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Phys Final Review
| Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? | Reproductive |
| Pathogenesis | the course of disease development |
| Positive-feedback control systems: | accelerate a change. |
| The normal reading or range of normal is called the: | Set point |
| Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations. | a. occurrence b. distribution c. transmission d. All of the above are correct. |
| The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback. | positive |
| The term that literally means self-immunity is: | autoimmunity |
| The body’s thermostat is located in the: | Hypothalamus |
| Negative-feedback control systems: | Oppose a change |
| Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex? | Tapeworms |
| Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: | a. the body trying to maintain homeostasis. b. a positive-feedback mechanism. c. a negative-feedback mechanism. d. both A and C. Answer: both A&C |
| Intrinsic control | is sometimes called autoregulation. |
| Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? | a. Environment b. Stress c. Lifestyle d. All of the above Answer: All of the above |
| Negative-feedback mechanisms: | a. minimize changes in blood glucose levels. b. maintain homeostasis. c. are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature. d. All of the above are correct. Answer: All of the above |
| Which of the following is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids? | They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end. |
| The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are: | steroids |
| The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of _____, with _____ being the dominant component. | carbohydrate and protein; protein |
| The amino group in an amino acid is: | NH3+. |
| The type of lipoprotein associated with “bad” cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels is: | LDL |
| Which of the following is not true of carbohydrates? | a. They include substances commonly called sugars. b. They are the body’s primary source of energy. c. They are a part of both DNA and RNA. d. All of the above are true of carbohydrates. Answer: All of the above |
| All of the following substances are organic except: | Electrolytes |
| The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called: | Dehydration synthesis |
| Which of the following is not true of RNA? | a. It contains ribose sugar. b. It contains adenine. c. It is composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides. d. All of the above are true of RNA. Answer: All of the above |
| Amino acids frequently become joined by: | Peptide bonds |
| If one side of a DNA molecule is CTAGGCTG, the other side would be: | GATCCGAC |
| A _____ is a functional group that is temporarily unattached and is highly reactive because of unpaired electrons. | free radical |
| Unsaturated fats: | will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms. |
| What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids? | Degree of saturation |
| Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics? | Both have a ring structure in their molecule |
| Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the stratum: | Basale |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of muscle tissue? | Cells are separated by a large quantity of extracellular matrix |
| Which is not a function of connective tissue? | Communication |
| Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? | Connective |
| Which is not a function of epithelial tissue? | Assimilation |
| Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: | mesenchyme |
| A tissue is: | a group of similar cells that perform a common function. |
| Areolar tissue usually contains which types of cells in the greatest number? | Fibroblasts |
| Which cells help destroy pathogens and damaged tissue in the brain? | Microglia |
| Which cells electrically insulate axons to increase the speed of conduction? | Oligodendrocytes & Schwann cells |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of connective tissue? | Typically holds its cells together tightly by means of desmosomes . It DOES Protects the body from foreign invaders, Supports the body and Transports substances throughout the body. |
| Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate? | Epithileal |
| Which cells form the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood? | Astrocytes |
| What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina? | Basement membrane |
| The papillary layer of the dermis: | produces the ridges that make fingerprints. |
| The humerus articulates proximally with the | Scapula |
| Bones act as a reservoir for which of the following minerals? | Calcium & Phosphorus |
| The humerus articulates proximally with the clavicle. | True (Scapula & Clavicle) |
| In intramembranous ossification, the process of appositional growth refers to the: | addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones |
| Until bone growth in length is complete, a layer of the cartilage, known as the _____, remains between the epiphysis and diaphysis. | epiphyseal plate |
| The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: | Diaphysis |
| Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone. | False |
| Which structures are unique to the fetal skull and provide additional space for molding the head shape as the baby passes through the birth canal? | Fontanels |
| Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens. | True |
| An age-related skeletal disease that is characterized by loss of bone mineral density and increased bone fragility is | osteoporosis |
| Which of the following is not dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood? | a. Blood clotting b. Transmission of nerve impulses c. Contraction of cardiac muscle d. All of the above Answer: All of the above |
| A person with a fractured patella would expect discomfort in the: | Knee |
| An open fracture is also known as a compound fracture. | True |
| Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes begin to divide and secrete | Additional Matrix |
| Which of the following is not one of the primary functions performed by bones? | Hormonal production |
| Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding heat production? | a. The body temperature set point is established by the hypothalamus. b. Shivering will increase body temperature. c. Body temperature functions on a negative-feedback mechanism. d. All of the above are correct. Answer: All of the above |
| All of the following are characteristics of smooth muscle except: | thin and thick filaments are aligned in sarcomeres like skeletal muscles. |
| Which of the following terms describes an isometric contraction? | Static tension |
| The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is: | Myosin |
| A gliding joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. | multiaxial joint |
| Which muscle group extends the vertebral column and also flexes the back laterally and rotates it a little? | erector spinae |
| Muscle contractions will continue as long as: | the calcium ions are attached to the troponin. |
| Which of the following is not an end-product of the breakdown of ATP? | a. An inorganic phosphate b. Energy that can be used in muscle contraction c. ADP d. All of the above are end-products of the breakdown of ATP. Answer: All of the above |
| What would be the effect of poor posture? | a. leads to fatigue b. puts more strain on ligaments c. puts abnormal strain on bones d. interferes with respiration, heart action, and digestion e. All of these are correct. Answer: All of these are correct |
| Which type of muscle does not have T-tubules? | Smooth |
| The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is that: | the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sacs. |
| Most body movements are _____ contractions. | Isotonic |
| All of the following are true characteristics of an isometric contraction except: | movement is produced. |
| Skeletal muscles are innervated by: | Somatic motor neurons |
| Stretching the foot down and back and pointing the toe is called: | plantar flexion |
| A synaptic knob would be located on a(n): | axon |
| There are two types of synapses—the electrical synapse and the __________ synapse. | Electrical and chemical |
| Which is true of a neuron with a resting potential? | The sodium pump has moved Na+ to the outside of the plasma membrane |
| No impulse can be sent through a neuron: | during the absolute refractory period. |
| Serotonin is an example of a(n): | amine neurotransmitter |
| During a relative refractory period: | the action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus. |
| The neurotransmitter(s) that inhibit(s) the conduction of pain impulses is(are): | enkephalins |
| Compared with the outside of the neuron, the inside has a(n) ____ charge. | negative |
| Which of the following is not used by the body as a neurotransmitter? | a. Nitric oxide b. Acetylcholine c. Carbon monoxide d. All of the above are used by the body as neurotransmitters. Answer: All of the above |
| Neurotransmitters are released in a synapse and bind to: | receptors on the postsynaptic neuron. |
| A term commonly used as a synonym for action potential is | nerve impulse |
| When an impulse reaches a synapse: | chemical transmitters are released |
| Which of the following antidepressants acts by blocking the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO)? | Phenalize |
| A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a _____ potential. | local |
| Which neuron could transmit a nerve impulse the fastest? | large-diameter neuron with myelin |
| What is the difference between a somatic reflex and an autonomic reflex? | A somatic reflex is caused by contraction of skeletal muscles, whereas an autonomic reflex consists of contraction of smooth or cardiac muscle or secretions of glands. |
| Audition is a function of the _____ lobe. | temporal |
| The vomiting reflex is mediated by the: | Medulla |
| Impulses sent over which of the following tracts could result in voluntary movement, especially of the hands, fingers, feet, and toes of the opposite side? | Lateral corticospinal |
| Impulses from the _____ play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum. | Thalamus |
| A child was frightened by a large dog. The pupils of the child’s eyes became dilated, and the heart and respiratory rates increased. These symptoms were caused by stimulation of: | the sympathetic nervous system. |
| Acetylcholine can stimulate _____ receptors. | Nicotinic |
| The preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions are cholinergic. | True |
| A mixed nerve is one that: | carries both sensory and motor fibers. |
| Which of the following is not an example of sympathetic stimulation? | Constriction of the bronchioles |
| The part of the brain that can directly influence or inhibit the release of hormones from the pituitary is the: | Hypothalamus |
| Most effectors of the autonomic nervous system are dually innervated by sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons. | True |
| Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may: | a. synapse with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron. b. send ascending and/or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to synapse with postganglionic neurons in other chain ganglia. c. pass through one or more ganglia without synapsing. d. all of |
| The knee jerk can be classified as a segmental reflex because: | impulses that mediate it enter and leave the same segment of the cord. |
| All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except: | increased heart rate. |
| One of the few hormones that functions on a positive-feedback loop is: | Oxytocin |
| All of the following are nonsteroid hormones except: | cortisol |
| Clearness or sharpness of visual perception is known as: | visual acuity |
| The immediate effect of a steroid hormone on a cell is the: | transcription of RNA |
| Which is not true of the hormone somatostatin? | It stimulates the secretion of insulin. |
| The type of cells that secrete ACTH are: | Corticotrophs |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? | Chemical messenger travels a short distance. |
| The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is: | progesterone |
| Visceroceptors are located in which of the following? | Internal organs |
| All of the following are true statements except | aspirin produces some of its effects by increasing PGE synthesis |
| In comparison with the nervous system, the regulatory effects of the endocrine system are | slow to appear but long-lasting. |
| The two-point discrimination test can be used to measure: | the sensitivity of the skin in various parts of the body. |
| When a small amount of one hormone allows a second hormone to have its full effect, the phenomenon is called: | permissiveness |
| Accommodation for near vision necessitates | a. an increase in the curvature of the lens. b. constriction of the pupils. c. convergence of the two eyes. d. all of the above. Answer: All of the above |
| The clear and potassium-rich fluid that fills the labyrinth is | endolymph |
| Inhibition of sympathetic vasoconstrictor impulses is considered a major mechanism of | vasodialation |
| A hematocrit of 56% would be an indication of: | polycythemia |
| A decrease in the amount of white blood cells is called | leukopenia |
| Circulatory shock caused by a drop in the amount of blood in the circulatory system is called _____ shock. | hypovolemia |
| A glycoprotein hormone that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissues is | erythropoietin |
| Blood volume per kilogram of body weight varies inversely with: | body fat. |
| Which of the following is(are) involved in determining a person’s total blood volume? | a. Age b. Body type c. Sex d. All of the above Answer: All of the above |
| The localized pressure gradient needed to maintain blood flow in a tissue is called | perfusion pressure. |
| In the extrinsic pathway of stage 1 of the clotting mechanism, chemicals released from damaged tissues trigger the cascade of events that ultimately result in the formation of | prothrombin activator. |
| Platelets play an important role in | blood clotting |
| Activities that result in central movement or flow of lymph are called | lymphokinetic activities. |
| The lymphatic system serves various functions in the body. The two most important functions of this system are | fluid balance and immunity. |
| Molecules formed by the reactions of the complement cascade assemble themselves on the enemy cell’s surface, which results in | cytolysis (the process where a cell bursts due to an influx of water, causing it to swell and ultimately rupture) |
| The body’s defense mechanisms can be organized into one of two major categories of immune mechanisms; these are | innate and adaptive immunity. |
| The lymph pressure gradient is established by: | a. breathing movements. b. skeletal muscle contractions. c. parasympathetic stimulation. d. both A and B. Answer: both A and B |
| The functions of the lymph nodes are | defense and hematopoiesis. |
| The ability of our immune system to attack abnormal or foreign cells but spare our own normal cells is called: | Self-tolerance |
| Memory cells: | become plasma cells when exposed to an antigen. |
| Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an | antigen’s epitopes fit into and bind to an antigen molecule’s antigen-binding site. |
| During their residence in the thymus, pre-T cells develop into _____, cells that proliferate as rapidly as any in the body. | thymocytes |
| Adaptive immunity, part of the body’s third line of defense, is orchestrated by two different classes of a type of white blood cell called the | lymphocyte |
| Which organ has several functions, including defense, hematopoiesis, red blood cell and platelet destruction, and blood reservoir? | Spleen |
| The function of which antibody is basically unknown? | IgD (Immunoglobulin D, an antibody) |
| _______ is the only antibody class with the ability to cross the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to the developing fetus during pregnancy. | IgG |
| What is the function of the spleen? | a. tissue repair b. hematopoiesis c. red blood cell and platelet destruction d. blood reservoir all e. of the above. Answer: All of the above |
| The function of the vibrissae in the vestibule is to: | provide an initial “filter” to screen particulate matter from air that is entering the system. (nasal hair) |
| The PCO2 in alveolar air is _____ blood. | a. less than in the systemic venous b. greater than in the systemic venous c. equal to the systemic arterial d. Both A and C are correct. Answer: both A&C |
| The major form by which carbon dioxide is transported in the circulatory system is: | bicarbonate ions |
| Which of the following is not a means of transporting oxygen in the blood? | Combined with the bicarbonate ion (HCO3–) |
| Which of the following is not a regulated process associated with the functioning of the respiratory system? | Control of cell metabolism rate |
| The vital capacity is equal to the sum of the: | inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume. |
| By the time the blood leaves the lung capillaries to return to the heart, what percentage of the blood’s hemoglobin has united with oxygen? | 97% |
| The function of surfactant is to: | prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration. |
| Which of the following would you expect to happen to cellular respiration during exercise? | Increased cellular respiration occurs during exercise, causing a rise in plasma PCO2, which is detected by central chemoreceptors in the brain and perhaps peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid sinus and aorta to cause an increase in respiration rate. |
| Which of the following combinations in arterial blood could cause an increase in the respiratory rate? | Increased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, decreased pH, decreased PO2 |
| Which gas law deals with the solubility of gases in solution? | Henry |
| Which of the following helps determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute? | a. The total functional surface area of the respiratory membrane b. Alveolar ventilation c. The oxygen pressure gradient between alveolar air and incoming pulmonary blood d. All of the above. Answer: All of the above |
| The approximate partial pressure of oxygen at standard atmospheric pressure is about _____ mm Hg | 160 |
| One hundred milliliters of arterial blood contains approximately what volume percent of oxygen? | 20% |
| Boyle’s law states that the volume of a gas varies _____ with pressure at a _____ temperature. | inversely; constant |
| Which phase(s) of gastric secretion is(are) stimulated by the sight, taste, and smell of food? | Cephalic phase |
| Which of these is not an example of mechanical digestion? | Moistening the food |
| Which step of deglutition is under voluntary control? | Oral stage |
| When classified according to the kind of chemical reactions catalyzed, digestive enzymes are referred to as _____ enzymes. | hydrolyzing |
| Which blood vessel carries absorbed food from the GI tract to the liver? | Portal vein |
| The substances absorbed into the lymph capillaries are: | glycerol and fatty acids. |
| Hydrolysis refers to: | using water to split larger compounds into smaller ones. |
| Which of the processes of mechanical digestion involves the esophagus? | a. Deglutition b. Peristalsis c. Churning d. Both A and B Answer: both A&B |
| Which of the following is not one of the openings that must be blocked when food moves from the pharynx into the esophagus? | Oropharynx |
| Glucose moves from the GI tract into the circulatory system by the process of: | cotransport |
| Which of the following is not true of enzymes? | They change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction. |
| Cellulose is a residue of digestion that comes from: | carbohydrates |
| The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is: | cholecystokinin (CCK) a peptide hormone |
| Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as: | Amylase |
| The process of fat emulsification consists of: | breaking fats into small droplets. |
| Which of the following ratios of base bicarbonate to carbonic acid will maintain a normal pH? | 20:1 |
| A decrease in blood pH below normal tends to: | stimulate increased respirations. |
| The total fluid or water content of the human body ranges from _____ of its total weight. | 45% -75% |
| Which of the following is not a method used for parenteral administration? | By mouth |
| When comparing the volume of the various body fluids, the correct order going from highest to lowest in total volume would be: | intracellular fluid, interstitial fluid, plasma. |
| Cerebrospinal fluid is part of the _____ fluid. | Extracellular |
| The thirst center, which contains specialized cells called osmoreceptors, is located in the: | hypothalamus |
| What is the most abundant cation in extracellular fluid? | Sodium |
| Which of these is true about the metabolism of glucose? | Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid. |
| If the pH of the blood were 7.23, it would be | Slightly more acidic than normal |
| The regulation of acid-base balance in the body fluids refers to the control of _____ ion concentration. | hydrogen |
| Edema may occur when: | a. sodium is retained in the extracellular fluid as a result of increased aldosterone secretion or after serious renal disease such as acute glomerulonephritis. b. an increase in capillary blood pressure occurs. c. a decrease in the concentration of plasm |
| Which of the following would be important in treating metabolic alkalosis? | Chloride ions |
| Which of the following is not considered a “transcellular fluid”? | Lymph |
| When the effective filtration pressure equals zero: | no net transfer of water occurs between blood and interstitial fluid. |
| The female reproductive system differs from the male reproductive system in that it: | a. produces gametes. b. provides protection for the developing offspring. c. provides nutrition to the developing offspring. d. does both B and C Answer: both B&C |
| The major function of the reproductive system is propagation of the species. | True |
| Which of the following cells contain 46 chromosomes? | Primary spermatocytes |
| The gland that secretes an alkaline substance that constitutes about 30% of the seminal fluid is the: | Prostate gland |
| Fertilization of an ovum most often occurs in the: | fallopian tube. |
| The male gland that secretes a fructose sugar used as an energy source for sperm is the: | Seminal vescile |
| The hormone that causes the alveoli of the mammary glands to secrete milk is: | prolactin |
| Testosterone is responsible for producing secondary sex characteristics. | True |
| The increase in blood estrogens during the postmenstrual phase of the menstrual cycle produces all of the following changes in the uterus except: | decreased myometrial contractions. |
| Which of the following is not true of FSH (Follicle-stimulating hormone)? | It stimulates the secretion of testosterone. |
| Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? | Transmitter |
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