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Regilyn Balliao

Physiology weeks 7-13

Stimulation of gastric juice secretion occurs in all of the following phases except the _____ phase. cephalic digestive gastric intestinal digestive
Peristalsis is regulated in part by the intrinsic stretch reflexes. It is also thought to be stimulated by the hormone cholecystokinin (CCK)
Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by hydrochloric acid, which is produced by the _____ of the gastric glands. parietal cells
The hormone that inhibits gastric muscle, slowing passage of food into the duodenum, is called: gastric inhibitory peptide.
The hormone thought to be a messenger causing release of digestive enzymes from the intestinal mucosa is: vasoactive intestinal peptide.
Which phase(s) of gastric secretion is(are) stimulated by the sight, taste, and smell of food? Cephalic phase
Bicarbonates are useful in the GI tract to: neutralize hydrochloric acid.
Hydrolysis refers to: using water to split larger compounds into smaller ones.
Cellulose is a residue of digestion that comes from: carbohydrates.
Which of the following is a disaccharide? Sucrose
Which blood vessel carries absorbed food from the GI tract to the liver? Portal vein
The process of fat emulsification consists of: breaking fats into small droplets.
Glucose moves from the GI tract into the circulatory system by the process of: cotransport.
The enterogastric reflex causes: inhibition of gastric peristalsis.
The enzyme pepsin begins the digestion of: protein.
Which of the processes of mechanical digestion involves the esophagus? A. Deglutition B. Peristalsis C. Churning Both A and B Both A and B
When classified according to the kind of chemical reactions catalyzed, digestive enzymes are referred to as _____ enzymes. hydrolyzing
Which term refers to the volume of inspired air that actually reaches, or “ventilates,” the alveoli? alveolar ventilation
Which structural feature facilitates oxygen diffusion from the alveolar air into the blood in lung capillaries? The alveolar and capillary walls are both very thin. The alveolar and capillary surfaces are both extremely large. The lung capillaries accommodate a large amount of blood at one time. Each red blood cell comes close to alveolar air.
Oxygen enters blood from alveolar air because the partial pressure of alveolar air is greater than the partial pressure of incoming blood.
During inspiration, as the size of the thorax increases, the intrapleural and alveolar pressures decrease.
Which oxygen-binding protein helps move oxygen out of the blood and into muscle cells? myoglobin
More than two-thirds of the carbon dioxide carried by blood is carried in the form of bicarbonate ions.
The compound formed when carbon dioxide combines with hemoglobin is carbaminohemoglobin.
When carbon dioxide dissolves in water, some of the carbon dioxide molecules associate with water to form carbonic acid.
The sensors that provide feedback information to the medullary rhythmicity area are the central chemoreceptors and peripheral chemoreceptors.
Pressure gradients are established by changes in the thoracic cavity.
The volume of air exhaled normally after a typical inspiration is called _____ volume. tidal
During the respiratory cycle, intrapleural pressure is always less than alveolar pressure. This difference is called transpulmonary pressure.
What variations exist in the body to temporarily store or carry oxygen? neuroglobin myoglobin fetal hemoglobin
An obstructive lung disorder that is characterized by recurring spasms of the smooth muscles in the wall of the bronchial air passages is asthma.
The mechanism that produces pulmonary ventilation is one that establishes a gas pressure gradient between the atmosphere and the alveolar air.
An increase in carbon dioxide in the blood causes a drop in pH in the blood.
____ law states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure. Boyle’s
A right shift of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve due to increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide is also known as the Bohr effect.
The ability of the lungs and thorax to stretch is referred to as compliance.
The exact amount of oxygen in blood depends mainly on the amount of hemoglobin.
The _____ represents the largest volume of air an individual can move in and out of the lungs. vital capacity
The forced expiratory volume test can determine the presence of respiratory obstruction by measuring the volume of air expired per second during forced expiration.
The exit of the bicarbonate ion from the red blood cell is balanced by the inward transport of another negative ion, chloride. This countertransport of negative ions is often called the _____ shift. chloride
The basic rhythm of the respiratory cycle of inspiration and expiration seems to be generated by the medullary rhythmicity area.
Spirometry is used to measure all of the following EXCEPT: Expiratory Reserve Volume Tidal volume Inspiratory capacity Total lung capacity Total lung capacity
The amount of oxygen that diffuses into blood each minute depends on which factor? oxygen pressure gradient between alveolar air and incoming pulmonary blood total functional surface area of the respiratory membrane respiratory minute volume alveolar ventilation
According to the law of partial pressures, the partial pressure of gas in a mixture of gases is directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and to the total pressure of the mixture.
In what form does oxygen travel in the blood? dissolved oxygen in the plasma associated with hemoglobin
The PCO2 in alveolar air is _____ blood. less than in the systemic venous equal to the systemic arterial
When the pressure in the lung is greater than atmospheric pressure: expiration occurs.
The function of the vibrissae in the vestibule is to: provide an initial “filter” to screen particulate matter from air that is entering the system.
Which of the following constitutes total lung volume? Residual volume and vital capacity
By the time the blood leaves the lung capillaries to return to the heart, what percentage of the blood’s hemoglobin has united with oxygen? 97%
The function of surfactant is to: prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration.
Standard atmospheric pressure is _____ mm Hg. 760
Which gas law deals with the solubility of gases in solution? Henry
One hundred milliliters of arterial blood contains approximately what volume percent of oxygen? 20%
The approximate partial pressure of oxygen at standard atmospheric pressure is about _____ mm Hg. 160
The major form by which carbon dioxide is transported in the circulatory system is: as bicarbonate ions.
Which of the following combinations in arterial blood could cause an increase in the respiratory rate? Increased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, decreased pH, decreased PO2
Gas exchange, the lungs’ main and vital function, takes place in the: alveoli.
Pyrogen molecules trigger the fever response by promoting the production of prostaglandins.
What is the function of the spleen? tissue repair hematopoiesis red blood cell and platelet destruction blood reservoir
Adaptive immunity, part of the body’s third line of defense, is orchestrated by two different classes of a type of white blood cell called the lymphocyte.
Chemotaxis is the process by which a cell navigates toward the source of the chemotactic factor by way of detecting and then moving toward higher concentrations of the factor.
Complement can best be described as a(n): enzyme in blood.
The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles is called phagocytosis.
The functions of the lymphatic system include: transporting interstitial fluid back to the bloodstream. providing immunological defenses. transporting absorbed fats from the intestine to the blood. houses and develops lymphocytes.
Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an antigen’s epitopes fit into and bind to an antigen molecule’s antigen-binding site.
The presentation of an antigen by an antigen-presenting cell activates the T cell. The cell then divides repeatedly to form a clone of identical sensitized T cells that form effector T cells and memory cells.
_____ refers to a phenomenon in which the genetic characteristics common to a particular kind of organism provide defense against certain pathogens. Species resistance
The ability of our immune system to attack abnormal or foreign cells but spare our own normal cells is called: self-tolerance.
Which of the following is a powerful poison that acts directly on any cell and quickly kills it? lymphotoxin
Activities that result in central movement or flow of lymph are called lymphokinetic activities.
The body’s defense mechanisms can be organized into one of two major categories of immune mechanisms; these are innate and adaptive immunity.
Which of these substances operate(s) immune mechanisms? sebum mucus enzymes hydrochloric acid in gastric mucosa
_______ is the only antibody class with the ability to cross the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to the developing fetus during pregnancy. IgG.
The movement of phagocytes from blood vessels to an inflammation site is called diapedesis.
The _____ postulates that when an antigen enters the body, it selects the clone whose cells are committed to synthesizing its specific antibody and stimulates these cells to proliferate and to thereby produce more antibodies. clonal selection theory
The function of which antibody is basically unknown? IgD
____ is used to determine the volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood. Hematocrit
Neutrophils are highly mobile and phagocytic. They migrate out of blood vessels and into tissue spaces. This process is called diapedesis.
All of the following are granulocytes except neutrophils. eosinophils. lymphocytes. basophils. lymphocytes.
A glycoprotein hormone that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissues is erythropoietin.
In the extrinsic pathway of stage 1 of the clotting mechanism, chemicals released from damaged tissues trigger the cascade of events that ultimately result in the formation of prothrombin activator.
The normal ECG is composed of all of the following except a P wave. QRS complex. T wave. E wave. E wave.
From which vessels do myocardial cells receive blood? coronary arteries
After blood leaves the lungs and returns to the heart, it enters the left atrium.
Atria are often called _____ because they receive blood from vessels called veins. receiving chambers
The heart has its own special covering, a loose-fitting inextensible sac called the pericardium.
The bulk of the heart wall is the thick, contractile middle layer called the myocardium.
The heart valves that are located where the trunk of the pulmonary artery joins the right ventricle and where the aorta joins the left ventricle are called semilunar valves.
The _____ is(are) supplied with blood from the left subclavian artery. head and upper extremities
Which types of arteries are also called conducting arteries and include the aorta? elastic arteries
The _____ drains much of the superficial leg and foot. great saphenous vein
Microscopic vessels that carry blood from small arteries to small veins are capillaries.
In _____, blood moves from veins to other veins or arteries to other arteries without passing through an intervening capillary network. vascular anastomoses
Blood viscosity stems mainly from the red blood cells but also partly from the _____ in blood. protein molecules present
Starling’s law of the heart states that, within limits, the longer, or more stretched, the heart fibers are at the beginning of the contraction, the stronger the contraction.
Factors that affect the strength of myocardial contraction are called inotropic factors.
Cardiac output is determined by stroke volume and heart rate.
Which two factors promote the return of venous blood to the heart? blood-pumping action of respirations and skeletal muscle contractions
The localized pressure gradient needed to maintain blood flow in a tissue is called perfusion pressure.
The vagus is said to act as a “brake” on the heart. This situation is called vagal inhibition.
The chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies are particularly sensitive to: hypercapnia
During pregnancy, what happens to the oxygenated blood returned from the placenta via the umbilical vein? It flows into the inferior vena cava.
Which of the following vessels do not have the ability to constrict and dilate? capillaries
Erythrocytes begin their maturation sequence in red bone marrow from nucleated cells known as: hematopoietic stem cells.
A hematocrit of 56% would be an indication of: polycythemia.
The term used to describe the collection of mechanisms that influence the circulation of blood is: hemodynamics.
What is the functional significance of large areas of cardiac muscle being electrically coupled to form a single functional syncytium? Because they form a syncytium, muscle cells can pass an action potential along a large area of the heart wall, stimulating contraction in each muscle fiber of the syncytium.
the following are components critical to coagulation prothrombin. thrombin. fibrinogen. fibrin.
The mechanisms of which three hormones work together to regulate blood volume? aldosterone, ANH, and ADH
A small molecule binds to a G protein, preventing its activation. What direct effect will this have on signaling that involves cAMP? Adenylyl cyclase will not be activated.
Which hormone produced by the adrenal glands is responsible for mobilization of energy stores? Cortisol
where do frequencies—from high to low pitches—cause activity in the hair cells within the cochlear duct? the apex of the cochlea
Specialized cells in the retina called ganglion cells convert the light rays into electrical signals
If movement of a visual stimulus is leftward in one eye and rightward in the opposite eye, the brain interprets this as movement toward (or away) from the face along the midline. Which eye is visualizing leftward stimulus? right eye
All of the following are nonsteroid hormones except: oxytocin. calcitonin. cortisol. glucagon. cortisol.
One of the few hormones that functions on a positive-feedback loop is: oxytocin.
The somatic senses enable us to detect sensations, including: touch. temperature. pain.
Which of the following is a function of glucagon? Tends to increase blood glucose concentrations
The immediate effect of a steroid hormone on a cell is the: transcription of RNA.
Accommodation for near vision necessitates an increase in the curvature of the lens. constriction of the pupils. convergence of the two eyes.
Visceroceptors are located in which of the following? Internal organs
The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the: anterior pituitary.
The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is: progesterone
The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are the: Ruffini corpuscles.
The last step in the nonsteroid hormone mechanism of action is: protein kinases activate other enzymes.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? Chemical messenger travels a short distance. Effector tissues include virtually all tissues. Receptors are located on the plasma membrane or within the target cell. Chemical messenger travels a short distance.
When you are looking at a large green field, which cones would be sending the green wavelength to the brain? M
The sequence of auditory ossicles in the middle ear starting at the tympanic membrane and ending at the oval window is: malleus, incus, and stapes.
Which of the following is true about pain receptors? Alpha fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain.
Sensory impulses ending in what part of the CNS trigger imprecise or “crude” sensation awareness? Thalamus
When a small amount of one hormone allows a second hormone to have its full effect, the phenomenon is called: permissiveness.
The two-point discrimination test can be used to measure: the sensitivity of the skin in various parts of the body.
Mixed cranial nerves contain axons of sensory and motor neurons.
Which region of the brain plays a part in the mechanism responsible for emotions by associating sensory impulses with feelings of pleasantness and unpleasantness? thalamus
The reticular activating system maintains consciousness.
The somatic motor system includes all the _____ motor pathways _____ the CNS. voluntary; outside
The effect of sympathetic stimulation on the urinary bladder is relaxation
example of sympathetic stimulation? decreased secretion of the pancreas constriction of the urinary sphincters dilation of skeletal muscle blood vessels
Each skin surface area supplied by sensory fibers of a given spinal nerve is a dermatome.
If the center of a reflex arc is the brain, the response it mediates is called a cranial reflex.
Another name for the parasympathetic nervous system is the nervous system. craniosacral
The most numerous cerebral tracts are the association tracts.
The two main types of adrenergic receptors are alpha and beta.
The set of coordinated commands that control the programmed muscle activity mediated by extrapyramidal pathways is called the motor program.
A _____ is a skeletal muscle or group of muscles that receives motor axons from a given spinal nerve. myotome
The limbic system integrates emotion.
The groove between the frontal and parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex is the central sulcus.
“Fight or flight” physiological changes include all of the following EXCEPT increased conversion of glycogen to glucose. constriction of respiratory airways. increased perspiration. dilation of blood vessels in skeletal muscles. constriction of respiratory airways.
Acetylcholine binds to _____ receptors. cholinergic
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are tonically active, which means they continually conduct impulses to autonomic effectors.
The _____ is an extension of the great toe, with or without fanning of the other toes, in response to stimulation of the outer margin of the sole of the foot. Babinski sign
Many cerebral functions have typical locations. This fact is known as cerebral localization.
The _____ consists of several structures that lie beneath the thalamus and form the floor of the third ventricle and the lower part of its lateral walls. hypothalamus
The cortex is capable of storing and retrieving information from both short-term and long-term memory
A reflex consists of either a muscle contraction or a glandular secretion.
The second largest part of the brain, located just below the posterior portion of the cerebrum, is the cerebellum
The action of acetylcholine is quickly terminated by its being hydrolyzed by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.
The _____ nerve transmits impulses that result in sensations of equilibrium. vestibular
Axon terminals of autonomic neurons release either of two neurotransmitters, norepinephrine and acetylcholine.
Impulses from the _____ play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum. thalamus
In a healthy adult, a well-placed tap on the knee will result in a: stretch of the tendon, the quadriceps femoris, and thereby stimulation of the muscle spindles.
All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except: contraction of the urinary bladder. relaxation of the sphincters of the digestive tract. increased salivation. increased heart rate. increased heart rate.
Which of the following is not an example of sympathetic stimulation? Constriction of the bronchioles Decreased secretion of the pancreas Constriction of the urinary sphincters Constriction of the bronchioles
Audition is a function of the _____ lobe. temporal
Nerves that innervate the floor of the pelvic cavity and some of the surrounding areas are found in the _____ plexus. coccygeal
Norepinephrine is liberated at: most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings.
The preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions are cholinergic. True
function of the hypothalamus? Production of hormones “Go between” of the psyche and the soma Appetite center
What would the result be if the phrenic nerve received an impulse from the cervical plexus? The diaphragm would stop contracting.
The vomiting reflex is mediated by the: medulla
A child was frightened by a large dog. The pupils of the child’s eyes became dilated, and the heart and respiratory rates increased. These symptoms were caused by stimulation of: the sympathetic nervous system.
Which of the following is a description of the principle of autonomic antagonism as it relates to the autonomic nervous system? If sympathetic impulses tend to stimulate an effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to inhibit it.
Nerve impulses over the _____ nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate. vagus
Most effectors of the autonomic nervous system are dually innervated by sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons. True
Which of the following is not associated with the oculomotor nerve? Movement of external eye muscles Closing and opening of the eye (blink reflex) Movement of intrinsic eye muscles Proprioception of eye muscles Closing and opening of the eye (blink reflex)
The cerebellum performs all of the following functions except: coordinates control of muscle action. helps control posture. controls cardiac function. controls skeletal muscles to maintain balance. controls cardiac function.
Damage to the _____ nerve could make the diaphragm unable to function. phrenic
The mechanisms that produce and maintain the resting membrane potential do so by producing a slight excess of positive ions on the outer surface of the plasma membrane.
When neurotransmitters from synaptic knobs stimulate a postsynaptic neuron in rapid succession, their effect can add up over a brief period to produce an action potential. This is called temporal summation.
The brief period during which a local area of an axon's membrane resists re-stimulation is called the __________ period. refractory
Which chemicals allow neurons to communicate with one another? neurotransmitters
In a myelinated neuron, the impulse can travel under the myelin between nodes of Ranvier. True
A neurologist is using a voltmeter to measure potential. The membrane potential of a neuron was recorded at +30 mV. This is what type of membrane potential? Action
In depolarization the membrane potential moves toward zero, whereas in hyperpolarization the membrane potential moves away from zero. True
The membrane potential maintained by a nonconducting neuron’s plasma membrane is called the _____ membrane potential. resting
What mechanism quickly terminates the action of a neurotransmitter once it binds to its postsynaptic receptor? Neurotransmitter molecules are transported back into synaptic knobs. Neurotransmitter molecules are metabolized into inactive compounds. Neurotransmitter molecules are transported into nearby glial cells.
There are two types of synapses—the electrical synapse and the __________ synapse. chemical
If the magnitude of the local depolarization surpasses a limit called the _____, voltage-gated Na+ channels are stimulated to open. threshold potential
If the threshold potential is surpassed, the full peak of the action potential is always reached. True
The tiny bulge at the end of a terminal branch of a presynaptic neuron’s axon is called a(n) synaptic knob.
An ion channel that opens in response to a sensory stimulus is a(n) stimulus-gated channel.
The difference between sodium and potassium in the generation of action potential is that: sodium causes depolarization of the cell membrane, and potassium causes repolarization of the cell membrane.
The sodium-potassium pump actively pumps three potassium ions out of the neuron and two sodium ions into the neuron. False
Whether an impulse is continued through the neuron depends on the magnitude of the voltage in the axon hillock. True
Which membrane receptor acts to directly change ion permeability when stimulated? Gated-channel receptor
A membrane that exhibits a membrane potential is said to be polarized
The active transport mechanism in the plasma membrane that transports sodium and potassium ions in opposite directions and at different rates is the sodium-potassium pump.
A synapse can occur only between an axon and: another axon. a dendrite. a cell body.
The difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a membrane is called the membrane potential. True
The action potential seems to “leap” from node to node along a myelinated fiber. This type of impulse regeneration is called __________ conduction. saltatory
The magnitude of the action potential peaks when the sodium channels close. True
Movement of the membrane potential away from zero (below the usual RMP) is called hyperpolarization
Stimulus-gated channels open in response to: sensory stimuli.
A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a _____ potential. local
The active transport mechanism in the plasma membrane that transports sodium and potassium ions in opposite directions and at different rates is the sodium-potassium pump.
The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct impulses up to approximately _____ meters per second. 130
A synaptic knob would be located on a(n): axon.
Compared with the outside of the neuron, the inside has a(n) ____ charge. negative
The only ion(s) that can diffuse across a neuron’s membrane when the neuron is at rest is (are): potassium
Serotonin is an example of a(n): amine neurotransmitter.
Neurotransmitters are released in a synapse and bind to: receptors on the postsynaptic neuron.
The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct an impulse that is how much faster than the slowest fibers in the body? Almost 300 times faster
The neurotransmitter(s) that inhibit(s) the conduction of pain impulses is(are): enkephalins
Which is true of an action potential? The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is positively charged.
The brief period during which a local area of an axon's membrane resists re-stimulation is called the __________ period. refractory
Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to: initiate an action potential.
Which is true of a neuron with a resting potential? The sodium pump has moved Na+ to the outside of the plasma membrane.
Dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are classified as: catecholamines
the main chemical classes of neurotransmitters? Amines Amino acids Neuropeptides
The first event to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron is: some of the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open.
During a relative refractory period: the action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus.
_____ refers to an inner region of an organ, whereas _____ refers to an outer region or layer of an organ. Medullary; cortical
Which of the following is not a proteoglycan found in the matrix of connective tissue? Collagen
The area referred to as true skin is the: dermis
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the epiphyses? Cylindrical in shape
The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: in the diaphysis.
Calcification of the organic bone matrix occurs when complex calcium salts are deposited in the matrix.
The humerus articulates proximally with the clavicle. False
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the diaphysis? Provides a bulbous shape for attachment of muscle
In bone formation, the cells that produce the organic matrix are the: osteoblasts
The ability of muscle cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called: irritability
Which of the following statements about cardiac muscle is incorrect? Cardiac muscle requires nervous stimulation to contract.
After it is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the calcium combines with which protein? Troponin
Aerobic respiration: produces the maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule.
A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a _____ potential. local
Which neuron could transmit a nerve impulse the fastest? A large-diameter neuron with myelin
A synaptic knob would be located on a(n): axon
Which is true of an action potential? The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is positively charged.
Stimulus-gated channels open in response to: sensory stimuli.
The only ion(s) that can diffuse across a neuron’s membrane when the neuron is at rest is (are): potassium
The first event to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron is: some of the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open.
Which of the following is not used by the body as a neurotransmitter? Nitric oxide Acetylcholine Carbon monoxide All of the above are used by the body as neurotransmitters.
Which of the following statements about amino acid neurotransmitters is incorrect? They are all inhibitory neurotransmitters.
The knee jerk can be classified as a segmental reflex because: impulses that mediate it enter and leave the same segment of the cord.
Parasympathetic stimulation has no effect on any of the following areas except: sweat glands.
The preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions are cholinergic. True
Which of the following is not true of the knee jerk reflex? It is a flexor reflex.
What is the difference between a somatic reflex and an autonomic reflex? A somatic reflex is caused by contraction of skeletal muscles, whereas an autonomic reflex consists of contraction of smooth or cardiac muscle or secretions of glands.
In a healthy adult, a well-placed tap on the knee will result in a: stretch of the tendon, the quadriceps femoris, and thereby stimulation of the muscle spindles.
What would the result be if the phrenic nerve received an impulse from the cervical plexus? The diaphragm would stop contracting.
Impulses from the _____ play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum. thalamus
Danielle has sustained an injury that has reduced her ability to complete simple tasks such as lifting a pencil, manipulating eating utensils, and brushing her hair. The injury has affected the _____ motor pathways _____ the central nervous system (CNS). voluntary; outside
All of the following are true statements except: aspirin produces some of its effects by increasing PGE synthesis
The clear and potassium-rich fluid that fills the labyrinth is endolymph
The type of cells that secrete ACTH are: corticotrophs
Accommodation for near vision necessitates an increase in the curvature of the lens. constriction of the pupils. convergence of the two eyes. all of the above.
The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the: anterior pituitary.
A glycoprotein hormone that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissues is erythropoietin.
Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an antigen’s epitopes fit into and bind to an antigen molecule’s antigen-binding site.
The functions of the lymph nodes are defense and hematopoiesis.
Lymphocytes that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses are known as natural killer cells.
Complement can best be described as a(n): enzyme in blood.
Boyle’s law states that the volume of a gas varies _____ with pressure at a _____ temperature. inversely; constant
The vital capacity is equal to the sum of the: inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume.
When the pressure in the lung is greater than atmospheric pressure: expiration occurs.
The tendency of the thorax and lungs to return to the preinspiration volume is called: elastic recoil.
The final product of carbohydrate digestion is a: monosaccharide
Which of the following is not true of enzymes? They change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction.
Which of the following would have the greatest concentration of hydrogen ions? pH 2
Water normally leaves the body through _____ exits. four
Which of the following is a true statement? Arterial blood has an average pH of 7.41.
The thirst center, which contains specialized cells called osmoreceptors, is located in the: hypothalamus
Which of the following body fluid compartments has the same volume (percentage of body weight) in the infant, the adult male, and the adult female? Plasma
Cerebrospinal fluid is part of the _____ fluid. extracellular
Which of these is true about the metabolism of glucose? Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid.
For the body to maintain an acid-base balance, which of the following is (are) necessary? Buffering Respirations Urine secretion All of the above All of the above
Which of the following pairs are almost identical when compared chemically? Plasma and interstitial fluid
The increase in blood estrogens during the postmenstrual phase of the menstrual cycle produces all of the following changes in the uterus except: decreased myometrial contractions.
Which of the following is not a function of the ovary? It produces follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
The follicular phase of the menstrual cycle is the same as the: postmenstrual phase.
Fertilization of an ovum most often occurs in the: fallopian tube.
Which of the following hormones causes ejection of milk into the mammary ducts, making it accessible for the infant? Oxytocin
Which of the following is not true of FSH? It stimulates the secretion of testosterone.
Testosterone is responsible for producing secondary sex characteristics. True
What reproductive duct is divided into the head, body, and tail? Epididymis
Which of the following is not a function of the Sertoli cells? They produce testosterone.
A high blood concentration of estrogens: stimulates epithelial cells of the endometrium to proliferate.
Created by: rballiao
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