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Plasma is made up of ? Water, proteins & other
The process by which blood cells are formed is? Hemopoiesis aka hematopoiesis
Hematopoiesis in the embryo/fetus takes place in? Yolk sac
Hematopoiesis in the adult takes place in? Red bone marrow, liver & spleen.
The formation of new RBC's in the bone marrow is termed? Erythropoiesis.
The kidney produces what hormone for the process of erythropoiesis? Erythropoietin.
What organ produces erythropoietin? Kidney
80% of EPO is produced where? Extraglomerular mesagium.
low blood volume, anemia, low hemoglobin, poor blood flow and pulmonary disease all decrease what? oxygenation.
This cell is nucleated, found in the red bone marrow. It's an immature cell that develops into the 5 major types of cells from which the major blood cell develop. What is it? Hematocytoblast.
With the help of EPO, hematocytoblasts turn into what 3 differentiations? Rubriblast, reticulocyte and erythrocyte
The 5 major types of cells a hematocytoblast can differentiate into are? rubriblast, myeloblast, megakaryoblast, lymphoblast and monoblast
Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are derived from? myeloblast.
thrombocyte (platelets) are derived from? megakaryoblast
Lymphocytes are derived from? lymphoblast
Monocytes are derived from? Monoblast
The life expectancy of a RBC is? 120 days.
The red pigment of an RBC is? Hemoglobin.
What is the main role of hemoglobin? Transports oxygen, some CO2 and H ions.
How many protein chains does Hb (hemoglobin)have? 4 (2 alpha, 2 beta)
How many Heme groups are on each Hb? 4
Each Heme group has what on it? An iron atom.
How many oxygen can each iron atom bind with? 1
How many forms of Iron are there? 3
What are the forms of iron? Ferrous (Fe2+), Ferritin (Fe3+), Transferrin (Fe3+)
Which Iron is the storage-form of iron? Ferritin (store it in a TIN)
Which Iron does blood transportation? TRANSferrin
Majority of CO2 (70%) is transported as what ion? Bicarbonate ion (HCO3)
23% of CO2 is transported via what? Carboxy Hb
True or False: Leucocytes are nucleated? True
What are the Two Major categories of Leucocytes? Granulocytes and Agranulocytes
What are the 3 types of Granulocytes? Basophils, Eosinophils & Neutrophils
What are the 2 Major types of Agranulocytes? Lymphocytes and Monocytes
What are the 2 types of Lymphocytes? B cells and T cells
PMN's that develop from red bone marrow are? Granulocytes
MN's that develop from lymphoid tissue are? Lymphocytes
These are viril and produce antibodies. Lymphocytes
These are involved in vasodilation (release: heparin), inflammation, hypersensitivity and release histamine. Basophils
These cells are involved in allergic reactions (allergy) Eosinophils
These cells have phagocytic capabilities and are involved in bacterial antibiotic activity. Neutrophils
These cells are produced in the bone marrow. When they come in contact with an antigen they become Plasma Cells, which produce antibodies for that antigen. What are they? B Cells
These cells are differentiated in the thymus. They release chemicals that stimulate macrophages to migrate toward infections. What are they? T Cells
These are present in chronic infections, produce macrophages, and during antibiotic reactions. What cells are these? Monocytes
The first line of defense in the blood are what types of cells? Neutrophils
The first line of defense in the tissues are what types of cells? Macrophages
60, 30, 8, 3, 0... refers to the percentages of what 5 cell types?(in respective order) Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Monocytes, Eosinophils and Basophils
When you think bacterial infection, you think what cell type? Neutrophils
When you think viral infection, you think what cell type? Lymphocytes
When you think Macrophage, you think what cell type? Monocyte
When you think Parasitic invasion, you think what cell type? Eosinophils
When you think tissue inflammation, you think what cell type? Basophils
For Coagulation the Intrinic pathway occurs in seconds, true or false? False, it occurs in minutes.
Which pathway for coagulation occurs in seconds? Extrinsic pathway
What's required to turn fibrinogen into fibrin (clot)? Thrombin
What is needed for the synthesis of Prothrombin? Vitamin K
Stuart Factor, or Activated Factor X is required for what step of coagulation? Prothrombin to Thrombin
Stuart Factor, Activated Factor X, is where what pathway takes place? Intrinsic or Extrinsic? Extrinsic Pathway
Activated Factor XII is also known as? Haegman Factor
The intrinsic pathway begins with which factor? Activated factor XII - Haegman Factor
Is the intrinsic pathway is intravascular or interstitial? Intravascular
Which pathway is involved interstitially? Extrinsic Pathway
Factor IX is known as? Christmas Factor
Is Christmas Factor what occurs when Santa Clause comes to town? You'd think so, wouldn't you? But school had to ruin that, too!!!
What makes up 55% of blood volume? Plasma
What are 4 plasma proteins? Albumin, Globulins, fibrinogen and prothrombin.
What protein is responsible for maintaining osmotic pressure? Albumin
What protein helps with clot formation? Prothrombin
What does fibrinogen do? Takes part in blood clotting along with platelets
What blood type is the universal recipient? Type AB
What blood type is the universal donor? Type O
If an Rh- person receives Rh+ blood, the body will make? anti Rh + aggultinins
Erythroblastosis Fetalis occurs when? When an Rh- mother and an Rh + father have a baby, which is Rh+. The mother starts making anti Rh+ aggultinins which causes fatality to the baby.
What's the term for a substance that combines specifically with an antigen? Antibody
What's the term for a chemical that is introduced into the body, for which the body produces antibodies or T-cells against it? Antigen
Are there macrophages in the blood? No
The first line of defense in an inflammatory response is? Macrophage
What are the two types of immunity? Cellular and Humoral
T cells are a part of what type of immunity? Cellular
B cells are a part of what type of immunity? Humoral
Macrophages binds with antigen and presents it to the T-cell. This is an example of what kind of immunity? Cellular
True or False: T - Cells can only recognize the antigen as presented by macrophage? True
What are the 4 types of T-cells? Cytotoxic (killer), Helper, Memory, and Suppressor
Which T-cells work with B-cells to amplify antibody production, and they release interleukin 2 to stimulate the proliferation of killer T cells T helper cells
These T cells are programmed to recognize original invading agent for an accelerated response to second exposure? T Memory cells
These T Cells will dampen the immune response, weeks after an infection. These inhibit killer T cells and antibody production. Suppressor T cells
These T cells attach to invading cell and secrete lymphotoxins (kill antigen directly) Cytotoxic (killer) T cells
What releases Lymphokinins? Macro - Interleukin I; Cytotoxics - Interleukin II & Helper T cells - Interleukin II.
Where are B cells formed? In the Bone Marrow
Where are B cells differentiated? Spleen
The activated B cell enlarges and divides into what two cells? Plasma Cell and Memory Cells
Which B cell secretes antibodies into circulation? Plasma cells
Which B cell recognizes invading antigen and can respond rapidly and forcefully if it appears again in the future? Memory B cells
Gamma Globulins is another name for what? Immunoglobulins
Which Ig crosses the placenta? IgG
Which Ig is the most abundant? IgG
Which Ig provides protection on mucous membranes? IgA
Which is the largest Ig? IgM (M for Massive)
Which Ig is the first to appear after an initial exposure to antigen? IgM
Which Ig stimulates antibody production? IgD
Which Ig takes part in allergic reactions on mast and basophil cells? IgE
A severe local inflammatory reaction on blood vessels is known as? Arthus
What stimulates phagocytes? Opsonin
The movement of leukocytes through blood vessel walls is known as? Diapedesis
Your body making it's own antibodies - long term is known as what kind of immunity? Active
Receiving antibodies from outside the self - short-term is known as what kind of immunity? Passive
If you inject an antigen into a horse, then remove the blood and prepare a serum, then inject the antibodies into a human, what kind of immunity is that known as? Artificially acquired passive immunity.
The right atrium and right ventricle is separated by what valve? Tricuspid valve.
The left atrium and left ventricle is separated by what valve? Bicuspid valve.
Which node is known as the pacemaker of the heart? SA Node (Sinoatrial node)
What is the role of the SA Node It initiates contractions
Where is the SA node located? Right atrium
Which two nodes does the internodal pathway connect? SA node and AV node
If the SA node is damaged, which node becomes the pacemaker? AV node
The atrioventricular bundle is also known as? Bundle of His
What does the Bundle of His do? It causes conduction in the ventricles
The bundle of His terminates as what? Purkinje Fibers
The fastest conduction in the heart occurs where? Purkinje Fibers
Where does the Bundle of His begin? At the AV node
What happens at the P-Wave Atrial depolarization
Ventricular depolarization occurs where? QRS Wave
Ventricular repolarization occurs where? T wave
The phase of contraction is known as: systole? diastole? Systole
The phase of relaxation is known as: systole? diastole? Diastole
Atrial repolarization is masked by what? the large QRS wave
The large QRS wave masking atrial repolarization is known as what notch? Dicrotic Notch
What are the names of the AV valves? Biscuspid and Tricuspid valve
Are the bi and tricuspid valves open or closed during ventricular systole? Closed
What are the names of the semilunar valves? Aortic and pulmonic valves
Are the aortic and pulmonic valves open or closed during ventricular systole? Open
Ventricular systole can also be known as? Aortic diastole
Fill in the blanks for the Sequence of Cardiac Cycle: _______ -> Isovolumetric contraction -> ejection period -> ________ -> ventricular filling -> ______. Aortic systole Isovolumetric relaxation Aortic systole
The slowest conduction of the heart occurs at which node? AV node
Contraction of which structures causes the S4 heart sound? Contraction of the atria
During atriole systole which group of valves is open, and which is closed? Semilunar valves are closed and AV valves are open
Only 30% of blood enters the ventricles during which phase? Atrial systole
When does the pressure in the ventricles become greater than the pressure in the atria? At the end of atrial systole
At the end of atrial systole which valves slam shut? AV valves
When the AV valves shut at the end of atrial systole, what heart sound do they cause? S1 heart sound
The S1 heart sound marks the beginning of what phase? Ventricular systole
The beginning of ventricular systole is also known as? Isovolumetric contraction
In Isovolumetric contraction are all the valves open or closed? Closed
Which phase is characterized as a rise in ventricular pressure with no change in volume? Isovolumetric contraction
The ejection period phase of ventricular systole begins with the opening of what valves? Semilunar valves
Does the opening of the semilunar valves cause a sound? No sound!
During ejection period what empties? The ventricles empty into the systemic and pulmonic circulation
Where does the S2 heart sound take place? Ejection period (at the end)
The S2 heart sound is made by what valves shutting? Semilunar valves
The ejection period is marked by what pressure changes? Ventricular pressure dropping and pulmonic and systemic pressure rising.
S2 heart sound marks the beginning of what phase? Ventricular Diastole
Ventricular Diastole begins with what action of all valves? All valves are closed
The opening of the AV valves marks the beginning of what phase? Ventricular Diastole - Ventricular filling
During which phase, does 70% of the blood enter the ventricles? Ventricular filling phase of Ventricular Diastole
Ventricular filling is characterized by what change in pressure? Increased diastolic pressure
During the end of ventricular filling, the atria contract causing what heart sound? S4
What's the term used to describe the amount of blood pumped by either ventricle per minute? Cardiac output
What's the term used to describe the amount of blood pumped by the ventricle with each systole/heartbeat? Stroke volume
What's the term used to describe the number of heart beats per minute? Heart rate
Complete the missing part of the equation: ___ = SV * ____ CO = SV * HR
Stroke volume depends on what two factors? End systolic volume and End diastolic volume
The amount of blood remaining in a ventricle following systole is known as? End systolic volume
The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after diastole is known as? End diastolic volume
A high end systolic volume causes what change in the stroke volume? A low stroke volume
A high end diastolic volume causes what change in the stroke volume? A high stroke volume
The greater the volume of blood entering the heart during diastole (EDV), the greater the volume of blood ejected during systolic contraction (SV) and vice-versa. This describes what law/mechanism? The Frank-Starling Law (of the heart) or Frank - Starling mechanism.
What kind of receptors are the carotid sinus and aortic sinus? Baroreceptors
What kind of receptors are the carotid body and aortic body? Chemoreceptors
Baroreceptors, chemoreceptors and higher brain regions regulate what processes in the body? Heart rate and blood vessel diameter
What are the 2 cardiovascular centers in the body? Cardioacceleratory center & cardioinhibitory center
Which CV center gives rise to the sympathetic fibers, innervating the SA node? Cardioacceleratory center
When stimulated, the Cardioacceleratory center releases what? Norepinephrine
Release of norepinephrine causes what change in heart rate and contraction? Increases heart rate and causes a greater strength of contraction
Which center increases cardiac output and blood pressure? Cardioacceleratory center
Which nerve does the cardioinhibitory center give rise to? Vagus nerve
Which fibers is the cardioinhibitory center responsible for? parasympathetic
Which node does the cardioinhibitory center innervate? SA node
When stimulated the cardioinhibitory center releases? Acetylcholine
The cardioinhibitory center has what effect on heart rate, cardiac output and blood pressure? It decreases all of them.
Under normal conditions, does the cardioinhibitory center or the cardioacceleratory center dominate? Cardioacceleratory center.
Which reflex is concerned with maintaining normal blood pressure in the brain? Carotid sinus reflex
Which reflex is concerned with maintaining general systemic blood pressure? Aortic sinus reflex.
What happens to blood pressure when cardiac output is increased? Blood pressure increases.
What's the term used to describe this: The pressure exerted by blood on the wall of any blood vessel Blood Pressure
Which vessels have the greatest amount of pressure? Arteries
Which vessels have the greatest resistance? Arterioles
Arterioles are innervated by what? Sympathetics
Which vessels carry blood away from the heart toward the organs? Arteries
Which vessels have the greatest capacity to change diameter? Arterioles
Which vessels have the greatest cross sectional area? Capillaries
Which vessels permit the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the blood and tissue cells? Capillaries
Which vessels carry blood to the heart? Veins
Which vessels carry blood from the arteries to the capillaries? Arterioles
Where are one-way valves found to prevent back flow? In the extremities, via the veins.
Blood flow = change in pressure (direct)/ resistance (inverse). This describes what Law? Ohms Law
What change in resistance will be found with a longer vessel length? Increased resistance
What change in resistance will be found with smaller vessel diameter? Increased resistance
What change in resistance will be found with increased viscosity? Increased resistance
Which vessels determine resistance and why? Arterioles because they have the greatest capacity for change in diameter.
The principal determinant of blood pressure is what? Cardiac output
If cardiac output increases, what changes are made in blood pressure? Increase in blood pressure
A decrease in blood volume causes what pressure changes? Decrease in blood pressure
True of False: A high salt intake causes increased in blood pressure? True because it increases blood volume.
The vasomotor center is located where? In the medulla
What functions to control the diamter of blood vessels (specifically the arterioles)? The vasomotor center
An increase in sympathetic impulses causes vasoconstriction or vasodilation of the arterioles? Vasoconstriction
When blood pressure falls below what amount, do the sympathetics increase their stimulation to the arterioles resulting in vasoconstriction and a raise in blood pressure? 80 mmHg.
Receptors sensitive to chemicals in the blood are known as? Chemoreceptors
What is the most sensitive structure to low levels of oxygen? Aortic Body
Chemoreceptors are strongly stimulated once blood pressure drops to what arterial pressure? 80 mmHg
Fill in the Flow of Urine pathway: Collecting ducts -> Renal Papillae -> Papillary ducts -> ____ -> _____ -> renal pelvis -> _____ -> bladder -> urethra Collecting ducts -> Renal Papillae -> Papillary ducts -> minor calyx -> major calyx -> renal pelvis -> ureter -> bladder -> urethra
What major structure functions to control blood concentration and volume (BP), help regulate blood pH, remove toxic wastes from blood and form urine (not urea)? Kidney
The functional unit of the kidney is known as the ____? Nephron
Each efferent arteriole of a nephron divides to form a network of capillaries called? Peritubular capillaries
What structure do the peritubular capillaries surround? The convoluted tubules
Tubular resorption, tubular secretion and concentration of urine are all functions of what structure? Vasa Recta
What structure do the peritubular capillaries empty into once they reunite? Into the interlobular veins
What are the 3 steps in urine formation? Glomerular filtration, tubular resorption and tubular secretion.
In Glomerular filtration substances in the blood are filtered through the glomerular capillary membrane into which structure? Bowman's Capsule
What does Glomerular Filtrate consist of? All the materials in the blood except formed elements and most proteins
Why aren't there significant amounts of protein in the glomerular filtrate? Because proteins can't pass through the basement membrane of the glomerulus
The average GFR (glomerular filtration rate) is ? 125 ml/min or 180 liters per day
What is definition of GFR? The amount of glomerular filtrate formed each minute in all nephrons
What 3 things determine GFR? Glomerular capillary pressure, colloidal osmotic pressure and Bowman's Capsule pressure.
The pressure inside the glomerulus (GCP) is? 60 mmHg
Is the GCP higher or lower than a normal capillary? 2-3 times higher
This GCP pressure promotes the filtration of fluid from the glomerulus to where? Bowman's Capsule
Afferent arteriole constriction calls for what change in GCP and GFR? Decrease in both.
Efferent arteriole constriction causes what change in GCP and GFR? Increase in both.
What two pressures (terms) oppose the glomerular pressure? And by what amount? Colloidal osmotic pressure (32 mmHg) and Bowman's Capsule Pressure (18mmHg)
Protein in the blood causes what into the glomerular capillary network? a Sucking pressure back into the glomerular capillary network.
Bowman's Capsule Pressure is known as what kind of pressure? Hydrostatic Pressure.
A decrease in GCP (efferent arteriole dilation, afferent arteriole constriction), increased plasma colloidal pressure & increased bowman's capsule pressure all cause what change in GFR? Decrease in GFR
Plasma clearance is the job of what organ? Kidney
What substance has the lowest plasma clearance value? Glucose
What substance is the slowest removed from the blood? Glucose
The movement of filtrate back into the blood of the peritubular capillaries or vasa recta, describes what? Tubular Resorption
What percent of filtrate is resorbed, allowing the body to retain most of it's nutrients? 99%
Where are most of the active transport substances for tubular resorption reabsorbed? The proximal convoluted tubule
Which tubule (proximal or distal) is permeable to water? Proximal
The distal convoluted tubule is impermeable to water except in the presence of what substance? ADH
Most of the passive water reabsorption occurs in what structure? Proximal convoluted tubule does 66%
Serum refers to what substance? Blood
High serum osmolarity means what change in H20 concentration in the blood? Low H20 concentration in the blood
Is a high H20 concentration in the blood a diluted or concentrated solution? Diluted solution
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is also known as? Vasopressin.
A dehydrated body causes what change in osmotic pressure? An increase in osmotic pressure.
What receptors, and where, detect low water concentrations/high osmotic pressures? Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus.
High osmotic pressure causes the synthesis of what product? ADH
What does ADH do to the distal convoluted tubules and collecting duct? It increases the permeability of both of them to water.
Does ADH cause and increase or decrease in urine volume? Decrease
What is the main mineralcorticoid released from the Zona Glomerulosa of the Adrenal Cortex? Aldosterone
What 3 factors stimulate the release of aldosterone? Increased angiotension II in blood, increased potassium ion concentration, decreased sodium ion concentration.
What are the two main actions of Aldosterone? Raise sodium ion concentration and reduce potassium ion concentration
The reabsorption of sodium causes the rentention of water which causes what changes? It increases the blood volume which raises blood pressure.
What organ makes Angiotensinogen? The Liver
What cells make Renin? JG cells
The JG cells are located in which organ? In the Kidney
Renin is released in response to what bodily changes? Low blood volume or low blood pressure.
What changes angiotensinogen to angiotensin I? Renin
Which organ does blood pass through to change angiotensin I to angiotensin II? The lung
Which enzyme is responsible for the change of angiotensin I to angiotensin II? ACE
What constricts the arterioles AND causes the Zona Glomerulosa to release aldosterone? Angiotensin II
What increases water concentration in the blood stream? Aldosterone
What increases the permeability of the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts to Na? Aldosterone
Urine concentration depends on the concurrent mechanism where? At the loop of Henle
The descending limb of the loop of henle is permeable and impermeable to what? Permeable to water, impermeable to solutes like NaCl
At the loop of Henle, the osmolarity of the filtrate is what? Equal to that of the medullary interstitium
The ascending limb is impermeable and permeable to what? Impermeable to water, permeable to solutes like NaCl
Low pH and high hydrogen ion concentration describes what environment? Acidic
A high pH and low hydrogen ion concentration describes what environment? Basic
What are two major sources of hydrogen ions? Aerobic respiration (Krebs cycle) & Anaerobic respiration (glycolysis)
What is the name of the acid that is made which ionizes to release hydrogen ions and bicarbonate ions? Carbonic Acid (H2CO3)
How does glycolysis create an increase in hydrogen ion concentration? (What substance is produced to cause this?) It produces lactic acid.
What 3 Mechanisms control the acid-base balance/pH of the body? Buffer Systems, Respiration, Kidney.
What are the 3 buffer systems? Bicarbonate Buffer, Phosphate buffer & protein buffer.
The buffer systems work to stabilize the pH between what ranges? 7.35 and 7.45
What is the buffer system in the urine? Phosphate buffer.
What is the buffer system in the blood? Bicarbonate buffer
When someone is hypoventilating, what is their pH? More acidic.
Which mechanism can eliminate more acid or base than any other buffers combined? Respiration
When someone is hyperventilating, what is their pH? More basic.
How does the kidney control pH? It secretes hydrogen into the urine & reabsorbs of bicarbonates into the blood stream.
Secretion of hydrogen ions from the Kidney mechanism occurs where? At the proximal and distal convoluted tubules, and the collecting ducts.
Hydrogen ion released into the urine causes what to happen to the pH of the urine and blood? It causes a drop in urine pH and increase in blood pH.
The normal urine pH is what? 6.0
Excess H+ must be excreted in combination with what? Buffers.
What ion is released into the urine as a buffer? Ammonium Ion Buffer (NH4+)
Is bicarbonate ion an acid or a base? Base
What will reabsorption of bicarbonate ion into the blood do to the pH? It will raise blood pH.
What is the range of normal blood pH? 7.35 to 7.45
What's the range of Acidosis? 7.35 to 6.8
What's the range of Alkalosis? 7.45 to 8.0
Hypoventilation (acidic) causes what change in CO2 concentration? Increases CO2 levels
A patient has an injury to the respiratory center of the brain causing a decrease rate and depth of breathing, they might have pneumonia, emphysema, or an obstruction in their air passages. CO2 in body fluids increased. What term describes this? Respiratory acidosis.
Hyperventilation along with excessive loss of CO2 is termed? Respiratory alkalosis.
Severe anxiety, aspirin overdose and oxygen deficiency due to high altitude can cause what? Respiratory alkalosis.
Breathing into a bag helps which respiratory condition? Respiratory alkalosis.
An abnormal increase in acidic metabolic products or an abnormal loss of bicarbonate ion, is termed what? Metabolic acidosis.
Kidney failure and diabetes mellitus are examples of what? Metabolic acidosis
Examples that can cause an abnormal loss of bicarbonate ions are what? Prolonged diarrhea or prolonged vomiting.
Non respiratory loss of acids by the body causes what? Metabolic alkalosis
Excessive vomiting of gastric juices or an excessive intake of alkaline drugs cause what? Metabolic alkalosis.
Nervousness, muscle spasms and convulsions due to excessive intake of alkaline drugs can cause what? Metabolic alkalosis.
Chemical buffers, and increase rate and depth of breathing and increased secretion of H+ ions into the urine are compensations for what? Acidosis
Chemical buffers, decrease rate and depth of breathing and decrease secretion of H+ ions into the urine and decrease reabsorption of HCO3- are compensations for what? Alkalosis.
Til which structure does the Trachea extend to? The Carina
What keeps the trachea from collapsing on itself? 16-20 incomplete rings of cartilage.
The C rings of the trachea are open to face where? Posteriorly
What is the last of the tracheal cartilage, this also is the point which separates the openings of the left and right main bronchi. Carina.
Which primary bronchi is shorter, wider and more vertical? The right
How many secondary or lobar bronchi are on the right and on the left respectively? 3 on the right and 2 on the left.
How many tertiary/bronchioles are on the right and on the left? 10 on the right and 8 on the left
The Bronchioles supply sectors of the lung known as? Bronchopulmonary Segments
Bronchioles eventually terminate as what structure? Aveolar Ducts
The ducts terminate into what structure? Aveolar Sacs
The functional unit of the lung is known as what? Alveoli
What are the two parts of the pleura named? Parietal layer and the visceral layer
Which layer of viscera is attached to the thoracic wall (and lines it)? Parietal layer
Which visceral layer covers the outer surface of the lung? The visceral layer
What's the name of the potential space between the parietal and visceral pleural layers? Pleural cavity.
The pressure of gas in the lungs is inversely proportional to the volume of the lungs. This describes which law? Boyles Law
When the pressure in the lungs is less than the air pressure in the atmosphere, what action takes place in the lung? Inpsiration
When the pressure in the lungs is greater than the atmospheric pressure, what happens in the lung? Expiration
Muscles of inspiration contract increasing lung volume, while decreasing lung pressure. This causes what of the lungs? Expansion
A sheet of skeletal muscle that forms the floor of the thoracic cavity, is known as what? The diaphragm
The flattening of what structure causes an increase in vertical diameter of the thoracic cavity? The diaphragm
Contraction of what muscles causes the ribs to be pulled upward and the sternum pushed forward? External intercostal muscles
Contraction of what muscles causes an increase in anterior-posterior diameter of the thoracic cavity? External intercostal muscles
What muscles (collective name) contract during forced inspiration? Accessory inspiratory muscles
What muscle elevates the sternum? Sternocleidomastoid
What muscles elevates the superior ribs? Scalenes
Is inspiration an active or passive process and why? It is an active process because it is initiated by muscle contraction.
The pressure inside the lungs is known as? Intraalveolar pressure
The pressure between the two pleural layers is known as? Intrapleural pressure
Is the intrapleural pressure always higher or lower than the atmospheric pressure? lower
The difference between intrapulmonic pressure and intrapleural pressure is termed what? Transpulmonic pressure
When is transpulmonic pressure the greatest? At the end of inspiration.
Is expiration a passive or active process? Normal expiration is a passive process.
As the external intercostal muscles relax, where do the ribs move? Down
As the diaphragm relaxes, where do the ribs move? Up
Which muscles contract during higher levels of ventilation and when air movement out of the lungs is impeded? Muscles of expiration
Which muscles move the ribs downward? The internal intercostal muscles
Which muscles move the inferior ribs down, compress the abdominal viscera forcing the diaphragm upward? The abdominal muscles
What is the term used to describe a collapsed lung? Atelectasis
What are two things that prevent atelectasis? Maintenance of a subatmospheric intrapleural pressure keeping the alveoli inflated & surfactant.
What cells produce surfactant? Type II alveolar cells
What's another name for Type II alveolar cells? Pneumocyte Type II
What product decreases the surface tension in lungs, preventing the alveoli from sticking together following expiration? Surfactant
The ease with which the lungs and thoracic wall can be expanded is termed what? Compliance
The volume of air which moves through the respiratory passages with each normal breath is termed what? Tidal volume
What is the value of normal tidal volume? 500 ml
How much of the tidal volume remains as dead air volume in the nose, pharynx, trachea and bronchi? 150 ml
What is Inspiratory Reserve Volume? The extra volume of air inspired beyond the tidal volume.
What's the normal value of IRV? 3000 ml
What is Expiratory Reserve Volume? The air expired by forceful expiration, beyond tidal volume.
What's the normal volume of ERV? 1100 to 1200 ml
The volume of air still remaining in the lungs after forceful expiration is known as? Residual volume
The residual volume is equal to what amount? 1200 ml
Tidal volume + Inspiratory Reserve Volume is known as what term? Inspiratory Capacity
The normal Inspiratory Capacity value is what? 3500 ml
The amount of air a person can breath beginning at the normal expiratory level and distending the lungs to the maximum amount is known as what? Inspiratory capacity
Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume is known as what combined term? Functional residual capacity
Normal volume of Functional residual capacity is? 2300 ml
Inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume is termed what? Vital capacity
What's the normal value for vital capacity? 4600 ml
What's the term for maximum amount of air that a person can expel after first filling the lungs to their maximum extent and then expiring to the maximum extent? Vital Capacity
Vital Capacity + Residual volume is termed what? Total Lung Capacity
The volume of total lung capacity is what? 5800 ml
The maximum volume to which the lungs can be expanded with the greatest possible inspiratory effect is termed what? Total lung capacity
True or False, all pulmonary volumes and capacities are 20-25% less in women than men? True
What's the term for the gas within a mixture of gases exerts it's own pressure? Partial pressure
What's the term for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and lungs? External Respiration
______ diffuses 20X as rapidly as ______. Carbon dioxide diffuses 20X as rapidly as oxygen.
97% of what is transported in the blood in combination with hemoglobin? Oxygen
70% of carbon dioxide is carried as what? Bicarbonate ion
What enzyme is required to have carbon dioxide carried as bicarbonate ion? Carbonic Anhydrase.
The binding of oxygen to hemoglobin tends to displace CO2 from the blood, this is termed what? Haldane Effect
What's necessary for CO2 transport as bicarbonate ion? Chloride shift.
Groups of neurons located in the medulla and the pons that control respiration are known as what? The respiratory center
What controls the basic rhythm of breathing? Medullary rhythmicity area
What area sends inhibitory impulses to the inspiratory area, it limits inspiration to facilitate expiration? The pneumotaxic area.
What area sends stimulatory signals to the inspiratory area inhibiting expiration? Apneustic Area
When the pneumotaxic area is inactive what area takes over? The apneustic area
What's another name for the inflation reflex? The Hering Breuer Reflex
Stretch receptors are located in the walls of the Bronchi and Bronchioles, when stimulated they send inhibitory impulses via the vagus nerve to the inspiratory area & apneustic area. This is called? The inflation reflex.
The result of the Hering Breuer reflex is what? Expiration
Created by: mchadha3



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