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SYSTEMS - LIFEBOOK
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Plasma is made up of ? | Water, proteins & other |
| The process by which blood cells are formed is? | Hemopoiesis aka hematopoiesis |
| Hematopoiesis in the embryo/fetus takes place in? | Yolk sac |
| Hematopoiesis in the adult takes place in? | Red bone marrow, liver & spleen. |
| The formation of new RBC's in the bone marrow is termed? | Erythropoiesis. |
| The kidney produces what hormone for the process of erythropoiesis? | Erythropoietin. |
| What organ produces erythropoietin? | Kidney |
| 80% of EPO is produced where? | Extraglomerular mesagium. |
| low blood volume, anemia, low hemoglobin, poor blood flow and pulmonary disease all decrease what? | oxygenation. |
| This cell is nucleated, found in the red bone marrow. It's an immature cell that develops into the 5 major types of cells from which the major blood cell develop. What is it? | Hematocytoblast. |
| With the help of EPO, hematocytoblasts turn into what 3 differentiations? | Rubriblast, reticulocyte and erythrocyte |
| The 5 major types of cells a hematocytoblast can differentiate into are? | rubriblast, myeloblast, megakaryoblast, lymphoblast and monoblast |
| Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are derived from? | myeloblast. |
| thrombocyte (platelets) are derived from? | megakaryoblast |
| Lymphocytes are derived from? | lymphoblast |
| Monocytes are derived from? | Monoblast |
| The life expectancy of a RBC is? | 120 days. |
| The red pigment of an RBC is? | Hemoglobin. |
| What is the main role of hemoglobin? | Transports oxygen, some CO2 and H ions. |
| How many protein chains does Hb (hemoglobin)have? | 4 (2 alpha, 2 beta) |
| How many Heme groups are on each Hb? | 4 |
| Each Heme group has what on it? | An iron atom. |
| How many oxygen can each iron atom bind with? | 1 |
| How many forms of Iron are there? | 3 |
| What are the forms of iron? | Ferrous (Fe2+), Ferritin (Fe3+), Transferrin (Fe3+) |
| Which Iron is the storage-form of iron? | Ferritin (store it in a TIN) |
| Which Iron does blood transportation? | TRANSferrin |
| Majority of CO2 (70%) is transported as what ion? | Bicarbonate ion (HCO3) |
| 23% of CO2 is transported via what? | Carboxy Hb |
| True or False: Leucocytes are nucleated? | True |
| What are the Two Major categories of Leucocytes? | Granulocytes and Agranulocytes |
| What are the 3 types of Granulocytes? | Basophils, Eosinophils & Neutrophils |
| What are the 2 Major types of Agranulocytes? | Lymphocytes and Monocytes |
| What are the 2 types of Lymphocytes? | B cells and T cells |
| PMN's that develop from red bone marrow are? | Granulocytes |
| MN's that develop from lymphoid tissue are? | Lymphocytes |
| These are viril and produce antibodies. | Lymphocytes |
| These are involved in vasodilation (release: heparin), inflammation, hypersensitivity and release histamine. | Basophils |
| These cells are involved in allergic reactions (allergy) | Eosinophils |
| These cells have phagocytic capabilities and are involved in bacterial antibiotic activity. | Neutrophils |
| These cells are produced in the bone marrow. When they come in contact with an antigen they become Plasma Cells, which produce antibodies for that antigen. What are they? | B Cells |
| These cells are differentiated in the thymus. They release chemicals that stimulate macrophages to migrate toward infections. What are they? | T Cells |
| These are present in chronic infections, produce macrophages, and during antibiotic reactions. What cells are these? | Monocytes |
| The first line of defense in the blood are what types of cells? | Neutrophils |
| The first line of defense in the tissues are what types of cells? | Macrophages |
| 60, 30, 8, 3, 0... refers to the percentages of what 5 cell types?(in respective order) | Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Monocytes, Eosinophils and Basophils |
| When you think bacterial infection, you think what cell type? | Neutrophils |
| When you think viral infection, you think what cell type? | Lymphocytes |
| When you think Macrophage, you think what cell type? | Monocyte |
| When you think Parasitic invasion, you think what cell type? | Eosinophils |
| When you think tissue inflammation, you think what cell type? | Basophils |
| For Coagulation the Intrinic pathway occurs in seconds, true or false? | False, it occurs in minutes. |
| Which pathway for coagulation occurs in seconds? | Extrinsic pathway |
| What's required to turn fibrinogen into fibrin (clot)? | Thrombin |
| What is needed for the synthesis of Prothrombin? | Vitamin K |
| Stuart Factor, or Activated Factor X is required for what step of coagulation? | Prothrombin to Thrombin |
| Stuart Factor, Activated Factor X, is where what pathway takes place? Intrinsic or Extrinsic? | Extrinsic Pathway |
| Activated Factor XII is also known as? | Haegman Factor |
| The intrinsic pathway begins with which factor? | Activated factor XII - Haegman Factor |
| Is the intrinsic pathway is intravascular or interstitial? | Intravascular |
| Which pathway is involved interstitially? | Extrinsic Pathway |
| Factor IX is known as? | Christmas Factor |
| Is Christmas Factor what occurs when Santa Clause comes to town? | You'd think so, wouldn't you? But school had to ruin that, too!!! |
| What makes up 55% of blood volume? | Plasma |
| What are 4 plasma proteins? | Albumin, Globulins, fibrinogen and prothrombin. |
| What protein is responsible for maintaining osmotic pressure? | Albumin |
| What protein helps with clot formation? | Prothrombin |
| What does fibrinogen do? | Takes part in blood clotting along with platelets |
| What blood type is the universal recipient? | Type AB |
| What blood type is the universal donor? | Type O |
| If an Rh- person receives Rh+ blood, the body will make? | anti Rh + aggultinins |
| Erythroblastosis Fetalis occurs when? | When an Rh- mother and an Rh + father have a baby, which is Rh+. The mother starts making anti Rh+ aggultinins which causes fatality to the baby. |
| What's the term for a substance that combines specifically with an antigen? | Antibody |
| What's the term for a chemical that is introduced into the body, for which the body produces antibodies or T-cells against it? | Antigen |
| Are there macrophages in the blood? | No |
| The first line of defense in an inflammatory response is? | Macrophage |
| What are the two types of immunity? | Cellular and Humoral |
| T cells are a part of what type of immunity? | Cellular |
| B cells are a part of what type of immunity? | Humoral |
| Macrophages binds with antigen and presents it to the T-cell. This is an example of what kind of immunity? | Cellular |
| True or False: T - Cells can only recognize the antigen as presented by macrophage? | True |
| What are the 4 types of T-cells? | Cytotoxic (killer), Helper, Memory, and Suppressor |
| Which T-cells work with B-cells to amplify antibody production, and they release interleukin 2 to stimulate the proliferation of killer T cells | T helper cells |
| These T cells are programmed to recognize original invading agent for an accelerated response to second exposure? | T Memory cells |
| These T Cells will dampen the immune response, weeks after an infection. These inhibit killer T cells and antibody production. | Suppressor T cells |
| These T cells attach to invading cell and secrete lymphotoxins (kill antigen directly) | Cytotoxic (killer) T cells |
| What releases Lymphokinins? | Macro - Interleukin I; Cytotoxics - Interleukin II & Helper T cells - Interleukin II. |
| Where are B cells formed? | In the Bone Marrow |
| Where are B cells differentiated? | Spleen |
| The activated B cell enlarges and divides into what two cells? | Plasma Cell and Memory Cells |
| Which B cell secretes antibodies into circulation? | Plasma cells |
| Which B cell recognizes invading antigen and can respond rapidly and forcefully if it appears again in the future? | Memory B cells |
| Gamma Globulins is another name for what? | Immunoglobulins |
| Which Ig crosses the placenta? | IgG |
| Which Ig is the most abundant? | IgG |
| Which Ig provides protection on mucous membranes? | IgA |
| Which is the largest Ig? | IgM (M for Massive) |
| Which Ig is the first to appear after an initial exposure to antigen? | IgM |
| Which Ig stimulates antibody production? | IgD |
| Which Ig takes part in allergic reactions on mast and basophil cells? | IgE |
| A severe local inflammatory reaction on blood vessels is known as? | Arthus |
| What stimulates phagocytes? | Opsonin |
| The movement of leukocytes through blood vessel walls is known as? | Diapedesis |
| Your body making it's own antibodies - long term is known as what kind of immunity? | Active |
| Receiving antibodies from outside the self - short-term is known as what kind of immunity? | Passive |
| If you inject an antigen into a horse, then remove the blood and prepare a serum, then inject the antibodies into a human, what kind of immunity is that known as? | Artificially acquired passive immunity. |
| The right atrium and right ventricle is separated by what valve? | Tricuspid valve. |
| The left atrium and left ventricle is separated by what valve? | Bicuspid valve. |
| Which node is known as the pacemaker of the heart? | SA Node (Sinoatrial node) |
| What is the role of the SA Node | It initiates contractions |
| Where is the SA node located? | Right atrium |
| Which two nodes does the internodal pathway connect? | SA node and AV node |
| If the SA node is damaged, which node becomes the pacemaker? | AV node |
| The atrioventricular bundle is also known as? | Bundle of His |
| What does the Bundle of His do? | It causes conduction in the ventricles |
| The bundle of His terminates as what? | Purkinje Fibers |
| The fastest conduction in the heart occurs where? | Purkinje Fibers |
| Where does the Bundle of His begin? | At the AV node |
| What happens at the P-Wave | Atrial depolarization |
| Ventricular depolarization occurs where? | QRS Wave |
| Ventricular repolarization occurs where? | T wave |
| The phase of contraction is known as: systole? diastole? | Systole |
| The phase of relaxation is known as: systole? diastole? | Diastole |
| Atrial repolarization is masked by what? | the large QRS wave |
| The large QRS wave masking atrial repolarization is known as what notch? | Dicrotic Notch |
| What are the names of the AV valves? | Biscuspid and Tricuspid valve |
| Are the bi and tricuspid valves open or closed during ventricular systole? | Closed |
| What are the names of the semilunar valves? | Aortic and pulmonic valves |
| Are the aortic and pulmonic valves open or closed during ventricular systole? | Open |
| Ventricular systole can also be known as? | Aortic diastole |
| Fill in the blanks for the Sequence of Cardiac Cycle: _______ -> Isovolumetric contraction -> ejection period -> ________ -> ventricular filling -> ______. | Aortic systole Isovolumetric relaxation Aortic systole |
| The slowest conduction of the heart occurs at which node? | AV node |
| Contraction of which structures causes the S4 heart sound? | Contraction of the atria |
| During atriole systole which group of valves is open, and which is closed? | Semilunar valves are closed and AV valves are open |
| Only 30% of blood enters the ventricles during which phase? | Atrial systole |
| When does the pressure in the ventricles become greater than the pressure in the atria? | At the end of atrial systole |
| At the end of atrial systole which valves slam shut? | AV valves |
| When the AV valves shut at the end of atrial systole, what heart sound do they cause? | S1 heart sound |
| The S1 heart sound marks the beginning of what phase? | Ventricular systole |
| The beginning of ventricular systole is also known as? | Isovolumetric contraction |
| In Isovolumetric contraction are all the valves open or closed? | Closed |
| Which phase is characterized as a rise in ventricular pressure with no change in volume? | Isovolumetric contraction |
| The ejection period phase of ventricular systole begins with the opening of what valves? | Semilunar valves |
| Does the opening of the semilunar valves cause a sound? | No sound! |
| During ejection period what empties? | The ventricles empty into the systemic and pulmonic circulation |
| Where does the S2 heart sound take place? | Ejection period (at the end) |
| The S2 heart sound is made by what valves shutting? | Semilunar valves |
| The ejection period is marked by what pressure changes? | Ventricular pressure dropping and pulmonic and systemic pressure rising. |
| S2 heart sound marks the beginning of what phase? | Ventricular Diastole |
| Ventricular Diastole begins with what action of all valves? | All valves are closed |
| The opening of the AV valves marks the beginning of what phase? | Ventricular Diastole - Ventricular filling |
| During which phase, does 70% of the blood enter the ventricles? | Ventricular filling phase of Ventricular Diastole |
| Ventricular filling is characterized by what change in pressure? | Increased diastolic pressure |
| During the end of ventricular filling, the atria contract causing what heart sound? | S4 |
| What's the term used to describe the amount of blood pumped by either ventricle per minute? | Cardiac output |
| What's the term used to describe the amount of blood pumped by the ventricle with each systole/heartbeat? | Stroke volume |
| What's the term used to describe the number of heart beats per minute? | Heart rate |
| Complete the missing part of the equation: ___ = SV * ____ | CO = SV * HR |
| Stroke volume depends on what two factors? | End systolic volume and End diastolic volume |
| The amount of blood remaining in a ventricle following systole is known as? | End systolic volume |
| The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after diastole is known as? | End diastolic volume |
| A high end systolic volume causes what change in the stroke volume? | A low stroke volume |
| A high end diastolic volume causes what change in the stroke volume? | A high stroke volume |
| The greater the volume of blood entering the heart during diastole (EDV), the greater the volume of blood ejected during systolic contraction (SV) and vice-versa. This describes what law/mechanism? | The Frank-Starling Law (of the heart) or Frank - Starling mechanism. |
| What kind of receptors are the carotid sinus and aortic sinus? | Baroreceptors |
| What kind of receptors are the carotid body and aortic body? | Chemoreceptors |
| Baroreceptors, chemoreceptors and higher brain regions regulate what processes in the body? | Heart rate and blood vessel diameter |
| What are the 2 cardiovascular centers in the body? | Cardioacceleratory center & cardioinhibitory center |
| Which CV center gives rise to the sympathetic fibers, innervating the SA node? | Cardioacceleratory center |
| When stimulated, the Cardioacceleratory center releases what? | Norepinephrine |
| Release of norepinephrine causes what change in heart rate and contraction? | Increases heart rate and causes a greater strength of contraction |
| Which center increases cardiac output and blood pressure? | Cardioacceleratory center |
| Which nerve does the cardioinhibitory center give rise to? | Vagus nerve |
| Which fibers is the cardioinhibitory center responsible for? | parasympathetic |
| Which node does the cardioinhibitory center innervate? | SA node |
| When stimulated the cardioinhibitory center releases? | Acetylcholine |
| The cardioinhibitory center has what effect on heart rate, cardiac output and blood pressure? | It decreases all of them. |
| Under normal conditions, does the cardioinhibitory center or the cardioacceleratory center dominate? | Cardioacceleratory center. |
| Which reflex is concerned with maintaining normal blood pressure in the brain? | Carotid sinus reflex |
| Which reflex is concerned with maintaining general systemic blood pressure? | Aortic sinus reflex. |
| What happens to blood pressure when cardiac output is increased? | Blood pressure increases. |
| What's the term used to describe this: The pressure exerted by blood on the wall of any blood vessel | Blood Pressure |
| Which vessels have the greatest amount of pressure? | Arteries |
| Which vessels have the greatest resistance? | Arterioles |
| Arterioles are innervated by what? | Sympathetics |
| Which vessels carry blood away from the heart toward the organs? | Arteries |
| Which vessels have the greatest capacity to change diameter? | Arterioles |
| Which vessels have the greatest cross sectional area? | Capillaries |
| Which vessels permit the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the blood and tissue cells? | Capillaries |
| Which vessels carry blood to the heart? | Veins |
| Which vessels carry blood from the arteries to the capillaries? | Arterioles |
| Where are one-way valves found to prevent back flow? | In the extremities, via the veins. |
| Blood flow = change in pressure (direct)/ resistance (inverse). This describes what Law? | Ohms Law |
| What change in resistance will be found with a longer vessel length? | Increased resistance |
| What change in resistance will be found with smaller vessel diameter? | Increased resistance |
| What change in resistance will be found with increased viscosity? | Increased resistance |
| Which vessels determine resistance and why? | Arterioles because they have the greatest capacity for change in diameter. |
| The principal determinant of blood pressure is what? | Cardiac output |
| If cardiac output increases, what changes are made in blood pressure? | Increase in blood pressure |
| A decrease in blood volume causes what pressure changes? | Decrease in blood pressure |
| True of False: A high salt intake causes increased in blood pressure? | True because it increases blood volume. |
| The vasomotor center is located where? | In the medulla |
| What functions to control the diamter of blood vessels (specifically the arterioles)? | The vasomotor center |
| An increase in sympathetic impulses causes vasoconstriction or vasodilation of the arterioles? | Vasoconstriction |
| When blood pressure falls below what amount, do the sympathetics increase their stimulation to the arterioles resulting in vasoconstriction and a raise in blood pressure? | 80 mmHg. |
| Receptors sensitive to chemicals in the blood are known as? | Chemoreceptors |
| What is the most sensitive structure to low levels of oxygen? | Aortic Body |
| Chemoreceptors are strongly stimulated once blood pressure drops to what arterial pressure? | 80 mmHg |
| Fill in the Flow of Urine pathway: Collecting ducts -> Renal Papillae -> Papillary ducts -> ____ -> _____ -> renal pelvis -> _____ -> bladder -> urethra | Collecting ducts -> Renal Papillae -> Papillary ducts -> minor calyx -> major calyx -> renal pelvis -> ureter -> bladder -> urethra |
| What major structure functions to control blood concentration and volume (BP), help regulate blood pH, remove toxic wastes from blood and form urine (not urea)? | Kidney |
| The functional unit of the kidney is known as the ____? | Nephron |
| Each efferent arteriole of a nephron divides to form a network of capillaries called? | Peritubular capillaries |
| What structure do the peritubular capillaries surround? | The convoluted tubules |
| Tubular resorption, tubular secretion and concentration of urine are all functions of what structure? | Vasa Recta |
| What structure do the peritubular capillaries empty into once they reunite? | Into the interlobular veins |
| What are the 3 steps in urine formation? | Glomerular filtration, tubular resorption and tubular secretion. |
| In Glomerular filtration substances in the blood are filtered through the glomerular capillary membrane into which structure? | Bowman's Capsule |
| What does Glomerular Filtrate consist of? | All the materials in the blood except formed elements and most proteins |
| Why aren't there significant amounts of protein in the glomerular filtrate? | Because proteins can't pass through the basement membrane of the glomerulus |
| The average GFR (glomerular filtration rate) is ? | 125 ml/min or 180 liters per day |
| What is definition of GFR? | The amount of glomerular filtrate formed each minute in all nephrons |
| What 3 things determine GFR? | Glomerular capillary pressure, colloidal osmotic pressure and Bowman's Capsule pressure. |
| The pressure inside the glomerulus (GCP) is? | 60 mmHg |
| Is the GCP higher or lower than a normal capillary? | 2-3 times higher |
| This GCP pressure promotes the filtration of fluid from the glomerulus to where? | Bowman's Capsule |
| Afferent arteriole constriction calls for what change in GCP and GFR? | Decrease in both. |
| Efferent arteriole constriction causes what change in GCP and GFR? | Increase in both. |
| What two pressures (terms) oppose the glomerular pressure? And by what amount? | Colloidal osmotic pressure (32 mmHg) and Bowman's Capsule Pressure (18mmHg) |
| Protein in the blood causes what into the glomerular capillary network? | a Sucking pressure back into the glomerular capillary network. |
| Bowman's Capsule Pressure is known as what kind of pressure? | Hydrostatic Pressure. |
| A decrease in GCP (efferent arteriole dilation, afferent arteriole constriction), increased plasma colloidal pressure & increased bowman's capsule pressure all cause what change in GFR? | Decrease in GFR |
| Plasma clearance is the job of what organ? | Kidney |
| What substance has the lowest plasma clearance value? | Glucose |
| What substance is the slowest removed from the blood? | Glucose |
| The movement of filtrate back into the blood of the peritubular capillaries or vasa recta, describes what? | Tubular Resorption |
| What percent of filtrate is resorbed, allowing the body to retain most of it's nutrients? | 99% |
| Where are most of the active transport substances for tubular resorption reabsorbed? | The proximal convoluted tubule |
| Which tubule (proximal or distal) is permeable to water? | Proximal |
| The distal convoluted tubule is impermeable to water except in the presence of what substance? | ADH |
| Most of the passive water reabsorption occurs in what structure? | Proximal convoluted tubule does 66% |
| Serum refers to what substance? | Blood |
| High serum osmolarity means what change in H20 concentration in the blood? | Low H20 concentration in the blood |
| Is a high H20 concentration in the blood a diluted or concentrated solution? | Diluted solution |
| Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is also known as? | Vasopressin. |
| A dehydrated body causes what change in osmotic pressure? | An increase in osmotic pressure. |
| What receptors, and where, detect low water concentrations/high osmotic pressures? | Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus. |
| High osmotic pressure causes the synthesis of what product? | ADH |
| What does ADH do to the distal convoluted tubules and collecting duct? | It increases the permeability of both of them to water. |
| Does ADH cause and increase or decrease in urine volume? | Decrease |
| What is the main mineralcorticoid released from the Zona Glomerulosa of the Adrenal Cortex? | Aldosterone |
| What 3 factors stimulate the release of aldosterone? | Increased angiotension II in blood, increased potassium ion concentration, decreased sodium ion concentration. |
| What are the two main actions of Aldosterone? | Raise sodium ion concentration and reduce potassium ion concentration |
| The reabsorption of sodium causes the rentention of water which causes what changes? | It increases the blood volume which raises blood pressure. |
| What organ makes Angiotensinogen? | The Liver |
| What cells make Renin? | JG cells |
| The JG cells are located in which organ? | In the Kidney |
| Renin is released in response to what bodily changes? | Low blood volume or low blood pressure. |
| What changes angiotensinogen to angiotensin I? | Renin |
| Which organ does blood pass through to change angiotensin I to angiotensin II? | The lung |
| Which enzyme is responsible for the change of angiotensin I to angiotensin II? | ACE |
| What constricts the arterioles AND causes the Zona Glomerulosa to release aldosterone? | Angiotensin II |
| What increases water concentration in the blood stream? | Aldosterone |
| What increases the permeability of the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts to Na? | Aldosterone |
| Urine concentration depends on the concurrent mechanism where? | At the loop of Henle |
| The descending limb of the loop of henle is permeable and impermeable to what? | Permeable to water, impermeable to solutes like NaCl |
| At the loop of Henle, the osmolarity of the filtrate is what? | Equal to that of the medullary interstitium |
| The ascending limb is impermeable and permeable to what? | Impermeable to water, permeable to solutes like NaCl |
| Low pH and high hydrogen ion concentration describes what environment? | Acidic |
| A high pH and low hydrogen ion concentration describes what environment? | Basic |
| What are two major sources of hydrogen ions? | Aerobic respiration (Krebs cycle) & Anaerobic respiration (glycolysis) |
| What is the name of the acid that is made which ionizes to release hydrogen ions and bicarbonate ions? | Carbonic Acid (H2CO3) |
| How does glycolysis create an increase in hydrogen ion concentration? (What substance is produced to cause this?) | It produces lactic acid. |
| What 3 Mechanisms control the acid-base balance/pH of the body? | Buffer Systems, Respiration, Kidney. |
| What are the 3 buffer systems? | Bicarbonate Buffer, Phosphate buffer & protein buffer. |
| The buffer systems work to stabilize the pH between what ranges? | 7.35 and 7.45 |
| What is the buffer system in the urine? | Phosphate buffer. |
| What is the buffer system in the blood? | Bicarbonate buffer |
| When someone is hypoventilating, what is their pH? | More acidic. |
| Which mechanism can eliminate more acid or base than any other buffers combined? | Respiration |
| When someone is hyperventilating, what is their pH? | More basic. |
| How does the kidney control pH? | It secretes hydrogen into the urine & reabsorbs of bicarbonates into the blood stream. |
| Secretion of hydrogen ions from the Kidney mechanism occurs where? | At the proximal and distal convoluted tubules, and the collecting ducts. |
| Hydrogen ion released into the urine causes what to happen to the pH of the urine and blood? | It causes a drop in urine pH and increase in blood pH. |
| The normal urine pH is what? | 6.0 |
| Excess H+ must be excreted in combination with what? | Buffers. |
| What ion is released into the urine as a buffer? | Ammonium Ion Buffer (NH4+) |
| Is bicarbonate ion an acid or a base? | Base |
| What will reabsorption of bicarbonate ion into the blood do to the pH? | It will raise blood pH. |
| What is the range of normal blood pH? | 7.35 to 7.45 |
| What's the range of Acidosis? | 7.35 to 6.8 |
| What's the range of Alkalosis? | 7.45 to 8.0 |
| Hypoventilation (acidic) causes what change in CO2 concentration? | Increases CO2 levels |
| A patient has an injury to the respiratory center of the brain causing a decrease rate and depth of breathing, they might have pneumonia, emphysema, or an obstruction in their air passages. CO2 in body fluids increased. What term describes this? | Respiratory acidosis. |
| Hyperventilation along with excessive loss of CO2 is termed? | Respiratory alkalosis. |
| Severe anxiety, aspirin overdose and oxygen deficiency due to high altitude can cause what? | Respiratory alkalosis. |
| Breathing into a bag helps which respiratory condition? | Respiratory alkalosis. |
| An abnormal increase in acidic metabolic products or an abnormal loss of bicarbonate ion, is termed what? | Metabolic acidosis. |
| Kidney failure and diabetes mellitus are examples of what? | Metabolic acidosis |
| Examples that can cause an abnormal loss of bicarbonate ions are what? | Prolonged diarrhea or prolonged vomiting. |
| Non respiratory loss of acids by the body causes what? | Metabolic alkalosis |
| Excessive vomiting of gastric juices or an excessive intake of alkaline drugs cause what? | Metabolic alkalosis. |
| Nervousness, muscle spasms and convulsions due to excessive intake of alkaline drugs can cause what? | Metabolic alkalosis. |
| Chemical buffers, and increase rate and depth of breathing and increased secretion of H+ ions into the urine are compensations for what? | Acidosis |
| Chemical buffers, decrease rate and depth of breathing and decrease secretion of H+ ions into the urine and decrease reabsorption of HCO3- are compensations for what? | Alkalosis. |
| Til which structure does the Trachea extend to? | The Carina |
| What keeps the trachea from collapsing on itself? | 16-20 incomplete rings of cartilage. |
| The C rings of the trachea are open to face where? | Posteriorly |
| What is the last of the tracheal cartilage, this also is the point which separates the openings of the left and right main bronchi. | Carina. |
| Which primary bronchi is shorter, wider and more vertical? | The right |
| How many secondary or lobar bronchi are on the right and on the left respectively? | 3 on the right and 2 on the left. |
| How many tertiary/bronchioles are on the right and on the left? | 10 on the right and 8 on the left |
| The Bronchioles supply sectors of the lung known as? | Bronchopulmonary Segments |
| Bronchioles eventually terminate as what structure? | Aveolar Ducts |
| The ducts terminate into what structure? | Aveolar Sacs |
| The functional unit of the lung is known as what? | Alveoli |
| What are the two parts of the pleura named? | Parietal layer and the visceral layer |
| Which layer of viscera is attached to the thoracic wall (and lines it)? | Parietal layer |
| Which visceral layer covers the outer surface of the lung? | The visceral layer |
| What's the name of the potential space between the parietal and visceral pleural layers? | Pleural cavity. |
| The pressure of gas in the lungs is inversely proportional to the volume of the lungs. This describes which law? | Boyles Law |
| When the pressure in the lungs is less than the air pressure in the atmosphere, what action takes place in the lung? | Inpsiration |
| When the pressure in the lungs is greater than the atmospheric pressure, what happens in the lung? | Expiration |
| Muscles of inspiration contract increasing lung volume, while decreasing lung pressure. This causes what of the lungs? | Expansion |
| A sheet of skeletal muscle that forms the floor of the thoracic cavity, is known as what? | The diaphragm |
| The flattening of what structure causes an increase in vertical diameter of the thoracic cavity? | The diaphragm |
| Contraction of what muscles causes the ribs to be pulled upward and the sternum pushed forward? | External intercostal muscles |
| Contraction of what muscles causes an increase in anterior-posterior diameter of the thoracic cavity? | External intercostal muscles |
| What muscles (collective name) contract during forced inspiration? | Accessory inspiratory muscles |
| What muscle elevates the sternum? | Sternocleidomastoid |
| What muscles elevates the superior ribs? | Scalenes |
| Is inspiration an active or passive process and why? | It is an active process because it is initiated by muscle contraction. |
| The pressure inside the lungs is known as? | Intraalveolar pressure |
| The pressure between the two pleural layers is known as? | Intrapleural pressure |
| Is the intrapleural pressure always higher or lower than the atmospheric pressure? | lower |
| The difference between intrapulmonic pressure and intrapleural pressure is termed what? | Transpulmonic pressure |
| When is transpulmonic pressure the greatest? | At the end of inspiration. |
| Is expiration a passive or active process? | Normal expiration is a passive process. |
| As the external intercostal muscles relax, where do the ribs move? | Down |
| As the diaphragm relaxes, where do the ribs move? | Up |
| Which muscles contract during higher levels of ventilation and when air movement out of the lungs is impeded? | Muscles of expiration |
| Which muscles move the ribs downward? | The internal intercostal muscles |
| Which muscles move the inferior ribs down, compress the abdominal viscera forcing the diaphragm upward? | The abdominal muscles |
| What is the term used to describe a collapsed lung? | Atelectasis |
| What are two things that prevent atelectasis? | Maintenance of a subatmospheric intrapleural pressure keeping the alveoli inflated & surfactant. |
| What cells produce surfactant? | Type II alveolar cells |
| What's another name for Type II alveolar cells? | Pneumocyte Type II |
| What product decreases the surface tension in lungs, preventing the alveoli from sticking together following expiration? | Surfactant |
| The ease with which the lungs and thoracic wall can be expanded is termed what? | Compliance |
| The volume of air which moves through the respiratory passages with each normal breath is termed what? | Tidal volume |
| What is the value of normal tidal volume? | 500 ml |
| How much of the tidal volume remains as dead air volume in the nose, pharynx, trachea and bronchi? | 150 ml |
| What is Inspiratory Reserve Volume? | The extra volume of air inspired beyond the tidal volume. |
| What's the normal value of IRV? | 3000 ml |
| What is Expiratory Reserve Volume? | The air expired by forceful expiration, beyond tidal volume. |
| What's the normal volume of ERV? | 1100 to 1200 ml |
| The volume of air still remaining in the lungs after forceful expiration is known as? | Residual volume |
| The residual volume is equal to what amount? | 1200 ml |
| Tidal volume + Inspiratory Reserve Volume is known as what term? | Inspiratory Capacity |
| The normal Inspiratory Capacity value is what? | 3500 ml |
| The amount of air a person can breath beginning at the normal expiratory level and distending the lungs to the maximum amount is known as what? | Inspiratory capacity |
| Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume is known as what combined term? | Functional residual capacity |
| Normal volume of Functional residual capacity is? | 2300 ml |
| Inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume is termed what? | Vital capacity |
| What's the normal value for vital capacity? | 4600 ml |
| What's the term for maximum amount of air that a person can expel after first filling the lungs to their maximum extent and then expiring to the maximum extent? | Vital Capacity |
| Vital Capacity + Residual volume is termed what? | Total Lung Capacity |
| The volume of total lung capacity is what? | 5800 ml |
| The maximum volume to which the lungs can be expanded with the greatest possible inspiratory effect is termed what? | Total lung capacity |
| True or False, all pulmonary volumes and capacities are 20-25% less in women than men? | True |
| What's the term for the gas within a mixture of gases exerts it's own pressure? | Partial pressure |
| What's the term for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and lungs? | External Respiration |
| ______ diffuses 20X as rapidly as ______. | Carbon dioxide diffuses 20X as rapidly as oxygen. |
| 97% of what is transported in the blood in combination with hemoglobin? | Oxygen |
| 70% of carbon dioxide is carried as what? | Bicarbonate ion |
| What enzyme is required to have carbon dioxide carried as bicarbonate ion? | Carbonic Anhydrase. |
| The binding of oxygen to hemoglobin tends to displace CO2 from the blood, this is termed what? | Haldane Effect |
| What's necessary for CO2 transport as bicarbonate ion? | Chloride shift. |
| Groups of neurons located in the medulla and the pons that control respiration are known as what? | The respiratory center |
| What controls the basic rhythm of breathing? | Medullary rhythmicity area |
| What area sends inhibitory impulses to the inspiratory area, it limits inspiration to facilitate expiration? | The pneumotaxic area. |
| What area sends stimulatory signals to the inspiratory area inhibiting expiration? | Apneustic Area |
| When the pneumotaxic area is inactive what area takes over? | The apneustic area |
| What's another name for the inflation reflex? | The Hering Breuer Reflex |
| Stretch receptors are located in the walls of the Bronchi and Bronchioles, when stimulated they send inhibitory impulses via the vagus nerve to the inspiratory area & apneustic area. This is called? | The inflation reflex. |
| The result of the Hering Breuer reflex is what? | Expiration |
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