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Hemostasis involves all of the following EXCEPT VASODILATION
Factor XII is most commonly activated by exposure to which one of the following SUBENDOTHELIUM
Which coagulation fmaily is dependent on vitamin K synthesis PROTHROMBIN
which of the following factors does not require vitamin K for its production by the liver VIII
Which activated coagulation factor is NOT a serine protease VIII
What is the precursor of thrombin PROTHROMBIN
Which activated coagulation factor converts fibrinogen to fibrin THROMBIN
The end result of most coagulation tests is the production of which one of the following FIBRIN CLOT
Factor X is associated with which coagulation pathway COMMON PATHWAY
All of the following factor activation occur in the alternate pathway EXCEPT which one FACTOR XII ACTIVATES PREKALLIKREIN
What does the prothrombinase complex consist of Xa-Va-PHOSPHOLIPID-Ca++
What is the inactive form of plasmin PLASMINOGEN
In the presence of fibrinolysis, which of the following acts on fibrin PLASMIN
Which inhibitor degrades Factor Va and Factor VIIIa PROTEIN C
Which inhibitor acts as a cofactor and accelerates the inactivation of Factor Va and Factor VIIIa PROTEIN S
Which is the principal inhibitor of thrombin and Factor Xa ANTITHROMBIN III
What is the most frequently aqcuired inhibitor in hereditary deficiencies ANTI-VIII
Which inhibitor inactivates coagulation factors through phospholipoprotein components LUPUS-LIKE ANTICOAGULANT
The following results are available on a 25-year old male patient: PTT 56.8 seconds mixing study performed PTT (unincubated) 55.8 seconds PTT (incubated) 57.0 seconds CIRCULATING ANTICOAGULANT
If a coagulation test is prolonged due to a deficiency of a plasma coagulation factor, then the test should be corrected by the addition of which one of the following NORMAL PLASMA
Diagnosis of von Willebrand's disease can be made from all of the following test results EXCEPT which one DECREASED PLATELET COUNT
Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP)is used in the treatment of which disorder VON WILLEBRAND'S DISEASE
Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy is associated with all of the following disorders EXCEPT which one HEMOPHILIA
A 27 year old female complains of mucous membrane bleeding DISSEMINATED INTRAVASCULAR COAGULOPATHY
The following results are available on a 27 year old female: PT 20.5 PTT 43.0 Fibrinogen 141 LIVER DISEASE
What is the origin of platelets in the bone marrow MEGAKARYOCYTES
Which coagulation factors are liable FACTORS V AND VIII
Which coagulation factors are monitored in severe liver disease FACTORS I AND V
Classic hemophilia is the result of a deficiency of which coagulation factor FACTOR VIII
What is the normal plasma concentration of fibrinogen 300-400 mg/dL
Which coagulation factor is known as the christmas factor IX
What is the average life span of a platelet 8-11 DAYS
What is the normal range for a platelet count 140,000-440,000/uL
Which one of the following is a hereditary platelet disorder characterized by decreased platelet production accompanied by the presence of Dohle bodies in polymorphonuclear cells MAY-HEGGLIN ANOMALY
Idiopathis thrombocytopenic purpura is usually characterized by which of the following INCREASED PLATELET DESTRUCTION
A prolonged bleeding time with a normal platelet count indicates all of the following EXCEPT which one BERNARD-SOULIER SYNDROME
Bernard-soulier syndrome is a platelet disorder that has what type of abnormality associated with it ABNORMAL ADHESION
Which platelet disorder is associated with abnormal primary aggregation GLANZMANN'S DIESEASE
Wiskott-Aldrich is a qualitative platelet disorder that is associated with which one of the following ABNORMAL SECONDARY AGGREGATION
Thrombocythemia is most commonly associated with which myeloproliferative disorder POLYCYTHEMIA VERA
While performing a platelet estimate using 1000x magnification, how many platelets are associated with a normal platelet count 8-20
What do a low platelet count and normal bleeding time indicate AUTOIMMUNE THROMBOCYTOPENIA
What is the only coagulation test is sensitive to a Factor VII deficiency PROTHROMBIN TIME
The activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) serves as a screening procedure for which plasma factor deficiencies XII,XI,IX,VIII,X,V,II,I
Which test can monitor heparin therapy, increased levels of fibrin split products, and quantitative and qualitative fibrinogen abnormalities THROMBIN TIME
Which caogulation methodology is monitored by a photoelectric system OPTICAL
Which automated assay is used to detect fragment D and fragment E D-DIMER
Which coagulation test is used to differentiate between a factor deficiency and the presence of a circulating anticoagulant MIXING STUDY
Which one of the following is a quantitative method for determining the amount of Factor VIII present FACTOR ASSAY
What is hemaglobin composed of 4 HEME, 4 IRON, 1 GLOBULIN
What disorder does defect in heme synthesis lead to PORPHYRIA
What is the function of the enzyme methemoglobin-cytochrome C reductase in a red blood cell TO KEEP IRON IN FERROUS STATE
Which hemoglobin has a 200 times greater binding capacity for the hemoglobin molecule than oxygen CARBOXYHEMOGLOBIN
What hemoglobin derivative causes irreversable changes in the red blood cells SULFHEMOGLOBIN
Which of the following hemoglobins is NOT normally presnt in a normal adult Hb-S
Which embryotic hemoglobin is normally found in newborns Hb-F
What is the most abundant hemoglobin in a newborn Hb-F
What is the molecular structure in hemoglobin S vALINE REPLACES GLUTAMIC ACID IN THE 6TH POSITION OF THE BETA CHAIN
Which of the following hemoglobins is insoluble under lowered oxygen tension Hb-S
What laboratory test is used to confrim the specific diagnosis of sickle cell anemia HEMOGLOBIN ELECTROPHORESIS
In the solubility test for hemoglobin S, what is the reagent responsible for the reduction of the hemoglobin molecule SODIUM DITHIONITE
In hemoglobin C, what replaces glutamic acid LYSINE
Which red blood cell inclusion is characteristic of hemoglobin C disease ROD-SHAPED CRYSTALS
What is hemoglobin F composed of 2 ALPHA+2 GAMMA CHAINS
Which hemoglobin is resistant to alkali denaturation Hb-F
What hemoglobins are differentiated by the Kleihauer-Betke technique Hb-A1 AND Hb-F
What is the order of migration of hemoglobins, from faster to slowest, on cellulose acetate at pH 8.4 A1,F,S,C
Why is citrate agar used when abnormal hemoglobins are identified on cellulose acetate at pH 8.6 IT SEPERATES HEMOGLOBIN S FROM HEMOGLOBIN D
The cyanmethemoglobin method measures all hemoglobin pigments EXCEPT whoch one SULFHEMOGLOBIN
What is the diluent used in the cyanmethemoglobin method for determination of hemoglobin DRABKIN'S SOLUTION
Which plasma protein binds free hemoglobin HAPTOGLOBIN
Which one of the following statements concerning hemolytic anemia is flase THE SERUM HAPTOGLOBIN IS INCREASED
Myoglobin can be separated from hemoglobin by saturating the specimen with which one of the following reagents AMMONIUM SULFATE
The hematocrit is also known as which one of the following terms PACKED RED BLOOD CELL VOLUME
The degree of packing of cells during centrifugation depends on all of the following EXCEPT which BORE SIZE OF THE MICROHEMATOCRIT TUBE
During examination of a spun hematacrit, in which layer are the white blood cells found BUFFY COAT
When performing a microhematocrit, where should one read the percentage of packed red blood cell column from a microhematocrit reading device BELOW THE BUFFY COAT
An increase in the erythrocyte sedimentation rate can be the result of an increase in the quality of which one of the following FIBRINOGEN
Which test is increacsed in acute infection ERYTHROCYE SEDIMENTATION RATE
All of the following sources of error will falsely elevate the erythrocyte sedimentation rate EXCEPT which one POLYCYTHEMIA
What is the westergren ESR reference range for males 0-15 mm/hr
A ceriborospinal fluid has 285 red blood cells counted in the 5 red blood cell squares after being diluted in a unopette(1:100). What is the calculated red blood cell count/uL 1,425,000
Any cell that passes through the aperature will momentarily increase the resistance of the electrical flow between the electrodes, generating a pulse. This is the basic principle of which of the following ELECTRICAL IMPEDANCE
Which principle utilizes laminar flow and hydrodynamic focusing to characterizes cells based on granularity and feflectivity LASER LIGHT SCATTER
Scatterplots are created using all of the following EXCEPT which one FLORESCENCE
Both nucleated red blood cells and large platelets interfere with which one of the following perameters WBC
Lyse-resistant red blood cells detected by automated hematology analyzers are seen in which clinical condition SICKLE CELL ANEMIA
On automated hematology analyzers, which one of the following will affect both the red blood cell count and the platelet count SCHISTOCYTES
The white blood cell count is 10.5 There are 5 nucleated red blood cells seen on the 100 cell differential. what is the corrected WBC count 10.0
On automated hematology analyzers, hemoglobin determinations may be falsely elevated due to the presence of which one of the following interfering substances LIPEMIA
CBC results are as follows:WBC 6.5, RBC 1.69, HGB 9.1, HCT 22.8, MCV 135, MCH 53.8, MCHC 39.9: What is the most likely cause of these results COLD AGGLUTINATION
All of the following may cause a falsely decreased platelet count EXCEPT which one SCHISTOCYTES
A leukocyte count greater than the linearity of the automated analyzer will falsely elevate which other CBC parameter HGB
Fragile white blood cells seen in leukemia patients may cause pseudoleukopenia, which in turn may cause automated WBC and WBC estimate not to match. Which action should be taken if this occurs PERFORM A MANUAL WBC HEMACYTOMETER COUNT
What is the dilution factor for performing a platelet count from a sodium citrate tube 1.1
Smudge cells can cause the automated WBC and the WBC estimate not to match. What action can be taken to prevent this occurence ADD 22%BOVINE ALBUMIN TO STABILIZE THE WBC
If cryoglobulin causes WBC cellular interference, then what is the most appropriate action to take to resolve this interfering substance INCUBATE THE SPECIMEN AT 37C FOR 15 MINUTES
If a cold agglutinin is suspected to be causing erroneous results, then what is the most appropriate action to take before reporting the results INCUBATE THE SPECIMEN AT 37C FOR 15 MINUTES
After centerifuging a microhematocrit, the presence of lipemia is noted. what is the most appropriate correction action PERFORM SALINE REPLACEMENT PROCEDURE
Which on of the following can produce a normal MCV but hypochromic red blood cells to appear on the peripheral blood smear HYPERGLYCEMIA
If a WBC count is performed on a 1:100 dilution and the number of cells counted in a total of 8 squares is 50, then what is the WBC count 6,250
A blood smear shows 80 nucleated red blood cells per 100 leukocyted. The total leukocyte count is 18.0x10^9/L. What is the corrected WBC count 10.0
Which reagent is the fixative incorporated in the Wright's stain METHANOL
How can the color of Wright-stained red blood cells be adjusted ADJUSTING THE pH OF THE BUFFER
Malarial parasites in red blood cells are best demonstrated by which stain GIEMSA
Which of the following RBC inclusions is NOT visible with wright stain HEINZ BODIES
Which on of the following is a stain for iron PRUSSIAN BLUE
In which special cytochemical stain are homogeneously pink cells counted as positive Kleihauer-Betke stain
Which one of the following stains both nonspecific and specific granules in myelogenous cells SUDAN BLACK B
In the cytochemical stain for peroxidase, which cell stains negative LYMPHOCYTES
The results on a leukemic patient are as follows: alpha-naphthol-AS-D-acetate esterase (NASDA) 3+ NASDA with sodium fluoride (NaF) 1+: The results are suggestive of which type of leukemia ACUTE MYELOMONOCYTIC LEUKEMIA OR AMML
In which leukemia are the blasts periodic acid-schiff (PAS) stain positive ALL
Which of the following is a stain for neutral lipids OIL RED O
Which stain is used to differentiate chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) from a leukmoid reaction LEUKOCYTE ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE
What stainis positive for hairy cell leukemia ACID PHOSPHATASE
What is the most reliable criterion for the estimation of a cell's age NUCLEAR CHROMATIN
what is the last red blood cell precursor to retain the nucleus before it becomes an erythrocyte METARUBROCYTE
Which peripheral smear finding is consistent with reticulocytosis POLYCHROMATOPHILIA
What is the life span of an erythrocyte 3 months<<<<<< typo should be 4 months
All of the following are indictations of anemia EXCEPT which one DECREASED PLT
Which of the following patient's labs results are not consistant with anemia TODDLER:HBG 12.5
The following results were obtained from a CBC specimen: WBC 10.3, RBC 4.19, HBG 9.9, HCT 27, MCV 95, MCH 33.2, MCHC 33.1: What is the most probable cause of these results ANEMIA
To calculate the mean corpuscular volume (MCV), what parameters must be known RBC and HCT
Given the following lab results: RBC 3.01, HGB 9.4, HCT 27.5, what is the calculated MCH 31.2
What is the reference range for the mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration 32%-36%
Which CBC parameter is a numerical expression of anisocytosis RDW
What is the abnormal variation in the size of erythrocytes known as ANISOCYTOSIS
Which determination is concidered a reliable assessment of effective erythropoiesis in the bone marrow RETICULOCYTE COUNT
To calculate the reticulocyte production index, other than the reticulocyte count (%), what other hematological parameter is needed HCT
What are erythrocytes with a diameter of 9 to 12 microns referred to as MACROCYTES
What causes the red cell color of immature erythrocytes to appear polychromatophilic RESIDUAL RNA
What is abnormal variation in the shape of the erythrocytes known as POIKLOCYTOSIS
What does the peripheral blood smear show in a patient with iron deficiency anemia MICROCYTIC,HYPOCHROMIC CELLS WITH POIKLOCYTOSIS PRESENT
Which on of the following is a characteristic finding in iron deficiency anemia LOW FERRITIN, LOW IRON, HIGH TIBC, HIGH TRANSFERRIN
Which red blood cell shows peripheral rim of hemoglobin with a dark staining central area LEPTOCYTE
Targert cells are present in all of the following conditions EXCEPT which one MYELOFIBROSIS
Basophilic stippling refers to which one of the following AGGREGATED RNA IN THE RED BLOOD CELL
Which red blood cell inclusion is described as a threadlike oval or figure-eight-shaped CABOT RINGS
RNA remnants in red blood cells are visualized by which supravital stain NEW METHYLENE BLUE
What are red blood cells that contain iron-stained granuales termed SIDEROCYTES
Chronic blood loss can lead to what kind of anemia IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA
Increased iron in the mitochondria of normoblasts is characteristic of which type of anemia SIDEROBLASTIC ANEMIA
A peripheral blood smear from a patient with thalassemia would exhibit which of the following TARGET CELLS, BASOPHILIC STIPPLING, TEARDROP CELLS
What lab results are found in iron deficiency anemia but not in thalassemia LOW SERUM IRON AND INCREASED TOTAL IRON BINDING CAPACITY
A macrocytic anemia characteristically accompanies all of the following EXCEPT which one IRON DEFICIENCY
Which one of the following is NOT typically seen in the peripheral smear in megaloblastic anemia SPHEROCYTES
What is the most characteristic change seen in the white blood cell of megalobtastic anemia bone marrow GIANT METAMYELOCYTES
Which of the following is a true of hereditary elliptocytosis OSMOTIC FRAGILITY AND AUTOHEMOLYSIS ARE USUALLY NORMAL
An increase osmotic fragility is observed in which type of hemolytic anemia HEREDITARY SPHEROCYTOSIS
All of the following tests are associated with the diagnosis of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria EXCEPT which one OSMOTIC FRAGILITY
What is the most common thalassemia in the United States BETA THALASSEMIA MINOR
Substitution of valine for glutamine as the 6th amino acid in the beta chain results in the production od which hemoglobin HB-S
Which disorder is associated with an enzyme defect of aerobic glycolysis (HMP SHUNT PATHWAY) G-6-PD DEFICIENCY
Pancytopenia is the most commonly associated with which type of anemia POLYCYTHEMIA VERA
Leukopenia can occur in all of the following conditions EXCEPT which one LEUKEMOID REACTION
Which one of the following is a characteristic of immune blood cells PRESENCE OF EUCHROMATIN
Toxic granulation of neutrophils is usually associated with which one of the following SEVERE BACTERIAL INFECTIONS
Dohle bodies are found in the cytoplasm of which cells NEUTROPHILS
At what stage will specific (secondary) granules of polymorphonuclear cells appear MYELOCYTES
What is the immediate precursor of the band polymorphonuclear neutrophil METAMYELOCYTE
What white blood cell is least often seen on a normal peripheral smear BASOPHIL
What is the largest leukocyte seen on a normal peripheral blood smear MONOCYTE
Which anomaly is characterized by bi-lobed nuclei PELGER-HUET
Of the following, which is a white blood cell inclusion DOHLE BODIES
Which of the following cells are commonly seen in chronic lymphocytic leukemia SMUDGE CELLS
Reactive leukocytosis is present when the absolute count of granulocytes reaches what value >7.0 X 10^9/L
A "Shift to the left" refers to which of the following IMMATURE MYELOGENOUS CELLS
Eosinophillia may be found in all of the following conditions EXCEPT which one ERYTHROLEUKEMIA
which cell is characteristically increased in the peripheral smear of a patient with infectious mononucleosis LYMPHOCYTE
Acute leukemias are associated with all of the following EXCEPT which one SMUDGE CELLS
Acute lymphocytic leukemias that have a predominance of homogeneous cells with a high N/C ratio belong to which FAB group L1
Which FAB classification of the acute lymphocytic leukemia has prominent cytoplasmic vacuolation L3
In acute myelocytic leukemia, which FAB classification of type II blasts distinguishes them from type1 blasts FEW CYTOPLASMIC GRANULES
Auer rods are characteristically found in the cells of which leukemia ACUTE MYELOGENOUS LEUKEMIA
What specific cytological finding can be differentitate acute myelogenous leukemia from acute lymphpcytic leukemia PRESENCE OF AUER RODS
Which FAB classification of acute myelogenous leukemias is frequently associated with disseminated intravascular coagulopathy M3
Which stain differentiates acute myelocytic leukima from acute myelocytic leukemia from acute lymphocytic leukemia MYELOPEROXIDASE
Which leukemia does not have peroxidase activity ACUTE LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Which leukemia can be identified by a positive periodic acid-schiff stain ACUTE LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with which leukemia CHRONIC MYELOMONOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Which leukemia has increased basophils and/or eosinophils in the early stages CHRONIC MYELOMONOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Which stain can be used to differentiate chronic myelogenous leukemia from a leukmoid reaction LEUKOCYTE ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE
Which one of the following findings is characteristic of chronic lymphocytic leukemia LYMPHOCYTOSIS
A peripheral blood smear demonstrating an absoulute increase in small, mature lymphocytes and smudge cells is suggestive of which clinical condition CHRONIC LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA
Most chronic lymphocytic leukemias are neoplasms of which subset of lymphocytes B CELLS
Tartrate resistant acid phosphatase is useful in the diagnosis of which leuKemia HAIRY CELL LEUKEMIA
All of the following are characteristic of a bone marrow of Waldenstrom's macroglobinemia EXCEPT which one INCREASED MEGAKARYOCYTES
Reed-Sternberg cells are diagnostic for which clinical condition HODGKINS DISEASE
Giant, bizzare platelets, nucleated red blood cells, and teardrop red blood cells are associated with which clinical condition MYELOFIBROSIS
Which other abnormal laboratory finding is seen in myeloid metaplasia INCREASED URIC ACID
The measurment of creatinine is based on the formation of a yellow-red color and which reagent? alkaline picrate
Human chorionic gonadotropin is secreted by which one of the following? placenta
The colorimetric method for magnesium employs which reagent? titan yellow
Bilirubin is converted in the intestine to which of the following substances? bilirubin diglucuronide
The following metabolic panel results are available on an ICU patient: Glucose 90 mg/dL BUN 15 mg/dL Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL Sodium 165 mmol/L Potassium 3.5 mmol/L Chlorine 125 mmol/L Carbon dioxide 25 mmol/L saline contamination
by the urease method, urea is enzymatically converted to which end product? ammonia
Sweat is an appropriate type of specimen for which electrolyte? chloride
What will happen if blood is exposed to air during specimen collection for pH and blood gases? pCO2 decreases
how are amino acids joined together to form a chainlike structure? peptide bonding
A potassium result of 6.8 mmol/L is obtained from a dialysis patient. Before reporting this result, what is the most appropriate action? check for hemolysis
Direct-reacting bilirubin is also known as what substance? bilirubin diglucuronide
in acute renal failure, which nonprotein nitrogen rises the fastest? blood urea nitrogen
In the coulometric-amperometric method for chloride, how is the amount of chloride measured? time needed to reach the titration end point
which hormone is produced by the beta cells if the islets of Langerhans? insulin
What is the purpose of lanthanum in the atomic absorption determination of calcium? It will bind phosphate
Which serum enzyme begins to rise 2 to 4 hours, has peak activity occuring 12 to 36, and returns to normal 2 to 4 days after as acute mycardial infraction? creatinine kinase
what is the classical method for creatinine reaction? jaffe
Because ionized calcium can be changed without affecting the total calcium level, what other parameter(s) must be known to properly evaluate calcium? pH and protein
Which one of the following specimens is acceptable for the determination of total calcium? heprinized plasma
which of the following is NOT true of the biuret reaction? is relatively free from interference by lipids and hemoglobin
The Porter-Silber reaction employs phenylhydrazine to detect which analyte? corticosteroids
what is the most frequently employed automated method for glucose? coupled enzyme system consisting of glucose oxidase and peroxidase
which if the following is true of an isoenzyme? The electrophoretic property is different for each isoenzyme
what is the specimen of choice for glucose determination? fluorinated plasma
An LD isoenzyme electrophoretic pattern that shows an increase in LD1, LD2, and LD3 is seen in which disease state? Pernicious Anemia
which one of the following applies to cryoglobulins? the are temperature-sensitive proteins
which disaccharide is composed of two glucose molecules? maltose
Glycoproteins and mucoproteins are usually bound to which substance? monoclonal gammopathy
The "port wine" color of some urines can be attributed to which of the following? porphyrines
proteins may become denatured when subjected to mechanical agitation, heat, or chemical treatment. what does denaturation of proteins refer to? alteration in tertiary structure
Which one of the following is the major intracellular ion? potassium
Which hormone stimulates the renal production of vitamin D? parathyroid hormone
The classic Clark-Collip method for calcium is based on which assumption? Calcium will be precipitated as a oxalate
contamination of the glucose reagent with catalase is a problem with which glucose method? glucose oxidase
What is the principle of flame photometry? emisson of a color when an element is burned
Inorganic phosphate can be determined fom a coloimetric method involving which reagent? molybdate
Which on of the following tests is used to differentiate between inappropriate exogenous insulin administration and endogenous insulin production? C-Peptide
p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde is a constituent of which reagent? Ehrlich
What is the principle of atomic absorption spectrophotometry? It measures light absorption of electromagnetic radition
The Michaelis-Menton constant in the rate of conversion of substrate to product is determined by what factor? Substrate concentration and the rate of dissociation of the complex
Which colligative property is most commonly used in osmometry? freezing point
What is the most common method for measuring sodium? ion-selective electrode
A creatinine clearance test is performed. The 24hr urine volume is 770mL serum creatinine is 2.0 mg/dL and urine creatinine is 240 mg/dL. what is the clearance, assuming average body surface area? 64 mL/minute
Which enzyme is most greatly affected by hemolysis? lactate dehydrogenase
Which precaution should be followed in regard to specimen handling instructions for bilirubin determinations? protect from light
A labor and delivery patient with preeclampsia is being treated for premature contractions. Which one of the following is the most likely laboratory finding? hypermagnesemia
What is the T3 uptake measuring? thryroid-binding globulin
Which statement concerning optical density according to Beer's law is true? It is directly proportional to the concentration
Given the following, what is the anion gap? Sodium 145 mmol/L Potassium 4.0 mmol/L Cholride 100 mmol/L Bicarbonate 22 mmol/L
A high alkaline phosphatase level in the presence of the other negative liver function test is indicative of which disorder? bone disorder
which of the proteins is soluble in water? albumin
Which one of the follow statements is true concerning a protein at its isoelectric point? net zero charge
Which analytical method measures the amount of light scattered by the particles in solution? nephelometry
Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is present in which form? bicarbonate ion
In the complexometric titration (EDTA) method for calcium, the pH must be adjusted to prevent what occurrence? interference by magnesium
What is the major binding protein for thyroxine? thyroid-binding globulin
which reagent is employed in the alkaline oxidation of uric acid? phosphotungstic acid
Which enzyme is characteristically elevated in mumps amylase Amalyase
What is the substrate for the Cherry-Crandall lipase method? olive oil
Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction?lactase+NAD->pyruvate+NADH lactate dehydrogenace
In the classic Schales-Schales (mercurimetric titration) method for chloride, what substance reacts with the indicator to form a violet color? excess Hg++
In which disease state are the highest levels of aldolase seen? muscular dystrophy
A low parathyroid hormone level will cause which of the following? low serum calcium
Which one of the following diseases is associated with hypoglycemia? von Gierke's disease
Asparate transminase is elevated in all of the following conditions EXCEPT which one? acute pancreatitis
Quenching is a disadvantage in which type of instumentation? fluorometry
Both porphobilinogen and urobilinogen form a red-colored compound with Ehrlich's reagent. How can they be differentiated? urobilinogen is soluble in chloroform
why should hemolyzed serum not be used for total protein analysis? hemoglobin is absorbed at the same wavelength protein in the reagent
which test gives a 2- to 3- month picture of a diabetic's glucose levels? Hemaglobin A1C
what is hexokinase methodology for glucose determination based on? reduced coenzyme read at 340 nm
Creatinine kinase is frequently elevated in acute myocardial infraction and which other disorder? Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
why is bromcresol purple the preferred indicator for albumin dye binding techniques? there is less interference from pigment(s)
Which protein transports the majority of copper in the bloodstream? ceruloplasmin
For the ultraviolet range, which of these must be employed in the spectrophotometer? quartz cuvette
Which one of the following definitions best describes an enzyme? biological catalyst
which disease state is associated with an elevation of serum uric acid? gout
what is the normal fasting blood glucose reference range for adults? 70-110 mg/dL
Why is a metal ion sometimes necessary in an enzymatic reaction? acts as an activator of the enzyme
An increase in indirect-reacting bilirubin is suggestive of which condition? hemaglobin breakdown
Which hormone is important in bone and calcium metabolism? calcitonin
Which hormone appear to function solely in the initiation and maintenance of lactation? prolactin
What term describes a substance that minimizes any change in hydrogen ion concentration? buffer
What is the clinical significance of an elevated acid phosphatase? prostatic disease
What is the optimum pH for acid phosphatase? 5.0
which of the following analytes is used as a prognostic indicator for liver failure? ammonia
Which enzyme is liver specific? alanine transminase
which aminoacidopathy is NOT caused by an enzyme deficiency? cystinuria
which one of the following proteins transports iron? transferrin
Catecholamines are secreted by which one of the following? adrenal medulla
All of the following can cause low chloride levels EXCEPT which one? dehydration
Which hormone exhibits diurnal variation? cortisol
All of the following regulate calcium levels EXCEPT which one? aldosterone
what is the reporting unit of measure for anzymes? IU/L
Which analyte is an early indicator of tissue hypoxia? lactic acid
Lipase catalyzes the hydrolysis of which substrate? triglycerides
what is the most common clearence test used to measure the glomerular filtration rate? creatinine
Which of the following will interfere with the Evelyn Malloy method for bilirubin? hemolysis
Which hormone acts on the distal convoluted tubule to increase sodium reabsorption? aldosterone
A serum protein electrophoretic pattern displaying a beta gamma bridge or broad gamma is seen in which disease state? active cirrhosis
Prehepatic bilirubin has which of the following for protein carrier? albumin
Which statement is true concerning immunoelectrophoresis? There must be excess antibody present and constant trough distance between antibody and antigen
The total protein is 7.2 g/dL. the serum protien results are as follows: Albumin 53.0% 3.8 g/dL Alpha1 3.6 % 0.3 g/dL Alpha2 11.0% 0.8 g/dL Beta 17.6% 1.2 g/dL Gamma 14.8% 1.1 g/dL What is the A/G Ratio? 1.1
which term is used to describe the process of glycogen degradation? glycogenolysis
All of the following tests are good indicators of hypothyroidism EXCEPT which one? T3 uptake
All of the following specimens can be analyzed for carbon dioxide EXCEPT which one? urine
What is the major extracellular cation? sodium
Which enzyme is the most sensitive indicator of obstructive jaundice? alkaline phosphatase
Lab results on a known diabetic patient revealed a decreased bicarbinate and decreased pH. Which acid-base disorder would most likely cause these lab values? metabolic acidosis
To achieve the best levels of sensitivity and specificity, a gas chromatograph may be coupled with which of the following? mass spectrophotometer
Which of the following is true of the isoenzyme LD1? It is present in the highest concentration in the heart tissuse
the creatinine clearance test is based on which assumption? creatinine passes into the ultrafiltrate
In a zero-order reaction, there will be no further increase in velocity due to which one of the following? all enzyme is bound to substrate
What is the hormone that controls the absorption of sodium in the kidney? aldosterone
Which hormone acts on the renal tubules to increase water reabsorption? antidiuretic hormone
What is the normal range for pH of blood? 7.35-7.45
all of the following are glycoproteins EXCEPT which one? cryoglobulin
If an electrophoretic pattern shows 30% albumin, 4%-10%alpha-globulin, 4%-10% beta globulin, and 45% gamma-globulin, then what condition may exist in the patient? monoclonal gammopathy
When performing spectrophotometer quality checks, what is the holmium oxide glass filter used to assay? wavelength accuracy
which of the following hormones is considered a glucorticoid? cortisol
Increased serum copper is seen in which disease? Wilson's disease
what is the renal threshold for glucose? 160-180 mg/dL
What is the light source in atomic absorption instrumentation? cathode lamp
which reagent is employed in the serum protein determination? biuret
Which hormone is responsible for the reduction of blood sugar levels? insulin
creatinine kinase is clinically significant in diseases of which organ? muscle
At a pH of 7.4, most of the phosphorus in the body is in which form? bone
which of the following statements is true of albumin? it is produced in the liver and it is water soluble
how many immunoglobulin classes are currently recognized? five
Which of the following is a metabolite of epinephrine? vanillylmandelic acid
which of the four elements in protein differentiates this class of substances from the carbohydrates and lipids nitrogen
why can untreated urine be used for the determination of urea by the diacetyl monoxime method? the method is not measuring ammonia
what does the uricase method for uric acid depend on? ultraviolet absorption at 290 nm before.after treatment with uricase
The zimmerman reaction is used to detect which anyalyte? 17-ketosteroids
Prenatal patients with borderline blood glucose levles are further evaluated by which test? 3-hour glucose tolerance test
A 40 year old male has a random glucose of 470 mg/dL. this lab finding is consistent with which one of the following clinical conditions? diabetes mellitus
What is the ratio of bicarbonate:carbonic acid in normal plasma? 20:1
Why should serum iron be drawn at the same time on consecutive days? to avoid diurnal variation
what is the most anodic protein on electrophoresis at pH 8.6? albumin
decreased alpha-fetoprotein values are associated with which conditions? down syndrome
Valinomycin can enhance the selectivity of which ISE electrode? potassium
Which of the following is true of the pCO2 electrode? The actual pH of the sample has no effect
An elevated creatinine value is most likely to be accompanied by which of these values? elevated blood urea nitrogen, 10X creatinine value
Which of these potassium values would be termed hypokalemia? 3.0 mmol/L
Which enzyme may be monitored in recovering alcoholics? gamma-glutamyl transferase
Which hormone stimulates contraction of the gravid uterus at term and also results in contraction of myoepithelial cells in the breast, causing ejection of milk? oxytocin
Which electrolytes results are within the normal range? 140 5.0 101 24
Which of the following is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation? pH
What does the presence of urinary keytones MOST likely indicates? storage lipids are being used as the primary energy source
Which organ primarily regulates the level of carbon dioxide? lung
What is the most abundant iron-containing compound in the body? ferritin
All of the following are nucleic acid amplification techniques EXCEPT which one FLOW CYTOMETRY
Which of the following laboratory procedures is routinely used for the detertion of hepatitus B virus in blood donors ENZYME-LINKED IMMUNOSORBENT ASSAY
In what family of viruses, after primary infection, does an individual become latently infected, after which the infection can be reactivated HERPESVIRIDAE
Which one of the following is a DNA virus HERPESVIRIDAE
What virus is the most frequent cause of gastroenteritis in children during the winter months ROTOVIRUS
Which of the following virues causes acute central nervous system disease RABIES
Influenza A viruses can most rapidly be detected by which procedure DIRECT ANTIGEN DETECTION
if the initial HIV screening test is positive, then what should the next step of action be REPEAT IN DUPLICATE BEFORE CONFIRMING RESULTS
Enteric cytopathic human orphan viruses are also known by what name ECHOVIRUSES
Which of the following is an RNA virus ORTHOMYXOVIRIDAE
All of the following are considered potential viroterrorism agents EXCEPT which virus SARS-CoV Virus
WHat is a mature virus particle containing a nucleic acid core surrounded by a protein coat, with or without an envelope, called VIRION
All of the following are advantages of the sedimentation method of concentrating stool speciemens EXCEPT for which one SEPARATES PROTOZOAN CYSTS AND HELMINTH EGGS
WHat color does the cytoplasm of protozoan cysts stain in the iodine wet stool preperation YELLOW-BROWN
Which zoonoses can be caused by the ingestion of raw fish infected with larvae from shishimi ANISAKIASIS
Cutaneous larva migrans or creeping eruption is caused by which organism ANCYLOSTOMA BRAZILIENSE
Muscle biopsy is a diagnostic technique employed to detect which one of the following tissue roundworms TRICHINELLA SPIRALIS
Which intestional roundworm migrates to the perianal skin to deposit embryonated eggs ENTEROBIUS VERMICULARIS
Which tapeworm eggs have an operculum at one end and a small terminal knob at the other end DIAPHYLLOBOTHRIUM LATUM
Which tapeworm could be aquired through the ingestion of medium-rare steak TAENIA SAGINATA
What is the common name for the schistosomes BLOOD FLUKES
Which of the following worms has a oral and ventral cup-shaped sucker in the adult stage TREMATODES
Which malarial species can be identifed by the presence of crescent-shaped gametocytes in the peripheral blood PLASMODIUM FALCIPARUM
Which intestional flagellate trophozoite has a sucking disc, two nuclei, eight flagella, and an axostyle GIARDIA LAMBLIA
What is the infection form of dimorphic fungi for laboratory workers HYPHAL FORM
What does the tissue phase of Histoplasma capsulatum characteristically show TUBERCULATE MACROCONIDIA
Which one of the following organisms has a wide, refactive capsule CRYPTOCOCCUS NEOFORMANS
Which of the following is found in the yeast phase of Sporothrix schenckii on culture medium at 37C CIGAR-SHAPED YEAST CELLS
Which statement is NOT true concerning the causative agents of dermatophytoses TRICHOPHYTON RUBRUM HAS CLUBED-SHAPED MACROCONIDIA
Which test,when positive, can be used for the presumptive identification of Candida albicans GERM TUBE TEST
How does Mycosel differ from Sabouraud dextrose agar CONTAINS CHLORAMPHENICOL AND CYCLOHEXIMIDE
When preparing temporary mounts of fungal elements, which of the following acts as a clearing agent to eliminate debris and make fungal elements more prominent 10% KOH
True yeast produce which of the following in the asexual stage BLASTOCONIDIA
Which term best describes the branching, intertwinning structures of molds MYCELIUM
Which type of mycoses produces no cellular response by the host SUPERFICIAL MYCOSES
Which of the following fungal infection is another name for oral candidiasis THRUSH
What does the size of the zone of growth inhibition correlate with if the correct procedure has been used MINIMUM INHIBITORY CONCENTRATION
When doing a susceptibility test with sulfonamides, there are two concentric zones around the disk. How should the zone be measured MEASURE THE DIAMETER OF THE OUTER ZONE
Which of the following antibiotics are the best indicators of poor disk storage PENICILLIN AND METHICILLIN
If there is too much moisture on the surface of a Mueller-Hinton plate when performing a Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, what will happen to the growth SMALLER ZONE
After inoculating the Muller-Hinton plates for the Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, how long should the plates dry before the disks are added AT LEAST 3 MINUTES, BUT NOT MORE THAN 15 MINUTES
In the KB susceptibility test, what is the 0.5 McFarland standard used for TO ADJUST THE TURBIDITY OF THE INOCULUM
Resistance to an antibiotic can be tranferred from a resistant to a susceptible organism by which mechanism EXTRACHROMOSOMAL PLASMID
What is the time it takes half a dose of antibiotic to disappear from the blood called HALF-LIFE
Bacteriostatic agents do which of the following INHIBITS THE GROWTH OF THE ORGANISM
All of the following are characteristics of broad-spectrum antibiotics EXCEPT which one ACT AGAINST VIRAL AGENTS
What are substances, produced by microorganisms, that in very small amount inhibit other micoorganisms ANTIBIOTICS
What is erythema chronicum migrans SIGN OF LYME DISEASE AT THE SITE OF TICK BITE
What is the most common tick-borne diesase in the united states LYME DISEASE
Which organism causes pelvic inflammatory disease CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS
Which of the following is not caused by Rickettsia TYPHOID FEVER
How is Rickettsial diseases transmitted ARTHROPOD VECTORS
Which of the following is a small, nonmotile, coccobacillus that grows in egg yolk sacs RICKETTSIA
Which of the following have a bacterial type cell wall CHLAMYDIAS AND RICKETTSIA
What is the cause of primary atypical pneumonia MYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIAE
what is the best method for the identification of Mycoplasma species INHIBITION OF GROWTH OF SPECIFIC ANTISERA
Which of the following organisms forms colonies that are embedded in the agar giving a "fried egg" appearence MYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIAE
Why are mycoplasmas not considered true bacteria THEY HAVE NO CELL WALL
Which one of the following best describes Peptococcus ANAEROBIC, GRAM POSITIVE COCCI
Which gram-negative, anerobic cocci produces a red fluorescence under ultraviolet light VEILLONELLA
Which one of the following species of Clostridium causes antimicrobial-associated diarrhea C.DIFFICILE
Which anaerobic, gram-positive rod produces termincal "tennis racket" spores CLOSTRIDIUM TETANI
Which clostridium produces a double zone of hemolysis around colonies on blood agar C. PERFRINGENS
Which one of the following best describes Propionibacterium ANAEROBIC, GRAM POSITIVE BACILLI
Which Gram-negative anaerobic is resistant to penicillin BACTEROIDES FRAGILIS
Nagler agar is selective medium for whoch organism CLOSTRIDIUM
Which one of the following is an acceptable anaerobic specimen BODY FLUID SUBMITTED IN A SYRINGE
Which one of the following is part of the normal flora of the skin ACINETOBACTER CALCOACETICUS
How many tubes of OF media is(are) inoculated, and under what atmospheric conditions TWO TUBES, ONE COVERED WITH OIL SO THAT AIR IS EXCLUTED
Which of the following allows visibility of acid production by oxidizers in oxidation-fermentation (OF) medium PEPTONE CONTENT IS LOW
Which of the following is the reagent used for the string test 0.5% SODIUM DEOXYCHOLATE
Rice water stools often contain a pure culture of which organism VIBRIO CHOLERAE
Which one of the following organisms is NOT oxidase positive YERSINIA ENTERCOLITICA
A gram-negative rod was isolated from a blood culture with the following biochemical reactions:Urease-Positive,Phenylalanine deaminase-Positive,Citrate-Positive, Motility-Positive, What is the most likely identification of the organism PROTEUS MIRABILIS
Gram-negative rod isolated from a urine culture has the following reactions: IMViC ++-- Motility Positive Urease Negative What is the most likely identification of the organism ESCHERICHIA COLI
Salmonella, Shigella, and Escherichia coli have what in common ALL MEMBERS OF ENTEROBACTERIACEASE
what is the purpose of the ONPG test DETECTS SLOW LACTOSE FERMENTERS
If the negative nitrate reduction test does not change color after the powdered zinc is added, how is it reported POSITIVE
What indicates a positive DNase result after 0.1N HCl is added to the plate CLEARING AROUND THE COLONY
Genatinase breaks downs gelatin in which end product(s) AMINO ACIDS
All of the following organisms are nonmotile at 37C except which one PROTEUS VULGARIS
Hydrogen sulfide production, other than in triple sugar iron agar, requires a source of metal and what other component in the test medium AN ORGANIC SOURCE OF SULFUR
Organism that produces urease do what to the medium HYDROLYZE UREA TO AMMONIA
Which of the following is an enzyme that removes the amino group from an amino acid DEAMINASE
how many tubes are required to performthe decarboxylase test 4 TUBES ARE NEEDED, ONE FOR EACH SUBSTRATE PLUS ONE FOR CONTROL TUBE
Which of the following amino acids are used in the test for decarboxylase LYSINE, ARGININE, ORNITHINE
Nonfermenters produce the reaction in triple sugar iron (TSI) agar ALKALINE SLANT, ALKALINE OR NEUTRAL BUTT
What is the indicator in Simmons citrate agar BROMTHYMOL BLUE
Which pair organisms can be used for quality control in the Voges-Proskauer test ENTEROBACTER(POSITIVE) ABD ESHCERICHIA(NEGATIVE)
What is the indicator on the methyl red test METHYL RED
IMViC is a series of which of the following tests INDOLE, METHYL RED, VOGES-PROSKAUER, CITRATE
What is the hydrogen sulfide indicator in triple sugar iron agar SODIUM THIOSULFATE
Which type of selective media for Samonella and Shigella uses bromthymol blue and acid fuchsin as indicators HEKTOEN ENTERIC (HE) AGAR
What kind of media extends the lag phase of normal flora and decreases the lag phase of pathogens ENRICHMENT
Clue cells may be found in infections with which organism GARDNERELLA VAGINALIS
Which organism colonizes the human stomache and is associated with peptic ulcer disease HELIOBACTER PYLORI
What does Campy gas mixture consist of 5% O2, 10% CO2, 85% N2
A motile, gram-negative, slender, curved rod that is the cause of enteritis is best isolated on which agar CAMPYLOBACTER BLOOD AGAR
A curved, Gram-negative rod that is nonfermentative, nitrate positive, and microaerophilic is probably which organism CAMPYLOBACTER JEJUNI
Which atmospheric conditions best describe Campylobacter OBLIGATE MICROAEROPHILIC
Which Gram-negative, fastidious bacillus has been isolated from air-conditioning towers LEGIONELLA PNEUMOPHILIA
What is the BEST medium for the isolation of Legionella BUFFERED CHARCOAL YEAST EXTRACT AGAR
A realatively slow growing and fastidious, Gram-negative rod that produces a characteristic brown pigment on Feeley-Gorman iron cysteine agar is most probably which organism LEGIONELLA PNEUMOPHILIA
A Brucella isolate that does not produce H2S, does not require CO2, and is not inhibited by thionin or basic fuchsin is probably which species of Brucella B. MELITENSIS
Which of the following species of Bordetella are urease-positive and oxidase-positive B.PARAPERTUSSIS
What is the perferred medium for the isolation of Bordetella pertussis REGAN-LOWE MEDIUM
Which one of the following organisms causes whooping cough BORDETELLA PERTUSSIS
Cultures of Staphlococcus aureus supply which of the following cultures of Haemophilus V FACTOR
Which medium is preferred for the culture of Haemophilus species ENRICHED CHOCOLATE
A fastidious, small to filamentous, Gram-negative rod from a nasopharyngeal swab is most likely to be which organism HAEMONPHILUS INFLUENZAE
Nocardia will grow on any medium that does not contain which one of the following ANTIBIOTICS
Which one of the following organisms is urease positive NOCARDIA
Which one of the following is anaerobic ACTINOMYCES ISRAELIL
Lumpy jaw is caused by which organism ACTINOMYCES ISRAELIL
What specimen is usually used for the diagnosis of Hansen's Disease TISSUE FLUID
Which statement is true concerning acid-fast bacilli from a nasal mucosa specimen ARE NOT A DIAGNOSTIC CHARACTERISTIC
Which one of the following organisms does NOT belong to Group IV (rapid growers) MYCOBACTRIUM GORDONAE
One tube of Lowenstein-Jensen medium is incubated covered with foil, and one tube is incubated uncovered. When is the covered tube observed WHEN GROWTH APPEARS ON THE UNCOVERED TUBE
Which differential test for identifying the species of mycobacterium splits phenolphthalein from tripotassium phenolphthalein-sulfate within 2-3 days ARYLSULFATASE TEST
A slow-growing, unbranched, acid-fast bacilli that is nitrate negative and niacin nagative is most likely which organism MYCOBACTERIUM BOVIS
How is mycobacterium tuberculosis best differentiated from Mycobacterium bovis NIACIN AND NITRATE TESTS
What color is a negative enzymatic hydrolysis Tween 80 test AMBER
Which of the following is NOT used for the identification of mycobacteria SPORE FORMATION
Which of the following media is clear so that colonies of mycobateria can be examined microscopically MIDDLEBROOK 7H11
How should mycobacterial cultures be incubated IN 5% CO2
What is the function o N-acetyl-L-cycteine-NaOH LIQUEFY MUCUS AND CONTROL CONTAMINANTS
Which one of the following will stain acid-fast bacilli KINYOUN STAIN
Which aereobic, Gram-positive, sporulating rod can cause food poisioning BACILLUS CEREUS
Spor-forming cells in bamboo pole arrangement are characterist of which organism BACILLUS ANTHRACIS
Which of the following will differentiate Listeria monocytogenes from Corunebacteria species NONMOTILE AND SALICIAN POSITIVE
Listeria monocytogenes produces a positive in which one of the following biochemical tests CATALASE
Refrigeration of the specimen for serveral months may enhance isolation of which organism LISTERIA MONOCYTOGENES
Which one of the following is a Gram-positive to Gram-variable coccobacillus LISTERIA MONOCYTOGENES
How long does the morphological cycle of Rhodococcus equi from coccoid to rod form take 24 HOURS
Which of the following diptheroids is normal flora of the throat CORYNEBACTERIUM PSEUDODIPTHERITICUM
The Elek test is for the detection of which toxin CORYNEBACTERIUM DIPTHERIAE TOXIN
When culturing Corynebacterium diptheriae, which of the following media will enhance pleomorphism and granule production LEOFFLER SERUM AGAR
Potassium tellurite medium produces what color colonies of Corynebacterium diptheriae GREY-BlaCK
what is the purpose of potassium tellurite in tellurite medium INHIBITS THE NORMAL FLORA
Babes-ernst granules are characteristic of which organism CORYNEBACTERIUM DIPTHERIAE
The term "picket fence" and "chinese letters" describe the common arrangement of cells for which organism CORYNEBACTERIUM DIPTHERIAE
What is the morphology of Corynebacterium diptheriae Gram-positive, nonmotile rods
Which of the following tests give a presumptive identification of Moraxella catarrhalis if the isolate is a gram-negative diplococci that is oxidase positive and isolated from a body fluid from the middle ear BETA-LACTAMASE TEST
Which of the following indicates a positive reaction fot the beta-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method COLOR CHANGE
All of the following indicates a positive reaction for the beta-lactamase EXCEPT which one SACCHAROGENIC METHOD
Why should beta-lactamase tests be performed with growth from primary isolation media PLASMID CODING FOR THE ENZYME MAY BE LOST ON SUBCULTURING
Neisseria meningitidis degrades which of the following sugars GLUCOSE AND LACTOSE
All of the following genera are oxidase positive except which one HAEMOPHILUS
What color is a positive oxidase test PURPLE
When performing the oxidase test, which of the following techniques CANNOT be used USE A NICHROME LOOP TO TRANSFER THE COLONY TO FILER PAPER
What is the medium of choice for culturing gonococci and meningococci MODIFIED THAYER-MARTIN
Which of the following differentiates Thayer-Martin medium from modified Thayer Martin medium TRIMTHOPRIM LACTATE Which one of the following specimens may be inappropriate for culturing Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Which one of the following best describes Thayer-Martin media ENRICHED CHOCOLATE MEDIA
Gram-negative, coffee bean-shaped diplococci with adjacent sides flattened is descriptive of which of the following NEISSERIA
A fastidious, oxidase-positive, Gram negative cocci from a rectal swab might be presumptively identifed as which organism NEISSERIA GONORRHOEA
An oxidase-positive, gram-negative cocci froma throat culture might be which organism NEISSERIA
The bile-esculin test is used to differintiate which two organisms GROUP D STREPTOCOCCI FROM ENTEROCOCCI
What is the most probable identity of a bile-esculin positive, beta-hemolytic streptococci that grows in 6.5% NaCl ENTEROCOCCI
If pneumococci are resistant to penicillin, then they should be tested for which of the following BETA-LACTAMASE PRODUCTION
Hippurate hydrolysis is used to differentiate which organisms GROUP A STREPTOCOCCI FROM GROUP B STREPTOCOCCI
When performing a bacitracin differentiation test for group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, disks should be used that have how many units 0.02-0.04 unit
Which statement concerning sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) is NOT true ACTIVATES SOME ANTIMICROBIALS
Which of the following should be used to remove antimicrobials before culturing ANTIMICROBIAL REMOVALAL DEVICE
Acid fast bacteria appear what color microscopically RED
Which of the following is used for quality control for the dry heat oven BACILLUS SUBTILIS
What is the tempurature at which bacteria grow best known as OPTIMUM
Which hormone consists of two nonidentical, noncovalently bound subunits HUMAN CHORIONIC GONADOTROPIN
when does the highest level of human chorionic gondadotropin occur first trimester
Which homrone is synthesized from cholesterol testosterone
what is the urinary metabolite of serotonin 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid
Turbidity in serum is associated with the presence of which one of the following chylomicrons
Which of these lipids has the lowest density chylomicrons
what is the migration sequence, from the origin, of lipoproteins during electrophoresis Chylomicrons,beta,pre-beta,alpha
In which of these clinical conditions may blood cholesterol be increased hypothyroidism
What are the reagents used for color development in the Liebermann-Burchard reaction for cholesterol acetic anhydride/sulfuric acid
What is the purpose of the saponification step in cholesterol methods convert cholestrol esters to free cholesterol
The enzymatic hydrolysis of trigliceride may be accomplished by what enzyme lipase
Most triglyceride produces involve the measurement of which end product Glycerol
which of the following is the Friedewald formula by which low-density lipoprotein cholesterol can be calculated LDL cholesterol is cholesterol-(triglycerides/5 + HDL cholesterol)
When calculating a coronary risk index for a patient, one must know the total cholesterol and which other parameter HDL cholesterol
Diseases of which system are associated with elevated beta lipoprotein values cardiovascular
Which statement is true for the oral route of drug administration patient compliance is not always reliable
Which of the following is a major disadvantage of drug detection by immunoassy inability to simulteneously assay multiple drugs in one specimen
What is the method of choice for confirming drugs detected by screening methods gas chromatography-mass spectrophotometry
Decreased CSF glucose level bacterial meningitis
Elevated CSF total protein diabetes
Increased CSF IgG index Multple sclerosis
Oligoclonal banding during CSF electrophoresis Multiple sclerosis
When a urine specimen is allowed to stand at room tempurature, which one of the following does NOT occur flase positive glucose
which of the following plasma substances is NOT normally filtered trhough the glomerulus in significant amounts protein
Smoky red-brown urine is suspected of containing erythrocytes
urine turns brown-black upon standing may contain homogentisic acid
All of the following systems may be used to determine specific gravity of urine EXCEPT which one hydroelectric foucusing
Which is the best single indicator of renal disease proteinuria
all of the following does NOT apply to urine protien estimation by the dipstick method Bense-jones protein interferes with measurment of albumin
Which of the following is true of the detection of urinary glucose Any reducing sustance can give a false positive reaction with the copper reduction method for glucose
The urine dipstick test for occult blood depends on which facts hemoglobin can act as a peroxidase
Which of the following statements is NOT true In a urine culture, 102 microorganisms/mL of urine is considered significant
red blood cells in the urine may be confused with all of the following except which one cholesterol crystals
Which statement does NOT apply to white blood cells in the urine sediment white blood cells in the urine must be accompanied by proteinuria
A glitter cell is Leukocyte
Vagional contamination squamous epithilial cells
Matrix urinary casts Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein
Casts are formed promarily in which portion of the kidney distal convulated tuble
Casts seen in acute glomerulonephritis RBC cast
Crystal identified by concentric circles leucine
immune deficiency characterized by thrombocytopenia at birth Wiskott-aldrich syndrome
T-cell subset enumeration by flow cytometry would be most useful in making the diagnosis of which immune disease caused by congenital thymic hypoplasia Digeorge syndorme
sexlinked immunodificiency disorder with absence of plasma cells resulting in the lack of antibody production Bruton's agammaglobulinemia
disease results from a defect in neutrophils and is characterized by recurrent bacterial infections chronic granlomatous disease
diagnostic laboratory test for aquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) <200 CD4+ T cells
what is the most commonly performed confirmatory method for HIV infection western blot
HIV infection is transmitted in all of the following ways except which one sneezing and coughing
AIDS patients characteristically show a deficiency in which one of the following T lymphocytes
ovarian cancer CA 125
Mantoux skin test is an example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction type IV
what is the most popular serological test for the diagnosis of toxoplasma gondii elisa
seriological method is routinely used for rubella testing elisa
good screening test for determining immunity to the rubella virus IgG antibody test
what test for cytomegalovirus has problems with false positives indirect immunofluorescence
cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection can be diagnosed by which of the following serological tests IgM and IgG antibody test
most common seriological test for varicella zoster virus (ZVZ) elisa
which of the following is the cause of chickenpox varicella zoster virus
which of the following methods has a high degree of specificity when typing the herpes simplex virus (HSV) elisa
method is used to serotype the herpes simplex virus direct fluorescent antibody method
which herpes simplex virus (HSV) can cause urogenital infections both HSV-1 and HSV-2
Hepatitis vaccination for healthcare workers protects against which viral agent(s) HBV
which type of hepatitis is associated with eating shellfish hepatis A
cold agglutinins may develop after an infection cause by which organism mycoplasma pneumoniae
which of the following cold reasting antibodies is present in infections of mycoplasma pneumoniea anti-I
what is the incubation tempurature for a patient sample in the cold agglutinin test 4c
anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies are associated with which autiimmune disease good pastures syndrome
major autoantigen of the thyroid gland thyroglobulin
a positive anti-ribonucleoprotein (anti RNP) in the antinuclear antibody group is suggestive of which autoimmune disease mixed connective tissue disease
which pattern of fluoresence in the anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) test is most closely associated with active systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) homogenous
what does the presence of C-reactive protien in a patients serum indicate inflammation
statement is true concerning the rheumatoid factor latex test synovial fluid may be the source of antibody
the rheumatoid factor (RF) latex slide test uses diluted patients serum plas latex caoste with which one of the following antihuman globulin
which of the following antibodies is directed against teh Fc portion of the IgG RF
which of the following can interfere with the cryptococcal antigen latex agglutination test RF
The cryptococcal antigen test is rapidly replacing which lab test india ink
the titer must be greater than 1:512 in order to diagnose which fungal disease aspergillosis
antibodies to brucella abortus will cross-react with which other organism francisella tularensis
what do the widal and weil-felix test detect febrile agglutinatinins
what are the OX19 and the OX2 antigens strains of Proteus vulgaris
the weil-felix tes is used for the detection of which type of antibodies rickettsia
in the widal test what does the O titer indicate
which antigen is used to determine the somatic antigenic grouping of enteric bacteria O
The davidsohn differential test of uses what type of blood cells horse
what is the principle of the davidsohn heterophil antibody test differentiates three types of heterophil antibodies
which statment describes forssman antibodies absorbed by guinea pig kidney antigen
in the heterophil antibody test, which of the following consitutes a positive reaction agglutination
what type of red blood cell is used in the paul-bunnell heterophil antibody test sheep
how is the heterophil antibody test reported highest dilution that shows agglutionation
what is the causitive agent of infectious mononucleosis
which streptococcal extracellular product dissolves firbin clots streptokinase
which of the following is not a streptococcal extracellular product isomernase
how is the serum titer in the antistreotolysin O (ASO) test reported todd ot international units
in ASO, why should Streptolysin O not be rehydrated unitl it is needed is destroyed by oxygen
principle of the antitreptolysin O tube test hemolysis-inhibition
what is a positive reaction in the antitryptolysin O slide test agglutination
what does the antistreptolysin O (ASO) test measures the patients serum antibody to streptolysin O
GAS antigen group A streptococcal
in nontreponemal test, serum that gives a reactive serological teat that is not caused by syphilis results in which one of the following false positive
which test is less likely to be reactive in primary and early secondary syphils MHA-TP
What is the purpose of the antibody conjugate (anti-immunoglobulin with a fluorscein isothiocyanate label) in the FTA-ABS test makes the antigen-antibody reaction visible
A FTA-ABS test is used to identify which of the following in the patients serum treponemal antibody
which of the following serves as the absorbent in the fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test treponema pallidum, Reiter strain
which one of the following is a requirement of the treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test living treponema pallidum
the RPR test is rotated at what speed for what length of time 100 rpm for 8 miutes
the RPR antigen needle will deliver how many drops 60drops/mL
what is the antigen used in the RPR test cardiolipin with added charcoal
which test for syphilis uses plastic-coated cards RPR
Which statement is true concerning the RPR test it does not require an inactivation of serum
which of the following represents the reported titer in a quantitative VDRL test highest dilution giving a reactive result
when is the quantitative VDRL test performed to titer reactive and weakly reactive results
if the VDRL test shows small clumps of antigen with many free partivles, how should it be reported weakly reactive
what is the serum:antigen ratio in any VDRL test 3:1
if the interval between heating the serum for the VDRL test and testing exceeds 4 hours, how long should the serum be reheated for 56C for 30 minutes
inactivation of sera for seriological tests is performed for what purpose destruction of complement
what is the stability of the VDRL antigen suspension 24 hours
hoe much should saline needles for the quantitative VDRL test deliver 100 drops/mL
what reaction occurs between the antibody and the antigen in the VDRL test flocculation
what role does cardiolipin play in VDRL test it is the neotreponemal antigen
patients with syphils develop an antibody response to which substance cardiolipin
ina negative complement fixation test, what will happen to the red blood cells hemolysis
how is a positive patient reaction expressed in a complement fixation test inhibition of hemolysis
in the complement fixation test, the positive control should show which reaction no hemolysis
what should occur when controls for complement fixation tests are used to check for anticomplementary factors hemolysis
what is the purpose of antisheep hemolysin in a complement fixation test sensitizes sheep red blood cells
what is used to sensitize red blood cells in the complement fixiation test antisheep hemolysin
what is the indicator in the complement fixation test sheep red blood cells
complement fixation tests contain which two systems test and indicator system
which immunoglobulin is measured in the radioallergosrbent (RAST) test IgE
In the enzyme-linked immunosobent assay (ELISA), what is the antihuman globulin conjugated with horseradish peroxidase
which of the following can be attached to a solid phase support (e.g.,polystyrene) antibody or antigen
which fluorochrome can be used in fluorescent stain technique to give an exceedingly bright fluorescence to rapidly identify microrganisms in tissue or culture biotin avidin
which of the following is the energy source of fluorscence microscopes mercury vapor lamp
which fluorochrome gives off a red emission at 580nm tetramethylrhodamine isothiocyanate
which of the following fluorochromes gives a minimal false reading fluoroscein isothiocyanate
why have ENZYME IMMUNOASSAYS REPLAced radioimmunoassays there are hazards and regulations associated with radioimmunoassay
technique that is the antiserum applied directly to the plaste using strips of agarose or cellulose actate immunofixation
another name for one-dimensional single electroimmunodiffusion rocket
electroimmundiffusion is directed movement of antigen or antigen and antibody in which type of media semisolid media
immunoelectrophoresis is used to identify bence jones proteins
electrophoretically abnormal protein displaced from the normal position gull wing
combonation of electrophoresis and double immunodiffusion immunoelectrophoresis
in double radial diffusion, which of the following shows that the antigens are not identical lines of partial intersection
antigen and antibody are both free to move toward each other to form a precipitate in which immunological technique one- dimensional diffusion
random movement of antigen or antibody to form antigen-antibody complexes in semisolid medium occurs in which immunological technique immunodiffusion
binding strength of antibody for an antigen avidity
antigen structurally similar to the original antigen the induced antibody production cross-reactivity
clinical test to be positive in the absence of its homologous antigen sensitivity
why cant monoclonial antibodies be used in complement fixation tests they cannot fix complement
all of the following are limitations of monoclonal antibodies from a hybridoma except can be adapted to many immunological binding assays
hybridoms are formed from which one of the following b lymphocytes
how are monoclonal antibodies prepared fuse b lymphocytees with a plasma myeloma cell
effective phagacytosis occur in the presence of which opsonins
hemagglutination test agglutination test in which the antigens are located on the red blood cells
precepitation reaction is converted to an agglutination reaction by increasing the size of the antigen indirect agglutination
when the most antibody is precipitated by the least amount of antigen zone of equivalence
proxone effect excess antibody
combination of soluble antibody with soluble antigen to produce insoluble complexes in the principle of precipitation
reaction caused by IgG antibody binding to the surface of a red blood cell causing a reversible reaction sensitization
antigen-antibody binding is affected by all of the following excpet enzyme concentration
end product of complement activation cell lysis
complement present in the highest concenrtation c3
component not involved in the alternate pathway c1
strong chemotactic factor as well as as anaphylatoxin c5a
complement complex is know as the membrane attack unit c56789
order of activation of complement c1,c4,c2,c3
complement component of the recognition phase c1q
not a characteristic of complement they are all designated by numbers
small peptide formed during complement anaphylatoxin
not true concerning complement complement proteins are heat liable
not a function of the complement system involved in the production od antibodies
rapid antibody production to an elevated level the persists for a long time anamnestic response
secondary response IgG
first immunoglobulin IgM
immunoglobulin molecule referred to as the hinge region CH1 and CH2
Fc which fragment of the antibody molecule crystallizable
denotes the antigen-binding fragment Fab
proteolytic enzyme the fragments IgG in three fragments papain
how many IgG classes 4
antibody determined by the antigenic variation found primarily in which region constant region of heavy chain
region contains the disulfide bridge constant
resonsible for antigen binding variable
basic immunoglobulin structure 2 light 2 heavy
serve as a screening test for allergies IgE
Immunoglobulin in decreasing order in normal serum g,a,m,d,e
associated with secondary component IgA
predominant in body secretions IgA
immunoglobulin dimer IgA
J chain IgM and IgA
most effective agglutination IgM
function as an antigenic receptor site on the surface of B lymphocytes IgM
not ture concerning IgG it has four subclasses
increases during the convalescence phase of infection IgG
good precipitation IgG
abundant plasma immunoglobulin IgG
most antibodies migrate in which region during serum protein electrophoresis gamma
heterologous antigen react with an antibody whose production it did not induce
reactive sites on an antigen known as determinants
substance is the most potent antigen proteins
macromolecule that is capble od elicting formation of immunoglobulins antigen
not a class II gene products HLA-DD
not a class I gene product HLA-DR
major histocompatibility complex is important in all of the following except acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
major histocompatibility complex the genes that control expression of the HLA antigens
main function of polymorphonuclear white blood cells phagocytosis
WBC becomes macrophages monocyte
B lymphocytes tranform into cells that produce antibody molecule plasma cells
surface immunoglobulin receptor B cells
humoral immune response plasma cells
lymphoid stem cell that differentiate in the bone marrow B cells
not a surface markers for T cells CD16
T cell acts specifiacally to kill tumor cells and virally infected cells cytotoxin t cells
regulate the function of phagocytosis cells lymphokines
production of antibodies is turned off by which cells supressor t cells
main function of T-helper cells assist B cells in producing antibody
T cells are involved with which of the following cell-metiated immunity
differentiation of T cells occur thymus
thymus-dependent t cells
All of the following blood donors would be permanently deferred EXCEPT which one? 38-year old male who received rabies vaccine after a dog bite 3 months ago
Interval between blood donations 8 weeks
oral temp of a donor must not exceed 37.5C
Minimum acceptible hemoglobin for blood donors 12.5 g/Dl for allogeneic donors
lowest acceptible hematocrit for allogenic blood donors 38%
donor that meets all requirments for age, pulse, weight, and blood pressure 32, 60, 185, 110/70
how long pregnant woman be deferred 6 weeks postpartum
12-month deferment for each except Donor recieved hep B vaccine
how long must prospective donor with a history of maleria be deferred 3 years after cessation of treatment
lab tech who has a positive tuberculin skin test: how long is the deferral no deferral as long as there is no other abnrmality
all are causes of permanent donor deferral except which one incarcerated individuals
length of deferral for symptom-free donors immunized with oral polio, measles (rubeola), or mumps vaccine 2 weeks
current testing on all donor blood must include testing for which of the following serological test for syphilis
Which one of the following tests is not required by AABB and is therefore optional during donor blood testing? anti-HBc
what a commonly used screening method for the detection of HIV-1 antibodies enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
currently required viral hepatitis marker tests include all of the following except which one anti-HAV
when color coding is used for donor blood labels, what color is group A yellow
which infctious agent is least likely to be transmitted by a blood transfusion HAV
which one of the following positive tests would be indicative of onset of a viremic state HBsAg
Window period anti-HBc
minimum length of time that a patient's serum must remain positive for HBsAg before the individual is referred to as a chronic carrier 6 months
viral agent causes the majority of cases of transfusion-associated hepatitis HCV
All of the following are required viral marker testing for HIV except HIV-1 p24 antigen
which virus can be deadly to immunocompromised patients or premature infants CMV
all of the following organism have been implicated in bacterial contamination of blood donor products except E coli
Which one of the following parasites has NOT been transmitted by blood transfusion? Naegleria
what is the acceptable temp range for blood bank refrigerator 1c- 6c
expiration date of blood preserved with CPDA-1 35days
expiration date of blood preserved ADSOL 42 days
shelf life of cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor when stored at -18c or lower 1 year
shelf life of fresh frozen plasma that is stored at -18c or lower 1 year
temp range for thawing fresh frozen plasma 30c-37c
shelf life of platelet concentrates 5days at 20c-24c with constant agrigation
hermetic seal on a unit of packed red blood cells has been broken, how soon must the product be used if stored in the blood bank refrigerator 24 hours
which biochemical change does not occur in stored blood plasma K+ decreases
which one of the following is not a labeling requirement of specimen crossmatching ordering physician
All of the following statements concerning autologous transfusions are true except there are no donor blood requirements for them
which autologous procedure is blood drawn and stored before the anticipated elective surgery preoperative collection
criteria for presurgical autologous donation is true donor hemoglobin must be at least 11.0g/dL
pretransfusion testing for autologous transfusion recipient ABO/Rh testing
which analytes is monitered at 4-month intervals for plasmaphoresis donors total protein
after donating whole blood, how long must donor wait to be eligible for plateletpheresis 72 hours
how long must a plasmaphoresis donor wait before donating whole blood 48hours
seperation of white blood cells by reversible filtration of centerfugation called leukopheresis
different genes that occupy a specific locus of a chromosome are called alleles
which description best describes an amorph gene with no directly observable product
what term is used to describe two identical genes at a particular locus homozygous
which term best describes most blood group genes codominant
which term best describes the gene inheritance of most blood group systems autosomal codominant
which one of the following stimulates the production of antibodies antigen
Antibodies that are produced after exposure to foreign antigens that are stimulated by transfusion or pregnancy alloantibodies
inital response to a foreign antigen is known as the primary response. the primary response usually takes how long to occur 2-6 months
secondary response to the same foreign antigen characterized by a rapid increase in antibody synthesis anamnestic response
immunoglobulin class is produced by transfusion or pregnancy IgG
mother passes an antibody to her fetus: what type of immunity does the fetus have naturally aquired passive immunity
All of the following statements concerning complement are true except it shows dosage effect with homozyous cells
which blood group system was discovered first ABO
which gene codes for the enzyme L-fucosyltransferase H gene
which of the following soluble antigens would be detectable in the saliva A and H
Which system is composed of antigens found primarily in saliva and plasma Lewis
Mixed-field reaction with anti-A reagent and a negative reaction with anti-A1 lectin are observed. These results are most consistent with which A subgroup? A3
Which type of antibodies will not be detected in the serum of a bombay genotype anti-Oh
naturally occuring antibodies are found in which blood group system ABO
Immune antibodies are stimulated by all of the following except immune system reacting to the enviornment
Red blood cells of which group react straongly with anti-H O
Frequency of group A in us population 41%
Standard acceptable color for anti-A grouping serum blue
What is the color of the dye added to commercially prepared anti-B blood grouping serum yellow
Which reagent is made from the seeds of plant Dolichous biflorus anti-A1
Red blood cells of which blood group will not be agglutinated by anti-A,B serum O
Which statement is true concerning anti-A,B It is used to confirm group O individulas
What reagents are routinely used in forward grouping anti-A, anti-B
What is the principle of reverse grouping manufactered red blood cells are used to detect naturally occurring antibodies
probable blood type of this neonate:Anti-B 3+ Group B
Best explanation shown: Anti-A 3+, anti-B 3+, A1 2+ A2B person with Anti-A
the blood phenotype O can result from which of the following genotypes OO
heterozygous group A mates with a heterozygous group B, possible phenotypes of their offspring A,B,AB,O
Group O mother and Group AB father have what probability of producing offspring that are group A 50%
All of the following statements concerning Rh antibodies are true except are freqeuntly noted to be cold agglutinins
Which theory postulates that the antigens of the Rh system were produced by three closely linked sets of allels fisher race
what is the frequency of the D antigen 85%
Rh antigen is an amorph d
anti-c can be formed by persons with which genotype R1R1
antigen is most commonly tested for in the Rh system D
mating of R1 x R2 genotypes, which of the following is probably not that of the offspring CDe/cdE
Anti-D 4+ rh control 0: what is the most appropriate interpretation of these test results the patient is Rh positive
Rh antigen is the most immunogenic D
Which of the following is true of weak D It is a varient of the D antigen
Statement is not true of weak D antigen they must be incubated at 4C
Weak D antigens are fairly common to what race blacks
which is the most common Rh negative genotype cde/cde
Anti-C 3+ Anti-E 3+: what is the most probable genotype of this patient R1R1
Anti-c + anti-e +: what is the most common genotype that could result from the following phenotype rr
everything +: what is the most common genotype that could result from the following phenotype CDE/cde
Anti-D + Anti-C + Anti-c + Anti-e +: what is the most common genotype that could result from the following phenotype R1r
which phenotype is there an absence of Rh antigens from the red blood cell membrane Rhnull
Which statement is incorrect regarding naturally occuring antibodies cross the plecenta
Which one of the following antibodies is not naturally occuring Anti-K
Which statement is incorrect regarding immune antibodies most often found in the MNSs system
What is the estimated percentage of patients immunized to blood group antigens 1-4%
which other antigen belongs to the MNSs blood group system U
Anti-N sometimes shows dosage effect. Which cells will react with most strongly if showing this effect NN
Which antigen is found in plasma and adsorbed onto the red blood cells Lea
Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is often associated with which antibody anti-P1
The antigen Tja is part of which blood group system P
An individual inherits the following genes: Lele, Sese, Hh, AB, which soluble antigens will be secreted in the patients saliva H,A,B,Lea,Leb
Which one of the following is not true of anti-Lea causes hemolytic disease of the newborn
which blood group system antigens are destroyed by enzymes Lutheran
All of the following are characteristics of anti-Lua except which one it causes hemolytic disease of the newborn
Other than the D antigen, what other blood group antigen is a potent antigen K
What percentage of the population lacks the Kell antigen 91% One of the following crossmatched in incompatible in the antigen phase of testing. which antibody is most likely to cause this result
Anti-k is produced in response to which antigen cellano
which antigen is destroyed by enzyme Fya
Enzyme prevents detection of antibodies of which blood group system duffy
in the duffy blood group system, what is the most common antibody detected anti-Fya
approximately what percentage of blacks have the Fy(a-b-) phenotype 68%
Which duffy phenotype demonstrates resistance to Plasmodium vivax Fy(a-b-)
all of the following antigens define the kidd blood group system except which one In(JK)
which blood grouping antibodies can be the cause of a severe delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction Kidd
Which of the following is usually IgG, immune, and antiglobulin phase reactive anti-Jka
Which statement is true concerning the I antigen It is poorly developed on cord blood cells
A cold agglutinatinin will usually have specifically for which antigen I antigen
Anti-i may be present in the serum of patients with which clinical conditions infections mononucleosis
Anti-I is most commonly detected in which crossmatch phase room temp
which statement concerning anti-I is incorrect it reacts best with cord red blood cells
basic concept of AHG testing included all of the following except which one AHG is used to detect in vivo sensitization
which statement is true concerning antiglobulin reagent it may be produced in laboratory animals
The most commonly used polyspecific antihuman globulin reagent contains antibodies to which of the following IgG and C3d
Polyspecific antiglobulin reagent is usually what color green
When performing daily quality control on the AHG reagent, what reagent red blood cells are used and what is the expected value Group O check cells plus AHG yields a weak positive reaction
Laboratories must check each negative AHG, after the addition of these cells, if agglutination is observed, then which of the following is not necessarily true patient serum was added to the test tube
a false positive antiglobulin test can be caused by which one of the following bacterial contamination of reagents
A false negative indirect antiglobiulin test can be caused by which of the following inadequate washing of red blood cells
what are the incubation requirments for an indirect antiglobulin test 15-60 minutes at 37C
What is one advantage of performing the antiglobulin testing using low ionic strength solution instead of other enhancement media shortened incubation peroid
Increased sensitivity of the indirect antihuman globulin test is achieved by using which one of the following albumin
all of the following statements concerning the washing of cells are true except red blood cells must be resuspended in saline before adding AHG reagent
what does the autocontrol contain patient serum plus patient red blood cells
In a direct antiglobulin test, what is being tested patient red blood cells against reagent antisera
Inadequate washing of cord red blood cells may result in which one of the following results false positive due to wartons jelly contanimation
Te direct antiglobulin test (DAT) using polyspecific antihuman globulin reagent is NOT of value in which one of the following instances diagnostic of Donath-Landsteiner syndrome
The direct antiglobulin test is most useful for which of the following purposes detection of hemolytic disease of the newborn
which of the following drugs will Not cause a positive direct antiglobulin test asprin
What is the princliple of the antibody screen procedure patient serum with reagent red blood cells
What is the fundamental purpose of an antibody screen screen for alloantibodies other than ABO immunoglobulins
The immediate spin phase is used to detect antibodies of which immunoglobulin class IgM
Other than agglutination, which one of the following is considered a positive reaction hemolysis
Which statement is true concerning unexpected antibodies that react at 37C They are concidered clinically significant
The red blood cells used for screening patients' serum for unxpected antibodies should be of what blood grouping O
What technique is used to remove antibody bound to sensitized red blood cells elution
Production of more antigen in the homozygous state than in heterozygous state is referred to as which one of the following terms dosage effect
The following results are observed on aptient in the medical intensive are unit:IS and 37 have positive reactions, AHG none Cold autoabsorption
The following results are observed on an anemic patient: AHG positive, IS and 37 none warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
The preponderance of warm autoantibodies seems to be directed against which Rh antigen e
patient has no reactions in screening cells and has 1 incompatible unit: what is the most likely cause of the incompatability of donor 4 antibody to a low-frequency antigen
fundimental purpose of the crossmatch detect recipient antibodies directed against donor red blood cells
the minor crossmatch has been eliminated due to the implementation of which procedure donor antibody screen
Fresh serum (less than 48hours old) must be used for compatibility testing in order to preserve which one of the following complement
antibody detected in the antiglobulin phase of a crossmatch anti- Jka
Type & screen ABO/Rh tyoing and screening for unexpected antibodies
immediate crossmatch is used to detect ABO incompatibility
a patient requiring a blood transfusion has an anti-e antibodies, percent of donor blood tested would be compatible 2%
percentage compatible with a patient who has anti-Jka 25%
Two units of compatible blood for a patinet who has anti-Jka are needed, then how many units should be crossmatched 10
its easiest to find two units of compatible blood for which one of the followingg patients anti-Lea positive patient
Percentage compatible for a patient with anti-E 70%
Approximate number of compatible units for anti-P1 1 out of 4 units
which statement regarding LISS is not true it enhances the effect of albumin on Rh blood group antigens
Under what circumstance can hemolytic disease of the newborn occur the mother lacks an antigen the infant possesses
of the following blood groups, which one does not cause hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) Lewis
Excluding anti-D, which antibody is most likely to be involved in Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) anti-c
all of the following are performed as part of a prenatal workup except which one test direct antiglobulin test
what is the best explanation of these results Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn is suspected
after the antibody has been identified in the maternal serum, what is the next logical course of action titrate the maternal antibody
A titration was performed, and the titer was 8. what is the most likely explanation for the result antepartum administration of RhIg
Which one of the following women is a candidate to receive postpartum RhIg Group A, Rh negative mother delived a groups O, Rh positive newborn
Which test detects Rh sensitization of an infant's red blood cells direct antiglobuling test
Not suitable medium for suspensions of red blood cells reagent grade water
not used in blood bank procedures Aldomet
optimum ph at which antibodies bind to cells 6.5-7.5
optimum concentrtion of red blood cells suspension to be used in blood bank testing 2-5%
most common reason for mixed field agglutination dimorphic population of transfused red blood cells
best describes a weak positive reaction microscopic clumps, cloudy background
As part of daily conrtol, anti-B is tested against B cells. what does this procedure ensure antibody specificity
a patient is suspected of having a transfusion reaction. when shoul the infusion be stopped immediately
If a hemolytic transfusion reasion is suspected, which blood bank procedure should be performed immediately direct antiglobulin test on the post transfusion specimen
hemoglobinuria and hypotension are aymptoms of which type of transfusion reaction hemolytic
When is a transfusion reaction concidered a febrile reaction 2F rise in temp within 1 hour transfusion
Hives and itching are symptoms of which type of transfusion reaction urticarial
By: Ksteinhauer
Created by: geebs28