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Urin- and Clin Micro
Studystack of Urinalysis and Microbiology
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Which clinical application depends directly on microbiology lab results? | Choosing appropriate antimicrobial therapy based on pathogen identification. |
| Which feature is characteristic of bacteria but not viruses? | Cellular structure capable of independent metabolism and reproduction. |
| What is the importance of aseptic technique during specimen collection? | Prevents contamination to ensure the specimen accurately reflects infection. |
| Why are selective and differential media both used in clinical culture? | Selective media inhibit unwanted microbes; differential media distinguish species by biochemical properties. |
| Which method allows rapid identification of bacteria directly from clinical specimens? | Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) detecting specific bacterial DNA sequences. |
| What is an example of a clinical application of microbiology in patient care? | Diagnosing infections to tailor appropriate antimicrobial therapy. |
| How does the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion test assess antibiotic susceptibility? | By measuring zones of inhibition around antibiotic disks on agar plates. |
| What principle underlies antibiotic susceptibility testing? | Determining pathogen growth inhibition by antibiotics to guide treatment. |
| Which method is commonly used to identify bacteria after culture? | Biochemical tests assessing metabolic properties of organisms. |
| What is the role of incubation conditions in culture techniques? | Provide optimal temperature, atmosphere, and time for microbial growth. |
| Which culture medium is selective for Gram-negative bacteria? | MacConkey agar, which inhibits Gram-positive bacteria growth. |
| What is the primary purpose of specimen collection in clinical microbiology? | To obtain representative samples free from contamination for accurate microbial analysis. |
| Which characteristic is typical of Gram-positive bacteria? | Thick peptidoglycan layer retaining crystal violet stain. |
| Which taxonomic group includes bacteria commonly studied in clinical microbiology? | Prokaryotes characterized by peptidoglycan cell walls and lack of a nucleus. |
| What best defines clinical microbiology? | The study of microorganisms that cause infections in humans and methods for their detection and management. |
| What is the primary focus of clinical microbiology? | Isolation, identification, and characterization of microorganisms causing human infections |
| In bacterial taxonomy, what does the genus name represent? | The first part of the two-part scientific name, always capitalized |
| Which bacterial shape is described as rod-shaped? | Bacillus |
| What characteristic differentiates Gram-positive bacteria from Gram-negative bacteria in the Gram stain? | Thickness and composition of the peptidoglycan cell wall |
| Which type of culture medium inhibits growth of some organisms while allowing others to grow? | Selective medium |
| The Kirby-Bauer method is primarily used for: | Determining antibiotic susceptibility |
| Which pathogen is best detected by microscopic examination of stool samples? | Parasites such as Giardia and helminths |
| What is the main role of antimicrobial susceptibility testing in clinical microbiology? | To determine which antibiotics will effectively treat an infection |
| The incubation temperature commonly used for bacterial culture is: | 35–37°C |
| T/F Viruses are considered living organisms because they can reproduce independently outside a host cell. | False |
| T/F Aseptic technique during specimen collection helps prevent contamination and ensures accurate test results. | True |
| T/F The catalase test differentiates Streptococcus species (catalase positive) from Staphylococcus species (catalase negative). | False (It's the other way around: Staphylococcus species are catalase positive, Streptococcus species are catalase negative) |
| T/F Blood agar is both a differential and enriched medium commonly used to detect hemolysis patterns of bacteria. | True |
| T/F Dimorphic fungi can grow as yeasts or molds depending on environmental conditions, and are significant in clinical infections. | True |
| T/F Specimens for anaerobic bacterial cultures should be collected and transported in oxygen-exposed containers to ensure viability. | False (They should be collected and transported in oxygen-free environments) |
| T/F The presence of beta-hemolysis on blood agar typically indicates complete lysis of red blood cells by the bacterial colony. | True |
| T/F Latex agglutination tests can be used to rapidly detect Group A Streptococcus antigens in throat specimens. | True |
| T/F Gram-negative bacteria retain the crystal violet stain and appear purple under the microscope. | False (They do not retain crystal violet and appear pink/red) |
| T/F Automated identification systems can expedite the identification of microbial species and determination of antibiotic susceptibility. | True |
| Which cells found in urinary sediment are typically considered contaminants or originate from the lower urinary tract? | Squamous epithelial cells – Usually originate from lower urethra or vaginal contamination. |
| Which of the following is NOT a factor promoting urinary cast formation? A. Acidic urine pH B. Presence of urinary stasis C. High oxygen concentration D. High solute concentration | High oxygen concentration – This is not involved in cast formation. |
| What is the significance of white blood cell casts found in urine sediment? | Indicate kidney infection or inflammation – Found in pyelonephritis and interstitial nephritis. |
| Which of the following crystals is associated with an inherited amino acid transport disorder and may cause kidney stones? A. Tyrosine B. Leucine C. Cystine D. Cholesterol | Cystine – Cystinuria leads to cystine crystal formation and stones. |
| Hyaline casts may be present in urine in which of the following situations? A. Severe renal failure only B. Normal conditions such as after exercise or dehydration C. Only in renal infections D. Only in presence of red blood cells | Normal conditions such as after exercise or dehydration – A few hyaline casts can be normal. |
| What is the main protein forming the matrix of urinary casts? | Tamm–Horsfall mucoprotein – This protein forms the cast matrix in tubules. |
| Which type of urine specimen collection is most appropriate for bacterial culture to avoid contamination? | Clean-catch midstream – Minimizes contamination from external sources. |
| Which hormone regulates sodium and potassium balance by the kidney? | Aldosterone – Regulates electrolyte balance, especially Na+ and K+. |
| Which of the following is a common artifact in urine sediment that may appear as round or oval refractile structures with a Maltese cross pattern under polarized light? | Starch granules – They are hexagonal and polarize light forming Maltese crosses. |
| Which crystal is commonly found in acidic urine and may be associated with kidney stones? | Calcium oxalate – Often present in acidic or neutral urine and linked to lithiasis. |
| What do red blood cell casts in urinary sediment generally indicate? | Glomerular damage or inflammation – RBC casts are always pathologic. |
| During microscopic examination, which cell type indicates possible tubular damage when increased? | Renal tubular epithelial cells – Increased numbers suggest tubular injury or disease. |
| Reagent strips for urine chemical testing commonly detect all EXCEPT: A. Glucose B. Bilirubin C. Hormone levels D. Leukocyte esterase | Hormone levels – Reagent strips test chemical substances but not hormones. |
| Which physical characteristic of urine reflects its concentration of solutes? | Specific gravity – Indicates urine concentration ability, highest in first morning specimens. |
| How soon should urine specimens be tested after collection to ensure validity? | Within 1–2 hours – Otherwise, refrigerate at 4° to 6°C for up to 4 hours. |
| What is the preferred specimen for routine urinalysis? | First morning, midstream specimen – This is ideal for routine testing due to concentration and low contamination risk. |
| Which hormone produced by the kidneys stimulates red blood cell synthesis? | Erythropoietin – It stimulates RBC synthesis in bone marrow |
| Which solute is present in the highest concentration in urine? | Urea – It is the solute with the highest concentration in urine. |
| Approximately how many gallons of filtrate are produced daily in urine formation? | 45 gallons – This large volume is selectively reabsorbed to form urine. |
| What is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering blood? | Nephron – The nephron filters the blood and concentrates the urine. |
| Which of the following is NOT part of the urinary system anatomy? A. Kidneys B. Ureter C. Pancreas D. Urinary bladder | Pancreas – It is part of the digestive system, not the urinary system. |
| Which is the sequence that is followed in the formation of urine in the kidney? | Glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, collecting tubules |
| Which is the reagent strip for urinalysis testing that measures the kidney’s ability to dilute and concentrate urine? | Specific gravity |
| Which constituent would not be a cause for the appearance of a urine specimen to be cloudy? a. Amorphous material b. Bacterial contamination c. Excessive amount of Bence Jones protein d. Excessive amount of mucus | Excessive amount of Bence Jones protein |
| Which urine reaction strip may become positive if the physician is suspecting a patient has a urinary tract infection (UTI)? a. Nitrite b. Leukocyte esterase c. pH d. Nitrite and leukocyte esterase | Nitrite and leukocyte esterase |
| A urine specimen has a positive bilirubin result on the reaction strips. Which is a confirmation test performed in the laboratory to rule out a false-positive result? | Icto test |
| A patient is seeing their physician for a routine physical and has just completed a strenuous workout. Which may be a normal finding in the urine specimen in low numbers? | Hyaline casts |
| A patient is instructed to collect a urine specimen for bacterial culture. Which urine collection procedure should be provided to the patient? | Clean-catch, midstream |
| Which analyte is actively reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubules? a. Sodium b. Glucose c. Protein d. All of these | All of these |
| Which type of cell indicates vaginal contamination of a urine sample? | Squamous epithelial |
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