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LEUKEMIA/LYMPHOMAS

MLT 126: HEMATOLOGY AND COAGULATION - EXAM #5

QuestionAnswer
What is the general definition of a leukemia? an overproduction of immature or mature, myelocytic or lymphocytic WBCs, which causes anemia and thrombocytopenia
Define a lymphoma malignant lymph node-centric tumor that can also affect certain WBCs (lymphocytes) in the bone marrow
What is the main difference between acute leukemia and chronic leukemia? acute=excess in immature WBCs with elevated leukocytosis chronic=excess in mature WBCs with varying total WBC range
Describe what causes Leukemia gene translocation and certain alterations in gene expression can cause the development of one or more malignant, hematopoietic stem cells. this results in abnormal cell formation
Why is WHO Leukemia classification utilized more in the modern age? takes into account sign and symptoms alongside cytogenetic, immunophenotypical markers, cytochemical staining, and cell morphology, which shorten the time it takes to classify a leukemia
If there are greater than or equal to 20% blasts, acute myelogenous leukemia is then diagnosed, according to what system? Why is that? WHO classification; we conduct more testing to shorten the amount of time it takes to diagnose leukemia
If there are greater than or equal to 30% blasts, acute myelogenous leukemia is then diagnosed, according to what system? FAB system
Correct this statement: If someone (is lacking/has an excess amount of) tumor suppressor genes, this will negate cell proliferation and allow the tumor to grow is lacking
True or false: Lymphoma is the leading cause of death in 1-19yr olds false; Leukemias
What are the two criteria FAB uses to diagnose a Leukemia? cellular morphology, cytochemical stain reactions
Which stains are used to differentiate ALL from AML? Sudan Black B, Myeloperoxidase, Periodic Acid-Schiff, Specific and Non-Specific Esterase
Describe the principle of Sudan Black B stain. What results does it yield? its a lipophilic dye that binds irreversibly to granulocytes. Myeloblasts=strong positive, Monocytes vary, Lymphoid cells=negative
Which stain detects enzymes from in primitive myelo/monoblasts? How does it work? Myeloperoxidase; benzidine oxidizes and forms a stable black color in the presence of hydrogen peroxide
What are the results of the Myeloperoxidase stain? Myeloblasts=strong positive, Monocytes weak positive, Lymphoblasts cells=negative
What is the principle of the Periodic Acid-Schiff (PAS) stain? PAS produces aldehydes due to the oxidation of glycogen, carbs and mucoproteins by periodic acid
Which stain would produce dark red granulation of lymphoblasts (positive), leaving the myeloblasts negative and monoblasts a weak positive? PAS stain
What is the principle of the Esterase stains? Diazo salt formations induce color changes. Specific=black for positives Non-Specific=red for positives
Non-Specific Esterase stain differentiates between (blank) and (blank). What are the results? Myeloblasts/Monoblasts; positive=monoblasts, negative=myeloblasts
Which stain is used to separate monocytic from granulocytic precursors? Specific Esterase
Which stain uses overproduction of isoenzyme 5 to differentiate T-lymphocytic to B-lymphocytic leukemia? Acid phosphate; pos=T-cell (hairy cells)
What is the principle of the TdT stain, and what are the possible results? relies on anti-TdT to bind to immature B-cell/T-cell markers and produces color changes based on the cell. pos=immature lymphocytes, neg=myeloid cells
Define Immunophenotyping antigen-antibody reaction analysis to identify cells based on the antigenic markers it presents via flow cytometry organization
What are the CD markers for Myeloblasts. Which other blast series shares these same markers? CD13, CD15, CD33, CD117; monoblasts
CD117 is shared between which cell types myeloblasts, monoblasts, lymphoblasts
CD56 and CD16 are marker for NK lymphocytes
CD4 and CD8 are markers for helper and suppressor T-cells
CD42b, CD61, CD31, and Factor VIII are all marker for Megakaryoblastic cells
CD2, CD3, CD5, CD7 are all markers for T-cells
What are the CD markers for B-cells CD10, CD19, CD20, CD22
Antiglycoprotein is a marker for RBCs
Define Acute Leukemia a sudden onset disease that causes an overproduction of immature, non-functional cells in the bone marrow
True or false: The hallmark findings of Acute Leukemia include 20-90% blast cells and a hypocellular bone marrow that blocks capillaries false; hypercellular bone marrow
In Acute Leukemia, RBC count and PLTS would be (blank), with the later contributing to infectious susceptibility decreased (excess bleeding, anemia)
What defines Acute Myelogenous Leukemia? due to a gene transcription error, the bone marrow continues to make blast cells, but they only develop up to a certain point.
What laboratory criteria is needed to diagnose AML? between sever leukopenia and severe leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia, anemia, macrocytosis WHO=20%< blasts, FAB=30%<blasts
Which AML is defined by the presence of non-descript blasts that are lacking the granules for proper staining, but contain CD13 and CD33 markers FAB M0/AML Minimally Differentiated
Describe FAB M1 otherwise known as AML Without Differentiation, this occurs in kids younger than 18months where the majority of their cells are myeloblasts do not mature further
Which AML is known to cause gingival bleeding and petechiae in middle age people, and has blast cells that show proof of maturation? AML with Maturation/FAB M2
Describe FAB M3 Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia is an AML variant that causes abnormal promyelocytes (can be hyper- or hypo-granular). causes non-specific symptoms like hematuria, petechiae, and fatigue
Which common AML has an increase 20%< of both myelocytic and monocytic precursors? FAB M4/Acute Myelomonocytic anemia
Which subclass of FAB M5 is made up of mainly monoblasts? FAB M5a (Acute Monoblastic Leukemia)
True or false: FAB M5 has an increase monocytic cells and decrease in granulocytic cells true
Which FAB classification has a predominance of erythroid cells? FAB M6 (Acute/Pure Erythroid Leukemia)
CD41, CD61, and CD42 are markers often found in FAB M7, otherwise known as Acute Megakaryoblastic Leukemia
Which AML with CD13 and CD33 markers usually comes up as negative for cytochemical staining? Acute Basophilic Leukemia
What defines Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia? overproduction of mature lymphoid cells in the bone marrow due to a gene mutation, meaning that they do not mature and do not die; primarily affects 3-5yr olds
The inequal production of cells in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia can cause (blank) thrombocytopenia, neutropenia, and bone pain
A positive PAS stain and positive TdT, alongside CD19, CD20, CD2, and CD5 would diagnoses Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
Which Lymphoblastic FAB division is common in children, known for its scant cytoplasm and a majority committed B-cell lymphoblastic population? FAB L2 (Precursor B-cell Leukemia)
Describe Burkitt Type FAB L3 the leukemic phase of Burkitt's Lymphoma, categorized by large lymphoblasts having basophilic cytoplasm with vacuoles
Which ALL condition has an increase in T-cell committed lymphoblasts? Precursor T-cell Leukemia (FAB L1)
What general leukemia term is categorized based on an overproduction of mature lymphocytes Chronic Leukemia
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia is often a B-cell disease. What makes CLL so dangerous for patients? they will often die of infection due to a disturbed antibody production
Define Chronic Monocytic Leukemia a condition affecting middle age people where there is an increase in large mature monocytes with irregular nuclei and cytoplasmic pseudopods
Which class of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia involves the bone marrow and blood lymphocytosis? Stage 0
What would Stage 1 of CLL consist of? Lymphocytosis with large lymph nodes
What are the general lab results for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia 30-200x10^9/L, majority mature small lymphs, T-cells with cleft or clover shaped nuclei, visible nucleoli, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, anemia
What CD markers would be found in T-cell CLL CD2, CD3, CD8
What CD markers would be found in B-cell CLL CD5, CD22, CD24
Describe Prolymphocytic Leukemia and its corresponding lab results B-cell disease with extreme lymphocytosis (over 350,000mm3) with a majority of them being prolymphocytes. contains CD19, CD20, CD22, CD24
Which CLL common in males is known for having an excess of B-cell that have phagocytic abilities? Which marker is used to definitively confirm its diagnosis Hairy Cell Leukemia; CD25
Define a neoplasma single clone of a cell that massively proliferates B-cells
Describe Multiple Myeloma the hyperproliferation of one type of immunoglobulin (IgG), causing increase catabolism of normal immunoglobulins, the later represented in the eventual renal insufficiency due to damaged glomerular filtration
What can cause Multiple Myeloma genetics or exposure to radiation, pesticides, chemicals, etc., resulting in the activation of osteoclasts that then cause nerve pain. relative lymphocytosis, anemia, and RBC rouleaux is seen
What protein is often found in the urine lab results for Multiple Myeloma Bence Jones protein
Describe Burkitt Type FAB L3 the leukemic phase of Burkitt's Lymphoma, categorized by large lymphoblasts having basophilic cytoplasm with vacuoles
Which ALL condition has an increase in T-cell committed lymphoblasts? Precursor T-cell Leukemia (FAB L1)
What general leukemia term is categorized based on an overproduction of mature lymphocytes Chronic Leukemia
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia is often a B-cell disease. What makes CLL so dangerous for patients? they will often die of infection due to a disturbed antibody production
Define Chronic Monocytic Leukemia a condition affecting middle age people where there is an increase in large mature monocytes with irregular nuclei and cytoplasmic pseudopods
Which class of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia involves the bone marrow and blood lymphocytosis? Stage 0
What would Stage 1 of CLL consist of? Lymphocytosis with large lymph nodes
What are the general lab results for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia 30-200x10^9/L, majority mature small lymphs, T-cells with cleft or clover shaped nuclei, visible nucleoli, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, anemia
What CD markers would be found in T-cell CLL CD2, CD3, CD8
What CD markers would be found in B-cell CLL CD5, CD22, CD24
Describe Prolymphocytic Leukemia and its corresponding lab results B-cell disease with extreme lymphocytosis (over 350,000mm3) with a majority of them being prolymphocytes. contains CD19, CD20, CD22, CD24
Which CLL common in males is known for having an excess of B-cell that have phagocytic abilities? Which marker is used to definitively confirm its diagnosis Hairy Cell Leukemia; CD25
Define a neoplasma single clone of a cell that massively proliferates B-cells
Describe Multiple Myeloma the hyperproliferation of one type of immunoglobulin (IgG), causing increase catabolism of normal immunoglobulins, the later represented in the eventual renal insufficiency due to damaged glomerular filtration
What can cause Multiple Myeloma genetics or exposure to radiation, pesticides, chemicals, etc., resulting in the activation of osteoclasts that then cause nerve pain. relative lymphocytosis, anemia, and RBC rouleaux is seen
What protein is often found in the urine lab results for Multiple Myeloma Bence Jones protein
Describe Burkitt Type FAB L3 the leukemic phase of Burkitt's Lymphoma, categorized by large lymphoblasts having basophilic cytoplasm with vacuoles
Which ALL condition has an increase in T-cell committed lymphoblasts? Precursor T-cell Leukemia (FAB L1)
What general leukemia term is categorized based on an overproduction of mature lymphocytes Chronic Leukemia
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia is often a B-cell disease. What makes CLL so dangerous for patients? they will often die of infection due to a disturbed antibody production
Define Chronic Monocytic Leukemia a condition affecting middle age people where there is an increase in large mature monocytes with irregular nuclei and cytoplasmic pseudopods
Which class of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia involves the bone marrow and blood lymphocytosis? Stage 0
What would Stage 1 of CLL consist of? Lymphocytosis with large lymph nodes
What are the general lab results for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia 30-200x10^9/L, majority mature small lymphs, T-cells with cleft or clover shaped nuclei, visible nucleoli, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, anemia
What CD markers would be found in T-cell CLL CD2, CD3, CD8
What CD markers would be found in B-cell CLL CD5, CD22, CD24
Describe Prolymphocytic Leukemia and its corresponding lab results B-cell disease with extreme lymphocytosis (over 350,000mm3) with a majority of them being prolymphocytes. contains CD19, CD20, CD22, CD24
Which CLL common in males is known for having an excess of B-cell that have phagocytic abilities? Which marker is used to definitively confirm its diagnosis Hairy Cell Leukemia; CD25
Define a neoplasma single clone of a cell that massively proliferates B-cells
Describe Multiple Myeloma the incurable, hyperproliferation of one type of immunoglobulin (IgG), causing increase catabolism of normal immunoglobulins, the later represented in the eventual renal insufficiency due to damaged glomerular filtration
What can cause Multiple Myeloma genetics or exposure to radiation, pesticides, chemicals, etc., resulting in the activation of osteoclasts that then cause nerve pain. relative lymphocytosis, anemia, and RBC rouleaux is seen
What protein is often found in the urine lab results for Multiple Myeloma Bence Jones protein
Describe Waldenstrom's Primary Macroglobuinemia plasma cell proliferation disorder that causes an excess in IgM production that impairs platelet function due to coating
True or false: Waldenstrom's and Multiple Myeloma both cause bone pain false; only Multiple Myeloma due to osteoclast activation
What are the lab results for Waldenstrom's Primary Macroglobuinemia chronic anemia and bleeding, mature lymphocytes and plasma cells in blood, absolute lymphocytosis with normal total leukocyte count, decreased PLTS, rouleux, cryoglobulins (protein precipitants that dissolve in heat)
Define Lymphomas and what differentiates them from Leukemia lymphoma=proliferation of one or more cells that destroys the nodes' structure (hodgkins vs non-hodgkins) leukemia=overproduction of one cell type (immature or mature)
What viral infections may lead to a Lymphoma? H. pylori, EBV, HIV
What clinical signs are considered to be hallmarks of Hodgkin's Lymphoma? firm-to-touch lymph nodes, low grade fever, weight loss
What occurs in the later stage of Hodgkin's lymphoma? lymphocytes, monocytes, and other WBCs cells begin to infiltrate the lymph nodes. reed-sternberg cells appear
Which is the most common type of Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
What affects can Diffuse Large B-cell Lymphoma have on a patient's lab results? large B-cells that have CD10 markers,
Which Epstein-Barr Virus-related lymphoma cause sporadic, high proliferation of lymphocytes that have basophilic, vacuolated cytoplasm Burkitt's lymphoma
Describe Sezary Syndrome/Mycosis fungoides` T-cell mutation that causes them migrate to the skin, causing excessive sagging. in a PBS, T-cells tend to have cerebriform-like nucleus with clumped chromatin. is CD2, CD3, CD4, and CD5 positive
Created by: innazukaa
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