT used for the identification of mycobacteria | SPORE FORMATION |
| Which of the following media is clear so that colonies of mycobateria can be examined microscopically | MIDDLEBROOK 7H11 |
| How should mycobacterial cultures be incubated | IN 5% CO2 |
| What is the function o N-acetyl-L-cycteine-NaOH | LIQUEFY MUCUS AND CONTROL CONTAMINANTS |
| Which one of the following will stain acid-fast bacilli | KINYOUN STAIN |
| Which aereobic, Gram-positive, sporulating rod can cause food poisioning | BACILLUS CEREUS |
| Spor-forming cells in bamboo pole arrangement are characterist of which organism | BACILLUS ANTHRACIS |
| Which of the following will differentiate Listeria monocytogenes from Corunebacteria species | NONMOTILE AND SALICIAN POSITIVE |
| Listeria monocytogenes produces a positive in which one of the following biochemical tests | CATALASE |
| Refrigeration of the specimen for serveral months may enhance isolation of which organism | LISTERIA MONOCYTOGENES |
| Which one of the following is a Gram-positive to Gram-variable coccobacillus | LISTERIA MONOCYTOGENES |
| How long does the morphological cycle of Rhodococcus equi from coccoid to rod form take | 24 HOURS |
| Which of the following diptheroids is normal flora of the throat | CORYNEBACTERIUM PSEUDODIPTHERITICUM |
| The Elek test is for the detection of which toxin | CORYNEBACTERIUM DIPTHERIAE TOXIN |
| When culturing Corynebacterium diptheriae, which of the following media will enhance pleomorphism and granule production | LEOFFLER SERUM AGAR |
| Potassium tellurite medium produces what color colonies of Corynebacterium diptheriae | GREY-BlaCK |
| what is the purpose of potassium tellurite in tellurite medium | INHIBITS THE NORMAL FLORA |
| Babes-ernst granules are characteristic of which organism | CORYNEBACTERIUM DIPTHERIAE |
| The term "picket fence" and "chinese letters" describe the common arrangement of cells for which organism | CORYNEBACTERIUM DIPTHERIAE |
| What is the morphology of Corynebacterium diptheriae | Gram-positive, nonmotile rods |
| Which of the following tests give a presumptive identification of Moraxella catarrhalis if the isolate is a gram-negative diplococci that is oxidase positive and isolated from a body fluid from the middle ear | BETA-LACTAMASE TEST |
| Which of the following indicates a positive reaction fot the beta-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method | COLOR CHANGE |
| All of the following indicates a positive reaction for the beta-lactamase EXCEPT which one | SACCHAROGENIC METHOD |
| Why should beta-lactamase tests be performed with growth from primary isolation media | PLASMID CODING FOR THE ENZYME MAY BE LOST ON SUBCULTURING |
| Neisseria meningitidis degrades which of the following sugars | GLUCOSE AND LACTOSE |
| All of the following genera are oxidase positive except which one | HAEMOPHILUS |
| What color is a positive oxidase test | PURPLE |
| When performing the oxidase test, which of the following techniques CANNOT be used | USE A NICHROME LOOP TO TRANSFER THE COLONY TO FILER PAPER |
| What is the medium of choice for culturing gonococci and meningococci | MODIFIED THAYER-MARTIN |
| Which of the following differentiates Thayer-Martin medium from modified Thayer Martin medium | TRIMTHOPRIM LACTATE Which one of the following specimens may be inappropriate for culturing Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
| Which one of the following best describes Thayer-Martin media | ENRICHED CHOCOLATE MEDIA |
| Gram-negative, coffee bean-shaped diplococci with adjacent sides flattened is descriptive of which of the following | NEISSERIA |
| A fastidious, oxidase-positive, Gram negative cocci from a rectal swab might be presumptively identifed as which organism | NEISSERIA GONORRHOEA |
| An oxidase-positive, gram-negative cocci froma throat culture might be which organism | NEISSERIA |
| The bile-esculin test is used to differintiate which two organisms | GROUP D STREPTOCOCCI FROM ENTEROCOCCI |
| What is the most probable identity of a bile-esculin positive, beta-hemolytic streptococci that grows in 6.5% NaCl | ENTEROCOCCI |
| If pneumococci are resistant to penicillin, then they should be tested for which of the following | BETA-LACTAMASE PRODUCTION |
| Hippurate hydrolysis is used to differentiate which organisms | GROUP A STREPTOCOCCI FROM GROUP B STREPTOCOCCI |
| When performing a bacitracin differentiation test for group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, disks should be used that have how many units | 0.02-0.04 unit |
| Which statement concerning sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) is NOT true | ACTIVATES SOME ANTIMICROBIALS |
| Which of the following should be used to remove antimicrobials before culturing | ANTIMICROBIAL REMOVALAL DEVICE |
| Acid fast bacteria appear what color microscopically | RED |
| Which of the following is used for quality control for the dry heat oven | BACILLUS SUBTILIS |
| What is the tempurature at which bacteria grow best known as | OPTIMUM |
| Which hormone consists of two nonidentical, noncovalently bound subunits | HUMAN CHORIONIC GONADOTROPIN |
| when does the highest level of human chorionic gondadotropin occur | first trimester |
| Which homrone is synthesized from cholesterol | testosterone |
| what is the urinary metabolite of serotonin | 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid |
| Turbidity in serum is associated with the presence of which one of the following | chylomicrons |
| Which of these lipids has the lowest density | chylomicrons |
| what is the migration sequence, from the origin, of lipoproteins during electrophoresis | Chylomicrons,beta,pre-beta,alpha |
| In which of these clinical conditions may blood cholesterol be increased | hypothyroidism |
| What are the reagents used for color development in the Liebermann-Burchard reaction for cholesterol | acetic anhydride/sulfuric acid |
| What is the purpose of the saponification step in cholesterol methods | convert cholestrol esters to free cholesterol |
| The enzymatic hydrolysis of trigliceride may be accomplished by what enzyme | lipase |
| Most triglyceride produces involve the measurement of which end product | Glycerol |
| which of the following is the Friedewald formula by which low-density lipoprotein cholesterol can be calculated | LDL cholesterol is cholesterol-(triglycerides/5 + HDL cholesterol) |
| When calculating a coronary risk index for a patient, one must know the total cholesterol and which other parameter | HDL cholesterol |
| Diseases of which system are associated with elevated beta lipoprotein values | cardiovascular |
| Which statement is true for the oral route of drug administration | patient compliance is not always reliable |
| Which of the following is a major disadvantage of drug detection by immunoassy | inability to simulteneously assay multiple drugs in one specimen |
| What is the method of choice for confirming drugs detected by screening methods | gas chromatography-mass spectrophotometry |
| Decreased CSF glucose level | bacterial meningitis |
| Elevated CSF total protein | diabetes |
| Increased CSF IgG index | Multple sclerosis |
| Oligoclonal banding during CSF electrophoresis | Multiple sclerosis |
| When a urine specimen is allowed to stand at room tempurature, which one of the following does NOT occur | flase positive glucose |
| which of the following plasma substances is NOT normally filtered trhough the glomerulus in significant amounts | protein |
| Smoky red-brown urine is suspected of containing | erythrocytes |
| urine turns brown-black upon standing may contain | homogentisic acid |
| All of the following systems may be used to determine specific gravity of urine EXCEPT which one | hydroelectric foucusing |
| Which is the best single indicator of renal disease | proteinuria |
| all of the following does NOT apply to urine protien estimation by the dipstick method | Bense-jones protein interferes with measurment of albumin |
| Which of the following is true of the detection of urinary glucose | Any reducing sustance can give a false positive reaction with the copper reduction method for glucose |
| The urine dipstick test for occult blood depends on which facts | hemoglobin can act as a peroxidase |
| Which of the following statements is NOT true | In a urine culture, 102 microorganisms/mL of urine is considered significant |
| red blood cells in the urine may be confused with all of the following except which one | cholesterol crystals |
| Which statement does NOT apply to white blood cells in the urine sediment | white blood cells in the urine must be accompanied by proteinuria |
| A glitter cell is | Leukocyte |
| Vagional contamination | squamous epithilial cells |
| Matrix urinary casts | Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein |
| Casts are formed promarily in which portion of the kidney | distal convulated tuble |
| Casts seen in acute glomerulonephritis | RBC cast |
| Crystal identified by concentric circles | leucine |
| immune deficiency characterized by thrombocytopenia at birth | Wiskott-aldrich syndrome |
| T-cell subset enumeration by flow cytometry would be most useful in making the diagnosis of which immune disease caused by congenital thymic hypoplasia | Digeorge syndorme |
| sexlinked immunodificiency disorder with absence of plasma cells resulting in the lack of antibody production | Bruton's agammaglobulinemia |
| disease results from a defect in neutrophils and is characterized by recurrent bacterial infections | chronic granlomatous disease |
| diagnostic laboratory test for aquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) | <200 CD4+ T cells |
| what is the most commonly performed confirmatory method for HIV infection | western blot |
| HIV infection is transmitted in all of the following ways except which one | sneezing and coughing |
| AIDS patients characteristically show a deficiency in which one of the following | T lymphocytes |
| ovarian cancer | CA 125 |
| Mantoux skin test is an example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction | type IV |
| what is the most popular serological test for the diagnosis of toxoplasma gondii | elisa |
| seriological method is routinely used for rubella testing | elisa |
| good screening test for determining immunity to the rubella virus | IgG antibody test |
| what test for cytomegalovirus has problems with false positives | indirect immunofluorescence |
| cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection can be diagnosed by which of the following serological tests | IgM and IgG antibody test |
| most common seriological test for varicella zoster virus (ZVZ) | elisa |
| which of the following is the cause of chickenpox | varicella zoster virus |
| which of the following methods has a high degree of specificity when typing the herpes simplex virus (HSV) | elisa |
| method is used to serotype the herpes simplex virus | direct fluorescent antibody method |
| which herpes simplex virus (HSV) can cause urogenital infections | both HSV-1 and HSV-2 |
| Hepatitis vaccination for healthcare workers protects against which viral agent(s) | HBV |
| which type of hepatitis is associated with eating shellfish | hepatis A |
| cold agglutinins may develop after an infection cause by which organism | mycoplasma pneumoniae |
| which of the following cold reasting antibodies is present in infections of mycoplasma pneumoniea | anti-I |
| what is the incubation tempurature for a patient sample in the cold agglutinin test | 4c |
| anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies are associated with which autiimmune disease | good pastures syndrome |
| major autoantigen of the thyroid gland | thyroglobulin |
| a positive anti-ribonucleoprotein (anti RNP) in the antinuclear antibody group is suggestive of which autoimmune disease | mixed connective tissue disease |
| which pattern of fluoresence in the anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) test is most closely associated with active systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) | homogenous |
| what does the presence of C-reactive protien in a patients serum indicate | inflammation |
| statement is true concerning the rheumatoid factor latex test | synovial fluid may be the source of antibody |
| the rheumatoid factor (RF) latex slide test uses diluted patients serum plas latex caoste with which one of the following | antihuman globulin |
| which of the following antibodies is directed against teh Fc portion of the IgG | RF |
| which of the following can interfere with the cryptococcal antigen latex agglutination test | RF |
| The cryptococcal antigen test is rapidly replacing which lab test | india ink |
| the titer must be greater than 1:512 in order to diagnose which fungal disease | aspergillosis |
| antibodies to brucella abortus will cross-react with which other organism | francisella tularensis |
| what do the widal and weil-felix test detect | febrile agglutinatinins |
| what are the OX19 and the OX2 antigens | strains of Proteus vulgaris |
| the weil-felix tes is used for the detection of which type of antibodies | rickettsia |
| in the widal test | what does the O titer indicate |
| which antigen is used to determine the somatic antigenic grouping of enteric bacteria | O |
| The davidsohn differential test of uses what type of blood cells | horse |
| what is the principle of the davidsohn heterophil antibody test | differentiates three types of heterophil antibodies |
| which statment describes forssman antibodies | absorbed by guinea pig kidney antigen |
| in the heterophil antibody test, which of the following consitutes a positive reaction | agglutination |
| what type of red blood cell is used in the paul-bunnell heterophil antibody test | sheep |
| how is the heterophil antibody test reported | highest dilution that shows agglutionation |
| what is the causitive agent of infectious mononucleosis | |
| which streptococcal extracellular product dissolves firbin clots | streptokinase |
| which of the following is not a streptococcal extracellular product | isomernase |
| how is the serum titer in the antistreotolysin O (ASO) test reported | todd ot international units |
| in ASO, why should Streptolysin O not be rehydrated unitl it is needed | is destroyed by oxygen |
| principle of the antitreptolysin O tube test | hemolysis-inhibition |
| what is a positive reaction in the antitryptolysin O slide test | agglutination |
| what does the antistreptolysin O (ASO) test measures the patients serum | antibody to streptolysin O |
| GAS antigen | group A streptococcal |
| in nontreponemal test, serum that gives a reactive serological teat that is not caused by syphilis results in which one of the following | false positive |
| which test is less likely to be reactive in primary and early secondary syphils | MHA-TP |
| What is the purpose of the antibody conjugate (anti-immunoglobulin with a fluorscein isothiocyanate label) in the FTA-ABS test | makes the antigen-antibody reaction visible |
| A FTA-ABS test is used to identify which of the following in the patients serum | treponemal antibody |
| which of the following serves as the absorbent in the fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test | treponema pallidum, Reiter strain |
| which one of the following is a requirement of the treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test | living treponema pallidum |
| the RPR test is rotated at what speed for what length of time | 100 rpm for 8 miutes |
| the RPR antigen needle will deliver how many drops | 60drops/mL |
| what is the antigen used in the RPR test | cardiolipin with added charcoal |
| which test for syphilis uses plastic-coated cards | RPR |
| Which statement is true concerning the RPR test | it does not require an inactivation of serum |
| which of the following represents the reported titer in a quantitative VDRL test | highest dilution giving a reactive result |
| when is the quantitative VDRL test performed | to titer reactive and weakly reactive results |
| if the VDRL test shows small clumps of antigen with many free partivles, how should it be reported | weakly reactive |
| what is the serum:antigen ratio in any VDRL test | 3:1 |
| if the interval between heating the serum for the VDRL test and testing exceeds 4 hours, how long should the serum be reheated for | 56C for 30 minutes |
| inactivation of sera for seriological tests is performed for what purpose | destruction of complement |
| what is the stability of the VDRL antigen suspension | 24 hours |
| hoe much should saline needles for the quantitative VDRL test deliver | 100 drops/mL |
| what reaction occurs between the antibody and the antigen in the VDRL test | flocculation |
| what role does cardiolipin play in VDRL test | it is the neotreponemal antigen |
| patients with syphils develop an antibody response to which substance | cardiolipin |
| ina negative complement fixation test, what will happen to the red blood cells | hemolysis |
| how is a positive patient reaction expressed in a complement fixation test | inhibition of hemolysis |
| in the complement fixation test, the positive control should show which reaction | no hemolysis |
| what should occur when controls for complement fixation tests are used to check for anticomplementary factors | hemolysis |
| what is the purpose of antisheep hemolysin in a complement fixation test | sensitizes sheep red blood cells |
| what is used to sensitize red blood cells in the complement fixiation test | antisheep hemolysin |
| what is the indicator in the complement fixation test | sheep red blood cells |
| complement fixation tests contain which two systems | test and indicator system |
| which immunoglobulin is measured in the radioallergosrbent (RAST) test | IgE |
| In the enzyme-linked immunosobent assay (ELISA), what is the antihuman globulin conjugated with | horseradish peroxidase |
| which of the following can be attached to a solid phase support (e.g.,polystyrene) | antibody or antigen |
| which fluorochrome can be used in fluorescent stain technique to give an exceedingly bright fluorescence to rapidly identify microrganisms in tissue or culture | biotin avidin |
| which of the following is the energy source of fluorscence microscopes | mercury vapor lamp |
| which fluorochrome gives off a red emission at 580nm | tetramethylrhodamine isothiocyanate |
| which of the following fluorochromes gives a minimal false reading | fluoroscein isothiocyanate |
| why have ENZYME IMMUNOASSAYS REPLAced radioimmunoassays | there are hazards and regulations associated with radioimmunoassay |
| technique that is the antiserum applied directly to the plaste using strips of agarose or cellulose actate | immunofixation |
| another name for one-dimensional single electroimmunodiffusion | rocket |
| electroimmundiffusion is directed movement of antigen or antigen and antibody in which type of media | semisolid media |
| immunoelectrophoresis is used to identify | bence jones proteins |
| electrophoretically abnormal protein displaced from the normal position | gull wing |
| combonation of electrophoresis and double immunodiffusion | immunoelectrophoresis |
| in double radial diffusion, which of the following shows that the antigens are not identical | lines of partial intersection |
| antigen and antibody are both free to move toward each other to form a precipitate in which immunological technique | one- dimensional diffusion |
| random movement of antigen or antibody to form antigen-antibody complexes in semisolid medium occurs in which immunological technique | immunodiffusion |
| binding strength of antibody for an antigen | avidity |
| antigen structurally similar to the original antigen the induced antibody production | cross-reactivity |
| clinical test to be positive in the absence of its homologous antigen | sensitivity |
| why cant monoclonial antibodies be used in complement fixation tests | they cannot fix complement |
| all of the following are limitations of monoclonal antibodies from a hybridoma except | can be adapted to many immunological binding assays |
| hybridoms are formed from which one of the following | b lymphocytes |
| how are monoclonal antibodies prepared | fuse b lymphocytees with a plasma myeloma cell |
| effective phagacytosis occur in the presence of which | opsonins |
| hemagglutination test | agglutination test in which the antigens are located on the red blood cells |
| precepitation reaction is converted to an agglutination reaction by increasing the size of the antigen | indirect agglutination |
| when the most antibody is precipitated by the least amount of antigen | zone of equivalence |
| proxone effect | excess antibody |
| combination of soluble antibody with soluble antigen to produce insoluble complexes in the principle of | precipitation |
| reaction caused by IgG antibody binding to the surface of a red blood cell causing a reversible reaction | sensitization |
| antigen-antibody binding is affected by all of the following excpet | enzyme concentration |
| end product of complement activation | cell lysis |
| complement present in the highest concenrtation | c3 |
| component not involved in the alternate pathway | c1 |
| strong chemotactic factor as well as as anaphylatoxin | c5a |
| complement complex is know as the membrane attack unit | c56789 |
| order of activation of complement | c1,c4,c2,c3 |
| complement component of the recognition phase | c1q |
| not a characteristic of complement | they are all designated by numbers |
| small peptide formed during complement | anaphylatoxin |
| not true concerning complement | complement proteins are heat liable |
| not a function of the complement system | involved in the production od antibodies |
| rapid antibody production to an elevated level the persists for a long time | anamnestic response |
| secondary response | IgG |
| first immunoglobulin | IgM |
| immunoglobulin molecule referred to as the hinge region | CH1 and CH2 |
| Fc which fragment of the antibody molecule | crystallizable |
| denotes the antigen-binding fragment | Fab |
| proteolytic enzyme the fragments IgG in three fragments | papain |
| how many IgG classes | 4 |
| antibody determined by the antigenic variation found primarily in which region | constant region of heavy chain |
| region contains the disulfide bridge | constant |
| resonsible for antigen binding | variable |
| basic immunoglobulin structure | 2 light 2 heavy |
| serve as a screening test for allergies | IgE |
| Immunoglobulin in decreasing order in normal serum | g,a,m,d,e |
| associated with secondary component | IgA |
| predominant in body secretions | IgA |
| immunoglobulin dimer | IgA |
| J chain | IgM and IgA |
| most effective agglutination | IgM |
| function as an antigenic receptor site on the surface of B lymphocytes | IgM |
| not ture concerning IgG | it has four subclasses |
| increases during the convalescence phase of infection | IgG |
| good precipitation | IgG |
| abundant plasma immunoglobulin | IgG |
| most antibodies migrate in which region during serum protein electrophoresis | gamma |
| heterologous antigen react with | an antibody whose production it did not induce |
| reactive sites on an antigen known as | determinants |
| substance is the most potent antigen | proteins |
| macromolecule that is capble od elicting formation of immunoglobulins | antigen |
| not a class II gene products | HLA-DD |
| not a class I gene product | HLA-DR |
| major histocompatibility complex is important in all of the following except | acute hemolytic transfusion reaction |
| major histocompatibility complex | the genes that control expression of the HLA antigens |
| main function of polymorphonuclear white blood cells | phagocytosis |
| WBC becomes macrophages | monocyte |
| B lymphocytes tranform into cells that produce antibody molecule | plasma cells |
| surface immunoglobulin receptor | B cells |
| humoral immune response | plasma cells |
| lymphoid stem cell that differentiate in the bone marrow | B cells |
| not a surface markers for T cells | CD16 |
| T cell acts specifiacally to kill tumor cells and virally infected cells | cytotoxin t cells |
| regulate the function of phagocytosis cells | lymphokines |
| production of antibodies is turned off by which cells | supressor t cells |
| main function of T-helper cells | assist B cells in producing antibody |
| T cells are involved with which of the following | cell-metiated immunity |
| differentiation of T cells occur | thymus |
| thymus-dependent | t cells |
| All of the following blood donors would be permanently deferred EXCEPT which one? | 38-year old male who received rabies vaccine after a dog bite 3 months ago |
| Interval between blood donations | 8 weeks |
| oral temp of a donor must not exceed | 37.5C |
| Minimum acceptible hemoglobin for blood donors | 12.5 g/Dl for allogeneic donors |
| lowest acceptible hematocrit for allogenic blood donors | 38% |
| donor that meets all requirments for age, pulse, weight, and blood pressure | 32, 60, 185, 110/70 |
| how long pregnant woman be deferred | 6 weeks postpartum |
| 12-month deferment for each except | Donor recieved hep B vaccine |
| how long must prospective donor with a history of maleria be deferred | 3 years after cessation of treatment |
| lab tech who has a positive tuberculin skin test: how long is the deferral | no deferral as long as there is no other abnrmality |
| all are causes of permanent donor deferral except which one | incarcerated individuals |
| length of deferral for symptom-free donors immunized with oral polio, measles (rubeola), or mumps vaccine | 2 weeks |
| current testing on all donor blood must include testing for which of the following | serological test for syphilis |
| Which one of the following tests is not required by AABB and is therefore optional during donor blood testing? | anti-HBc |
| what a commonly used screening method for the detection of HIV-1 antibodies | enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay |
| currently required viral hepatitis marker tests include all of the following except which one | anti-HAV |
| when color coding is used for donor blood labels, what color is group A | yellow |
| which infctious agent is least likely to be transmitted by a blood transfusion | HAV |
| which one of the following positive tests would be indicative of onset of a viremic state | HBsAg |
| Window period | anti-HBc |
| minimum length of time that a patient's serum must remain positive for HBsAg before the individual is referred to as a chronic carrier | 6 months |
| viral agent causes the majority of cases of transfusion-associated hepatitis | HCV |
| All of the following are required viral marker testing for HIV except | HIV-1 p24 antigen |
| which virus can be deadly to immunocompromised patients or premature infants | CMV |
| all of the following organism have been implicated in bacterial contamination of blood donor products except | E coli |
| Which one of the following parasites has NOT been transmitted by blood transfusion? | Naegleria |
| what is the acceptable temp range for blood bank refrigerator | 1c- 6c |
| expiration date of blood preserved with CPDA-1 | 35days |
| expiration date of blood preserved ADSOL | 42 days |
| shelf life of cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor when stored at -18c or lower | 1 year |
| shelf life of fresh frozen plasma that is stored at -18c or lower | 1 year |
| temp range for thawing fresh frozen plasma | 30c-37c |
| shelf life of platelet concentrates | 5days at 20c-24c with constant agrigation |
| hermetic seal on a unit of packed red blood cells has been broken, how soon must the product be used if stored in the blood bank refrigerator | 24 hours |
| which biochemical change does not occur in stored blood | plasma K+ decreases |
| which one of the following is not a labeling requirement of specimen crossmatching | ordering physician |
| All of the following statements concerning autologous transfusions are true except | there are no donor blood requirements for them |
| which autologous procedure is blood drawn and stored before the anticipated elective surgery | preoperative collection |
| criteria for presurgical autologous donation is true | donor hemoglobin must be at least 11.0g/dL |
| pretransfusion testing for autologous transfusion recipient | ABO/Rh testing |
| which analytes is monitered at 4-month intervals for plasmaphoresis donors | total protein |
| after donating whole blood, how long must donor wait to be eligible for plateletpheresis | 72 hours |
| how long must a plasmaphoresis donor wait before donating whole blood | 48hours |
| seperation of white blood cells by reversible filtration of centerfugation called | leukopheresis |
| different genes that occupy a specific locus of a chromosome are called | alleles |
| which description best describes an amorph | gene with no directly observable product |
| what term is used to describe two identical genes at a particular locus | homozygous |
| which term best describes most blood group genes | codominant |
| which term best describes the gene inheritance of most blood group systems | autosomal codominant |
| which one of the following stimulates the production of antibodies | antigen |
| Antibodies that are produced after exposure to foreign antigens that are stimulated by transfusion or pregnancy | alloantibodies |
| inital response to a foreign antigen is known as the primary response. the primary response usually takes how long to occur | 2-6 months |
| secondary response to the same foreign antigen characterized by a rapid increase in antibody synthesis | anamnestic response |
| immunoglobulin class is produced by transfusion or pregnancy | IgG |
| mother passes an antibody to her fetus: what type of immunity does the fetus have | naturally aquired passive immunity |
| All of the following statements concerning complement are true except | it shows dosage effect with homozyous cells |
| which blood group system was discovered first | ABO |
| which gene codes for the enzyme L-fucosyltransferase | H gene |
| which of the following soluble antigens would be detectable in the saliva | A and H |
| Which system is composed of antigens found primarily in saliva and plasma | Lewis |
| Mixed-field reaction with anti-A reagent and a negative reaction with anti-A1 lectin are observed. These results are most consistent with which A subgroup? | A3 |
| Which type of antibodies will not be detected in the serum of a bombay genotype | anti-Oh |
| naturally occuring antibodies are found in which blood group system | ABO |
| Immune antibodies are stimulated by all of the following except | immune system reacting to the enviornment |
| Red blood cells of which group react straongly with anti-H | O |
| Frequency of group A in us population | 41% |
| Standard acceptable color for anti-A grouping serum | blue |
| What is the color of the dye added to commercially prepared anti-B blood grouping serum | yellow |
| Which reagent is made from the seeds of plant Dolichous biflorus | anti-A1 |
| Red blood cells of which blood group will not be agglutinated by anti-A,B serum | O |
| Which statement is true concerning anti-A,B | It is used to confirm group O individulas |
| What reagents are routinely used in forward grouping | anti-A, anti-B |
| What is the principle of reverse grouping | manufactered red blood cells are used to detect naturally occurring antibodies |
| probable blood type of this neonate:Anti-B 3+ | Group B |
| Best explanation shown: Anti-A 3+, anti-B 3+, A1 2+ | A2B person with Anti-A |
| the blood phenotype O can result from which of the following genotypes | OO |
| heterozygous group A mates with a heterozygous group B, possible phenotypes of their offspring | A,B,AB,O |
| Group O mother and Group AB father have what probability of producing offspring that are group A | 50% |
| All of the following statements concerning Rh antibodies are true except | are freqeuntly noted to be cold agglutinins |
| Which theory postulates that the antigens of the Rh system were produced by three closely linked sets of allels | fisher race |
| what is the frequency of the D antigen | 85% |
| Rh antigen is an amorph | d |
| anti-c can be formed by persons with which genotype | R1R1 |
| antigen is most commonly tested for in the Rh system | D |
| mating of R1 x R2 genotypes, which of the following is probably not that of the offspring | CDe/cdE |
| Anti-D 4+ rh control 0: what is the most appropriate interpretation of these test results | the patient is Rh positive |
| Rh antigen is the most immunogenic | D |
| Which of the following is true of weak D | It is a varient of the D antigen |
| Statement is not true of weak D antigen | they must be incubated at 4C |
| Weak D antigens are fairly common to what race | blacks |
| which is the most common Rh negative genotype | cde/cde |
| Anti-C 3+ Anti-E 3+: what is the most probable genotype of this patient | R1R1 |
| Anti-c + anti-e +: what is the most common genotype that could result from the following phenotype | rr |
| everything +: what is the most common genotype that could result from the following phenotype | CDE/cde |
| Anti-D + Anti-C + Anti-c + Anti-e +: what is the most common genotype that could result from the following phenotype | R1r |
| which phenotype is there an absence of Rh antigens from the red blood cell membrane | Rhnull |
| Which statement is incorrect regarding naturally occuring antibodies | cross the plecenta |
| Which one of the following antibodies is not naturally occuring | Anti-K |
| Which statement is incorrect regarding immune antibodies | most often found in the MNSs system |
| What is the estimated percentage of patients immunized to blood group antigens | 1-4% |
| which other antigen belongs to the MNSs blood group system | U |
| Anti-N sometimes shows dosage effect. Which cells will react with most strongly if showing this effect | NN |
| Which antigen is found in plasma and adsorbed onto the red blood cells | Lea |
| Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is often associated with which antibody | anti-P1 |
| The antigen Tja is part of which blood group system | P |
| An individual inherits the following genes: Lele, Sese, Hh, AB, which soluble antigens will be secreted in the patients saliva | H,A,B,Lea,Leb |
| Which one of the following is not true of anti-Lea | causes hemolytic disease of the newborn |
| which blood group system antigens are destroyed by enzymes | Lutheran |
| All of the following are characteristics of anti-Lua except which one | it causes hemolytic disease of the newborn |
| Other than the D antigen, what other blood group antigen is a potent antigen | K |
| What percentage of the population lacks the Kell antigen | 91% One of the following crossmatched in incompatible in the antigen phase of testing. which antibody is most likely to cause this result |
| Anti-k is produced in response to which antigen | cellano |
| which antigen is destroyed by enzyme | Fya |
| Enzyme prevents detection of antibodies of which blood group system | duffy |
| in the duffy blood group system, what is the most common antibody detected | anti-Fya |
| approximately what percentage of blacks have the Fy(a-b-) phenotype | 68% |
| Which duffy phenotype demonstrates resistance to Plasmodium vivax | Fy(a-b-) |
| all of the following antigens define the kidd blood group system except which one | In(JK) |
| which blood grouping antibodies can be the cause of a severe delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction | Kidd |
| Which of the following is usually IgG, immune, and antiglobulin phase reactive | anti-Jka |
| Which statement is true concerning the I antigen | It is poorly developed on cord blood cells |
| A cold agglutinatinin will usually have specifically for which antigen | I antigen |
| Anti-i may be present in the serum of patients with which clinical conditions | infections mononucleosis |
| Anti-I is most commonly detected in which crossmatch phase | room temp |
| which statement concerning anti-I is incorrect | it reacts best with cord red blood cells |
| basic concept of AHG testing included all of the following except which one | AHG is used to detect in vivo sensitization |
| which statement is true concerning antiglobulin reagent | it may be produced in laboratory animals |
| The most commonly used polyspecific antihuman globulin reagent contains antibodies to which of the following | IgG and C3d |
| Polyspecific antiglobulin reagent is usually what color | green |
| When performing daily quality control on the AHG reagent, what reagent red blood cells are used and what is the expected value | Group O check cells plus AHG yields a weak positive reaction |
| Laboratories must check each negative AHG, after the addition of these cells, if agglutination is observed, then which of the following is not necessarily true | patient serum was added to the test tube |
| a false positive antiglobulin test can be caused by which one of the following | bacterial contamination of reagents |
| A false negative indirect antiglobiulin test can be caused by which of the following | inadequate washing of red blood cells |
| what are the incubation requirments for an indirect antiglobulin test | 15-60 minutes at 37C |
| What is one advantage of performing the antiglobulin testing using low ionic strength solution instead of other enhancement media | shortened incubation peroid |
| Increased sensitivity of the indirect antihuman globulin test is achieved by using which one of the following | albumin |
| all of the following statements concerning the washing of cells are true except | red blood cells must be resuspended in saline before adding AHG reagent |
| what does the autocontrol contain | patient serum plus patient red blood cells |
| In a direct antiglobulin test, what is being tested | patient red blood cells against reagent antisera |
| Inadequate washing of cord red blood cells may result in which one of the following results | false positive due to wartons jelly contanimation |
| Te direct antiglobulin test (DAT) using polyspecific antihuman globulin reagent is NOT of value in which one of the following instances | diagnostic of Donath-Landsteiner syndrome |
| The direct antiglobulin test is most useful for which of the following purposes | detection of hemolytic disease of the newborn |
| which of the following drugs will Not cause a positive direct antiglobulin test | asprin |
| What is the princliple of the antibody screen procedure | patient serum with reagent red blood cells |
| What is the fundamental purpose of an antibody screen | screen for alloantibodies other than ABO immunoglobulins |
| The immediate spin phase is used to detect antibodies of which immunoglobulin class | IgM |
| Other than agglutination, what other observable reaction is considered a positive reaction? a positive reaction | hemolysis |
| Which statement is true concerning unexpected antibodies that react at 37C | They are concidered clinically significant |
| The red blood cells used for screening patients' serum for unxpected antibodies should be of what blood grouping | O |
| What technique is used to remove antibody bound to sensitized red blood cells | elution |
| Production of more antigen in the homozygous state than in heterozygous state is referred to as which one of the following terms | dosage effect |
| The following results are observed on aptient in the medical intensive are unit:IS and 37 have positive reactions, AHG none | Cold autoabsorption |
| The following results are observed on an anemic patient: AHG positive, IS and 37 none | warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia |
| The preponderance of warm autoantibodies seems to be directed against which Rh antigen | e |
| patient has no reactions in screening cells and has 1 incompatible unit: what is the most likely cause of the incompatability of donor 4 | antibody to a low-frequency antigen |
| fundimental purpose of the crossmatch | detect recipient antibodies directed against donor red blood cells |
| the minor crossmatch has been eliminated due to the implementation of which procedure | donor antibody screen |
| Fresh serum (less than 48hours old) must be used for compatibility testing in order to preserve which one of the following | complement |
| antibody detected in the antiglobulin phase of a crossmatch | anti- Jka |
| Type & screen | ABO/Rh tyoing and screening for unexpected antibodies |
| immediate crossmatch is used to detect | ABO incompatibility |
| a patient requiring a blood transfusion has an anti-e antibodies, percent of donor blood tested would be compatible | 2% |
| percentage compatible with a patient who has anti-Jka | 25% |
| Two units of compatible blood for a patinet who has anti-Jka are needed, then how many units should be crossmatched | 10 |
| its easiest to find two units of compatible blood for which one of the followingg patients | anti-Lea positive patient |
| Percentage compatible for a patient with anti-E | 70% |
| Approximate number of compatible units for anti-P1 | 1 out of 4 units |
| which statement regarding LISS is not true | it enhances the effect of albumin on Rh blood group antigens |
| Under what circumstance can hemolytic disease of the newborn occur | the mother lacks an antigen the infant possesses |
| of the following blood groups, which one does not cause hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) | Lewis |
| Excluding anti-D, which antibody is most likely to be involved in Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) | anti-c |
| all of the following are performed as part of a prenatal workup except which one test | direct antiglobulin test |
| what is the best explanation of these results | Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn is suspected |
| after the antibody has been identified in the maternal serum, what is the next logical course of action | titrate the maternal antibody |
| A titration was performed, and the titer was 8. what is the most likely explanation for the result | antepartum administration of RhIg |
| Which one of the following women is a candidate to receive postpartum RhIg | Group A, Rh negative mother delived a groups O, Rh positive newborn |
| Which test detects Rh sensitization of an infant's red blood cells | direct antiglobuling test |
| Not suitable medium for suspensions of red blood cells | reagent grade water |
| not used in blood bank procedures | Aldomet |
| optimum ph at which antibodies bind to cells | 6.5-7.5 |
| optimum concentrtion of red blood cells suspension to be used in blood bank testing | 2-5% |
| most common reason for mixed field agglutination | dimorphic population of transfused red blood cells |
| best describes a weak positive reaction | microscopic clumps, cloudy background |
| As part of daily conrtol, anti-B is tested against B cells. what does this procedure ensure | antibody specificity |
| a patient is suspected of having a transfusion reaction. when shoul the infusion be stopped | immediately |
| If a hemolytic transfusion reasion is suspected, which blood bank procedure should be performed immediately | direct antiglobulin test on the post transfusion specimen |
| Hemoglobinuria and Hypotension are symptoms of which type of transfusion reaction? transfusion reaction | hemolytic |
| When is a transfusion reaction considered a febrile reaction | 2F rise in temp within 1 hour transfusion |
| Hives and itching are symptoms of what kind of reaction in transfusion? | urticarial |
| By: Ksteinhauer/ edited GE |
Created by:
geebs28
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