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EXAM I
MLT 124:MEDICAL MICRO PT 1
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Describe a "Reservoir" | the place of origin of an infecting agent |
| How is a mosquito a form of vector? | it brings a microbe from the original reservoir to the susceptible host |
| Commensalism occurs when | one organism benefits, but it has no net effect on the host |
| Improper sterilization of medical devices is representative of (blank) transmission | indirect/fomite-transmission from human reservoir |
| Zoonosis can be defined as | human diseases that are transmitted via animal reservoirs, whether they be through water supply or animal bites/consumption |
| Define "Transient flora" | when normal flora are present temporarily in a site, but don't multiply |
| Why is normal flora helpful for the human body? | it supplies nutrients and protects us through pathogens |
| Why is mucus an effective barrier against pathogens? | cilia activity |
| What are the main host responses against pathogenic colonization? | skin, mucous membrane/mucus, inflammation via complement system, antibody production, phagocytosis |
| Define a True Pathogen | an organism that cause infection or disease, no matter the health status of the individual |
| What differentiates a disease from an infection? | Disease causes damage to bodily organs, to the point that it changes human physiology |
| What is virulence associated with, and what are some examples of contributors to virulence? | severe damage to the host; enzymes and toxins released by a pathogen |
| What is increase pathogenicity associated with? | likelihood to cause disease |
| What type of toxin is typically released upon lysis of the cell? | exotoxins |
| Endotoxins are released by (blank) and produce serious effects on the host | gram negative organisms |
| True or false: Microbial toxins can increase pathogenicity or virulence | true |
| How can normal flora become opportunistic pathogens? | when one or more of the body's defenses are not working properly (eg. habitat damage, weakened immune system, iatrogenic infection) |
| Describe a superinfection | it is when normal flora is disrupted, which then causes disease (eg. antibiotic treatment that eradicates normal flora to destroy a pathogen) |
| In Antibiotic-Associated Superinfections, why are these pathogens considered opportunistic? | normal flora typically keep these organisms at bay; they come in-contact with us without causing disease |
| MacConkey agar is selective for | Gram negative bacteria |
| What are the Roles of a Microbiologist? | help the patient and the healthcare facility |
| Microbiologists assist pharmacies and physicians via | coordinate antimicrobial agents from their selection to analyze susceptibility and resistance |
| Differentiate sterilization from disinfection | Sterilization=kills all microbial life + spores Disinfection=kills pathogenic organisms, just not all organisms or spores (primarily minimizes organism population) |
| What do Biosafety Cabinets protect workers from? | Aerosol exposure and infectious disease agents |
| Examples of sterilization used with Biological Safety Hoods include | heat, UV light, and passage through HEPA filter |
| What class of Biosafety Cabinets filters incoming air and sterilizes exhausted air? | Class II |
| True or false: Class I Biosafety Cabinets only sterilize incoming air | false |
| True or false: All Biosafety Cabinet classes have HEPA-filters to protect biological against workspace air | false (it protects the environment and workers, but unfiltered room air still circulates in Class I workplace) |
| What is the most common Biosafety Level of the majority of labs? | BSL-2 |
| What is the most common Biosafety Cabinet Level? | Class II |
| What organization(s) document the classifications of biological agents? | CDC/NIH |
| Describe Koch's postulates | Select a microorganism that comes up the most in a certain organism. Isolate the microorganism and let it grow on a plate. Prove that this microbe can cause disease in a new, healthy organism. Isolate the same microbe from that newly dead organism |
| Why is it important to isolate the microbe after injecting it into a healthy specimen and inoculating it? | So you can prove the microbe is identical to the initial one that causes disease |
| Examples of disinfection | UV light, filtration, sedimentation |
| Examples of sterilization | autoclave, dry or moist heat, radiation, sterile filtration |
| What is the purpose of the Bergey's Manual? | utilize up-to-date naming system for the differen genotype and phenotype expressions of microorganisms |
| What is Nomenclature | the universal, binomial system that assigns a genus and species to each organism |
| Define Taxonomy | classification and grouping of organism into categories, based on genotype and phenotype similarities |
| What is the difference between Genus and Species | Genus=different species that contain important common features (genotypical and phenotypical) Species= genetic, phenotypical, and physiologic characteristics |
| What is the ideal environment for biochemical reactions in prokaryotic cells? | Cytoplasm |
| Describe plasmids and their role in antibiotic resistance | they operate as mini chromosomes that exist independently and transfers genetic material via pili/a pilus (conjugation - protein bridge) or division. it allows them to pass along genes to preserve antibiotic resistance |
| What is the murein layer? | rigid cell wall that preserves cell life and is a primary target for antimicrobial development (particularly in gram positive microbes) |
| What is the initial barrier found in Gram negative bacteria. What can happen if it gets ruptured? | LPS outer membrane; it can release endospores that cause disease |
| What portion of a Gram positive bacteria is often targeted by antibiotics? | their thick murein layer |
| What are the two layers within the Gram negative cell wall? | thin murein layer and lipopolysaccharide layer (LPS) |
| Describe Capsules | they are coverings that increase virulence of an organism due to its adhesiveness |
| What cellular appendage makes bacteria motile? | flagella |
| What cellular appendage mediates non-motile, conjugation? | pili |
| What cellular appendage allows adherence between one bacteria to another/to environmental surfaces? | fimbriae |
| Define binary fission and its relation to generation time | binary fission is the bacterial replication with one cell dividing into two daughter cells; generation time describes how long it takes for binary fission to occur |
| Describe the Growth Curve phases | Lag=prep time to divide, individual cell size increase Log=binary fission occurs (max bacteria cell population) Stationary phase=plateau is dependent on nutrient resource + organism type Death phase=nonviable>viable cells |
| Define genotype of a cell | genetic potential of the DNA of the organism |
| Describe Transformation | the uptake and incorporation of naked DNA fragments into the bacterial genome via recombination to produce new proteins |
| Describe Transduction | when a bacteriophage initially injects and destroys host DNA, then it creates a new defective (diet) phage that lysis the OG cell, allowing the diet phage to infect a new host, injecting the recombined DNA |
| Why is Genetic Recombination important for antibiotic resistance? | it allows bacteria to accept new genetic material that will allow it to resist antibiotic presence (via mutation) |
| Define "Fastidious" bacteria and what effect it has on specimen collection | fastidious bacteria require specific cultivation. this is why it is important for them to transported within 2 hours because fastidious bacteria are sensitive to temp changes and drying out |
| What is Bartlett's classification? Describe what it does. | it measures the number of neutrophils and epithelial cells per low-power field to distinguish sputum from saliva. more epithelial cells=scores of 0 or less (likely saliva), and more neutrophils=score of 1 or more (likely sputum) |
| Name some examples of Direct Contact modes of disease transmission, specifically human-to-human | bodily fluids, airborne (droplets, aerosols), skin-to-skin |
| Name some examples of Indirect Contact modes of disease transmission, specifically human-to-human | fomites (doorknobs), medical devices (needles) |
| Name some examples of Direct Contact modes of disease transmission, specifically animal-to-human | bite mark, scratch, undercooked/uncooked meats |
| Name some examples of Indirect Contact modes of disease transmission, specifically animal-to-human | feces/litterbox, vector, water runoff |
| Describe some of the ways that skin is a physical and chemical protective barrier | - skin is cool and dry, making it an unfavorable environment (when intact). it also sheds its cells, prevent in adhesion - glands are released with compound toxins that damage microbes - cells are packed tight, making an impenetrable force |
| Although normal flora is generally beneficial for humans, what are some areas in the body that should NOT have bacteria in them? | CSF, heart valves, blood, urine |
| Describe the Innate immune response | It is a non-specific approach to removing cells not viewed as part of self. Phagocytes engulf bacteria, and inflammatory response triggers a complement system to increase blood flow to injury site and enhance phagocytic activity |
| Describe adaptive immunity | Antigenic/foreign presence stimulates the formation of antibodies via lymphocyte mediation |
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