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Nicolas Giallongo

Human Physiology with Lab - SCI 221 (Module 7-13)

QuestionAnswer
Whether an impulse is continued through the neuron depends on the magnitude of the voltage in the axon hillock. True
Movement of the membrane potential away from zero (below the usual RMP) is called hyperpolarization
The tiny bulge at the end of a terminal branch of a presynaptic neuron’s axon is called a(n) synaptic knob.
There are two types of synapses—the electrical synapse and the __________ synapse. chemical
If the magnitude of the local depolarization surpasses a limit called the _____, voltage-gated Na+ channels are stimulated to open. threshold potential
In a myelinated fiber, the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next. True
The action potential seems to “leap” from node to node along a myelinated fiber. This type of impulse regeneration is called __________ conduction. saltatory
In depolarization the membrane potential moves toward zero, whereas in hyperpolarization the membrane potential moves away from zero. True
The speed of a nerve impulse depends on the neuron’s resting potential. False
The difference between sodium and potassium in the generation of action potential is that: sodium causes depolarization of the cell membrane, and potassium causes repolarization of the cell membrane.
A term commonly used as a synonym for action potential is nerve impulse.
What mechanism quickly terminates the action of a neurotransmitter once it binds to its postsynaptic receptor? Neurotransmitter molecules are metabolized into inactive compounds. Neurotransmitter molecules are transported back into synaptic knobs. Neurotransmitter molecules are transported into nearby glial cells.
Which membrane receptor acts to directly change ion permeability when stimulated? Gated-channel receptor
The difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a membrane is called the membrane potential. True
When a neuron is resting, the inner surface of its plasma membrane is slightly positive compared with its outer surface. False
A synapse can occur only between an axon and: another axon, a dendrite, a cell body.
An ion channel that opens in response to a sensory stimulus is a(n) stimulus-gated channel.
The sodium-potassium pump actively pumps three potassium ions out of the neuron and two sodium ions into the neuron. False
A neurologist is using a voltmeter to measure potential. The membrane potential of a neuron was recorded at +30 mV. This is what type of membrane potential? Action
If the threshold potential is surpassed, the full peak of the action potential is always reached. True
The brief period during which a local area of an axon's membrane resists re-stimulation is called the __________ period. refractory
When neurotransmitters from synaptic knobs stimulate a postsynaptic neuron in rapid succession, their effect can add up over a brief period to produce an action potential. This is called temporal summation.
Which chemicals allow neurons to communicate with one another? neurotransmitters
The magnitude of the action potential peaks when the sodium channels close. True
The mechanisms that produce and maintain the resting membrane potential do so by producing a slight excess of positive ions on the outer surface of the plasma membrane.
A membrane that exhibits a membrane potential is said to be polarized
In a myelinated neuron, the impulse can travel under the myelin between nodes of Ranvier. True
Neurons are the only living cells that maintain a difference in the concentration of ions across their membranes. False
The active transport mechanism in the plasma membrane that transports sodium and potassium ions in opposite directions and at different rates is the sodium-potassium pump.
The membrane potential maintained by a nonconducting neuron’s plasma membrane is called the _____ membrane potential. resting
A synaptic knob would be located on a(n): axon
Which of the following antidepressants acts by blocking the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO)? Phenelzine
When an impulse reaches a synapse: chemical transmitters are released.
Which is true of an action potential? The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is positively charged.
Dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are classified as: catecholamines
Which of the following is not one of the main chemical classes of neurotransmitters? Triglycerides
A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a _____ potential. local
The neurotransmitter(s) that inhibit(s) the conduction of pain impulses is(are): enkephalins
A synapse consists of: a synaptic knob, a synaptic cleft, the plasma membrane of a postsynaptic neuron.
Compared with the outside of the neuron, the inside has a(n) ____ charge. negative
Neurotransmitters are released in a synapse and bind to: receptors on the postsynaptic neuron.
No impulse can be sent through a neuron: during the absolute refractory period.
During a relative refractory period: the action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus.
There are two types of synapses—the electrical synapse and the __________ synapse. chemical
The brief period during which a local area of an axon's membrane resists re-stimulation is called the __________ period. refractory
A term commonly used as a synonym for action potential is nerve impulse.
Which is true of a neuron with a resting potential? The sodium pump has moved Na+ to the outside of the plasma membrane.
Which of the following statements about amino acid neurotransmitters is incorrect? They are all inhibitory neurotransmitters.
The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct impulses up to approximately _____ meters per second. 130
Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to: initiate an action potential.
The action of acetylcholine is quickly terminated by its being hydrolyzed by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase
The groove between the frontal and parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex is the central sulcus.
If the center of a reflex arc is the brain, the response it mediates is called a cranial reflex.
The two main types of adrenergic receptors are alpha and beta.
Axon terminals of autonomic neurons release either of two neurotransmitters, norepinephrine and acetylcholine.
Many cerebral functions have typical locations. This fact is known as cerebral localization.
The _____ nerve transmits impulses that result in sensations of equilibrium. vestibular
Acetylcholine binds to _____ receptors. cholinergic
The _____ is an extension of the great toe, with or without fanning of the other toes, in response to stimulation of the outer margin of the sole of the foot. Babinski sign
Which region of the brain plays a part in the mechanism responsible for emotions by associating sensory impulses with feelings of pleasantness and unpleasantness? thalamus
The most numerous cerebral tracts are the association tracts.
Which of the following is NOT an example of sympathetic stimulation? constriction of the bronchioles
The cortex is capable of storing and retrieving information from both short-term and long-term memory
The effect of sympathetic stimulation on the urinary bladder is relaxation
Mixed cranial nerves contain axons of sensory and motor neurons.
Another name for the parasympathetic nervous system is the nervous system. craniosacral
The reticular activating system maintains consciousness
“Fight or flight” physiological changes include all of the following EXCEPT constriction of respiratory airways.
The set of coordinated commands that control the programmed muscle activity mediated by extrapyramidal pathways is called the motor program.
Each skin surface area supplied by sensory fibers of a given spinal nerve is a dermatome
Tongue movement is controlled by which cranial nerve? hypoglossal
Which of the following is NOT correct? Sympathetic preganglionic axons pass along the dorsal root of certain spinal nerves.
The somatic motor system includes all the _____ motor pathways _____ the CNS. voluntary; outside
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are tonically active, which means they continually conduct impulses to autonomic effectors.
A _____ is a skeletal muscle or group of muscles that receives motor axons from a given spinal nerve. myotome
The limbic system integrates emotion
The second largest part of the brain, located just below the posterior portion of the cerebrum, is the cerebellum
A reflex consists of either a muscle contraction or a glandular secretion.
The _____ consists of several structures that lie beneath the thalamus and form the floor of the third ventricle and the lower part of its lateral walls. hypothalamus
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell? olfactory
All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except: increased heart rate.
Parasympathetic stimulation has no effect on any of the following areas except: sweat glands.
Damage to the _____ nerve could make the diaphragm unable to function. phrenic
Which of the following is a description of the principle of autonomic antagonism as it relates to the autonomic nervous system? If sympathetic impulses tend to stimulate an effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to inhibit it.
The preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions are cholinergic. True
What is the difference between a somatic reflex and an autonomic reflex? A somatic reflex is caused by contraction of skeletal muscles, whereas an autonomic reflex consists of contraction of smooth or cardiac muscle or secretions of glands.
Which of the following statements is not true? The major function of the parasympathetic division is to serve as an “emergency” system.
A child was frightened by a large dog. The pupils of the child’s eyes became dilated, and the heart and respiratory rates increased. These symptoms were caused by stimulation of: the sympathetic nervous system.
Blood vessels in both digestive organs and skeletal muscles are dilated by sympathetic stimulation. False
The part of the brain that assists in the maintenance of balance is the: cerebellum
A mixed nerve is one that: carries both sensory and motor fibers.
Biofeedback involves willful control of specific effectors normally controlled only autonomically. True
Nerve impulses over the _____ nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate. vagus
How does a dually innervated autonomic effector differ from a singly innervated autonomic effector? A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division.
The cerebellum acts with the _____ to produce skilled movement. cerebrum
Acetylcholine can stimulate _____ receptors. nicotinic
Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may: synapse with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron, send ascending and/or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to synapse with postganglionic neurons in other chain ganglia, pass through one or more ganglia without synapsing.
Somatic motor and autonomic pathways share all of the following characteristics except: number of neurons between central nervous system (CNS) and effector.
In a healthy adult, a well-placed tap on the knee will result in a: stretch of the tendon, the quadriceps femoris, and thereby stimulation of the muscle spindles.
Audition is a function of the _____ lobe. temporal
A small molecule binds to a G protein, preventing its activation. What direct effect will this have on signaling that involves cAMP? Adenylyl cyclase will not be activated.
Which hormone is released by the pituitary to stimulate the thyroid gland? thyrotropin
Which hormone produced by the adrenal glands is responsible for mobilization of energy stores? Cortisol
What should you avoid doing in the middle of your sleep cycle that would lower melatonin? turning on the lights
What goes wrong in the function of insulin in type 2 diabetes? the cells don't respond to insulin like they should
The brain interprets the meaning of the sounds we hear as music, speech, noise, etc. Which ear structures are responsible for the amplification and transfer of sound from the external ear to the inner ear? The ossicles
Specialized cells in the retina called ganglion cells convert the light rays into ________________. electrical signals
If movement of a visual stimulus is leftward in one eye and rightward in the opposite eye, the brain interprets this as movement toward (or away) from the face along the midline. Which eye is visualizing leftward stimulus? right eye
When the right cornea senses a tactile stimulus, what happens to the left eye? blinks
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? Chemical messenger travels a short distance.
Visceroceptors are located in which of the following? Internal organs
If you slammed your finger in a car door, it would stimulate _____ pain fibers. acute
The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the: anterior pituitary.
All of the following are true statements except: aspirin produces some of its effects by increasing PGE synthesis.
The type of cells that secrete ACTH are: corticotrophs
Clearness or sharpness of visual perception is known as: visual acuity
Which is not true of the hormone somatostatin? It stimulates the secretion of insulin.
The last step in the nonsteroid hormone mechanism of action is: protein kinases activate other enzymes.
When a small amount of one hormone allows a second hormone to have its full effect, the phenomenon is called: permissiveness
The immediate effect of a steroid hormone on a cell is the: transcription of RNA.
Dynamic equilibrium depends on the functioning of the crista ampullaris.
The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is: progesterone
Which of the following is not true of a receptor potential? It follows the all-or-none law.
The clear and potassium-rich fluid that fills the labyrinth is endolymph
The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are the: Ruffini corpuscles.
The olfactory tract carries impulses associated with: smell.
The somatic senses enable us to detect sensations, including: touch, temperature, pain.
In comparison with the nervous system, the regulatory effects of the endocrine system are: slow to appear but long-lasting.
One of the few hormones that functions on a positive-feedback loop is: oxytocin
The molecule that makes up 95% of the dry weight of each red blood cell and is responsible for the red pigment is hemoglobin
Erythrocytes begin their maturation sequence in red bone marrow from nucleated cells known as: hematopoietic stem cells.
A glycoprotein hormone that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissues is erythropoietin
A decrease in the amount of white blood cells is called leukopenia
The physiological mechanism that dissolves clots is known as fibrinolysis
Neutrophils are highly mobile and phagocytic. They migrate out of blood vessels and into tissue spaces. This process is called diapedesis
Platelets play an important role in blood clotting.
In the extrinsic pathway of stage 1 of the clotting mechanism, chemicals released from damaged tissues trigger the cascade of events that ultimately result in the formation of prothrombin activator.
Mechanical devices that permit the flow of blood in one direction only are called valves
Atria are often called _____ because they receive blood from vessels called veins. receiving chambers
After blood leaves the lungs and returns to the heart, it enters the left atrium.
The normal cardiac impulse that initiates mechanical contraction of the heart arises in the SA node.
The four structures that compose the conduction system of the heart are the SA node, AV node, AV bundle, and Purkinje fibers.
The bulk of the heart wall is the thick, contractile middle layer called the myocardium
The free edges of the atrioventricular valves are anchored to the papillary muscles.
A graphic record of the heart’s electrical activity is a(n) ECG
Renal veins drain blood from the kidneys
In _____, blood moves from veins to other veins or arteries to other arteries without passing through an intervening capillary network. vascular anastomoses
Which sphincters function as regulatory valves that reduce the flow of blood through a network of capillaries when they contract and constrict the arterioles? precapillary sphincters
Microscopic vessels that carry blood from small arteries to small veins are capillaries
Blood flow from the heart through blood vessels to all parts of the body and back to the heart is referred to as _____ circulation. systemic
During fetal circulation, what opening in the septum, between the right and left atria, directs most of the blood so that it bypasses the fetal lungs? foramen ovale
Which layer of the larger blood vessels is made up of endothelium? tunica intima
Inhibition of sympathetic vasoconstrictor impulses is considered a major mechanism of vasodilation
Which two factors promote the return of venous blood to the heart? blood-pumping action of respirations and skeletal muscle contractions
_____ shock results from a condition in which infectious agents release toxins into the blood. Septic
Blood viscosity stems mainly from the red blood cells but also partly from the _____ in blood. protein molecules present
The term used to describe the collection of mechanisms that influence the circulation of blood is: hemodynamics
Which are the two baroreceptors that are located near the heart? aortic baroreceptors and carotid baroreceptors
The vagus is said to act as a “brake” on the heart. This situation is called vagal inhibition.
The difference between systolic pressure and diastolic pressure is called pulse pressure.
Cardiac output is determined by stroke volume and heart rate.
_____, a natural constituent of blood, acts as an antithrombin and prevents clots from forming in vessels. Heparin
A glycoprotein hormone that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissues is erythropoietin
What is the functional significance of large areas of cardiac muscle being electrically coupled to form a single functional syncytium? Because they form a syncytium, muscle cells can pass an action potential along a large area of the heart wall, stimulating contraction in each muscle fiber of the syncytium.
Blood pressure is measured with the aid of an apparatus known as a(n) sphygmomanometer
Starling’s law of the heart states that, within limits, the longer, or more stretched, the heart fibers are at the beginning of the contraction, the stronger the contraction.
Erythrocytes begin their maturation sequence in red bone marrow from nucleated cells known as: hematopoietic stem cells.
If damaged, which valve could allow blood to leak back into the right atrium? Tricuspid
Blood volume per kilogram of body weight varies inversely with: body fat.
The term used to describe the collection of mechanisms that influence the circulation of blood is: hemodynamics
Which of the following is not true of ventricles? They are the pumping chambers of the heart, The myocardium of the ventricles is thicker than that of the atria, The myocardium of the left ventricle is thicker than that of the right ventricle.
The chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies are particularly sensitive to: hypercapnia
Platelets play an important role in blood clotting.
Circulatory shock caused by a drop in the amount of blood in the circulatory system is called _____ shock. hypovolemic
A hematocrit of 56% would be an indication of: polycythemia
_____ is used to determine the volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood. Hematocrit
The localized pressure gradient needed to maintain blood flow in a tissue is called perfusion pressure.
Lymph is filtered by the lymph nodes
The lymphatic organs produce lymphocytes
The purpose of the lymphatic system is to fight against infection
Fluid that is clear, watery and contains protein molecules, salts, and other substances is called intercellular fluid
The lymphatic system is made up of lymphatic vessels where lymph flows in only one direction towards the heart
The T cell is considered the communicator
Millions of B cells release millions of antibodies
During their residence in the thymus, pre-T cells develop into _____, cells that proliferate as rapidly as any in the body. thymocytes
Chemotaxis is the process by which a cell navigates toward the source of the chemotactic factor by way of detecting and then moving toward higher concentrations of the factor.
Lymphocytes that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses are known as natural killer cells.
The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles is called phagocytosis
Which of these substances operate(s) immune mechanisms? sebum, mucus, enzymes,hydrochloric acid in gastric mucosa
The lymph pressure gradient is established by: breathing movements and skeletal muscle contractions.
_____ refers to a phenomenon in which the genetic characteristics common to a particular kind of organism provide defense against certain pathogens. Species resistance
Complement can best be described as a(n): enzyme in blood.
Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an antigen’s epitopes fit into and bind to an antigen molecule’s antigen-binding site.
The presentation of an antigen by an antigen-presenting cell activates the T cell. The cell then divides repeatedly to form a clone of identical sensitized T cells that form effector T cells and memory cells.
The functions of the lymph nodes are defense and hematopoiesis.
What is the function of the spleen? tissue repair, hematopoiesis, red blood cell and platelet destruction, blood reservoir
Activities that result in central movement or flow of lymph are called lymphokinetic activities.
The body’s defense mechanisms can be organized into one of two major categories of immune mechanisms; these are innate and adaptive immunity.
The functions of the lymphatic system include: transporting interstitial fluid back to the bloodstream, providing immunological defenses, transporting absorbed fats from the intestine to the blood, houses and develops lymphocytes.
Which organ has several functions, including defense, hematopoiesis, red blood cell and platelet destruction, and blood reservoir? spleen
_______ is the only antibody class with the ability to cross the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to the developing fetus during pregnancy. IgG
The function of which antibody is basically unknown? IgD
The lymphatic system serves various functions in the body. The two most important functions of this system are fluid balance and immunity.
Memory cells: become plasma cells when exposed to an antigen.
During the respiratory cycle, intrapleural pressure is always less than alveolar pressure. This difference is called transpulmonary pressure.
Hyperpnea means a(n) increase in breathing.
Pressure gradients are established by changes in the thoracic cavity.
Oxygen enters blood from alveolar air because the partial pressure of alveolar air is greater than the partial pressure of incoming blood.
In what form does oxygen travel in the blood? dissolved oxygen in the plasma and associated with hemoglobin
An increase in carbon dioxide in the blood causes a drop in pH in the blood.
During inspiration, as the size of the thorax increases, the intrapleural and alveolar pressures decrease.
Which structural feature facilitates oxygen diffusion from the alveolar air into the blood in lung capillaries? The alveolar and capillary walls are both very thin. The alveolar and capillary surfaces are both extremely large. The lung capillaries accommodate a large amount of blood at one time. Each red blood cell comes close to alveolar air.
Which term refers to the volume of inspired air that actually reaches, or “ventilates,” the alveoli? alveolar ventilation
The apparatus used to measure the volume of air exchanged in breathing is called a(n) spirometer
The _____ represents the largest volume of air an individual can move in and out of the lungs. vital capacity
_____ law states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure. Boyle’s
The exact amount of oxygen in blood depends mainly on the amount of hemoglobin
The volume of air exhaled normally after a typical inspiration is called _____ volume. tidal
An obstructive lung disorder that is characterized by recurring spasms of the smooth muscles in the wall of the bronchial air passages is asthma
When carbon dioxide dissolves in water, some of the carbon dioxide molecules associate with water to form carbonic acid.
The sensors that provide feedback information to the medullary rhythmicity area are the central chemoreceptors and peripheral chemoreceptors.
The ability of the lungs and thorax to stretch is referred to as compliance
The amount of oxygen that diffuses into blood each minute depends on which factor? oxygen pressure gradient between alveolar air and incoming pulmonary blood total functional surface area of the respiratory membrane respiratory minute volume alveolar ventilation
The exit of the bicarbonate ion from the red blood cell is balanced by the inward transport of another negative ion, chloride. This countertransport of negative ions is often called the _____ shift. chloride
The forced expiratory volume test can determine the presence of respiratory obstruction by measuring the volume of air expired per second during forced expiration.
The basic rhythm of the respiratory cycle of inspiration and expiration seems to be generated by the medullary rhythmicity area.
A right shift of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve due to increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide is also known as the Bohr effect.
What variations exist in the body to temporarily store or carry oxygen? neuroglobin myoglobin fetal hemoglobin
More than two-thirds of the carbon dioxide carried by blood is carried in the form of bicarbonate ions.
The mechanism that produces pulmonary ventilation is one that establishes a gas pressure gradient between the atmosphere and the alveolar air.
The compound formed when carbon dioxide combines with hemoglobin is carbaminohemoglobin
According to the law of partial pressures, the partial pressure of gas in a mixture of gases is directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and to the total pressure of the mixture.
Which oxygen-binding protein helps move oxygen out of the blood and into muscle cells? myoglobin
Dalton law states that the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture of gases is _____ to the total pressure of the mixture. directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and
The function of the vibrissae in the vestibule is to: provide an initial “filter” to screen particulate matter from air that is entering the system.
Gas exchange, the lungs’ main and vital function, takes place in the: alveoli.
Which of the following constitutes total lung volume? Residual volume and vital capacity
The approximate partial pressure of oxygen at standard atmospheric pressure is about _____ mm Hg. 160
External respiration can be defined as: the exchange of gases between the lung and the blood capillaries in the lung. pulmonary ventilation.
One hundred milliliters of arterial blood contains approximately what volume percent of oxygen? 20%
The function of surfactant is to: prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration.
When the pressure in the lung is greater than atmospheric pressure: expiration occurs.
Which of the following helps determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute? The total functional surface area of the respiratory membrane Alveolar ventilation The oxygen pressure gradient between alveolar air and incoming pulmonary blood
The major form by which carbon dioxide is transported in the circulatory system is: as bicarbonate ions.
Internal respiration can be defined as: the exchange of gases between the blood capillaries and the tissue cells.
By the time the blood leaves the lung capillaries to return to the heart, what percentage of the blood’s hemoglobin has united with oxygen? 97%
Ciliated cells lining the respiratory tract: help move the mucus blanket toward the pharynx.
The term used to describe the volume of air exchanged during normal inspiration and expiration is: tidal volume.
During inspiration, the expansion of the lungs causes: a decrease in alveolar pressure.
Standard atmospheric pressure is _____ mm Hg. 760
The PCO2 in alveolar air is _____ blood. less than in the systemic venous and equal to the systemic arterial
The ejection of bile from the gallbladder is controlled by which hormones? CCK and secretin
Stimulation of gastric juice secretion occurs in all of the following phases except the _____ phase. digestive
The wave-like ripple of the muscle layer of the GI tract is called peristalsis
The final step in lipid transport by the intestines is the formation of chylomicrons
During which stage of swallowing is there a risk of food entering respiratory pathways? Oropharyngeal
The process of deglutition includes all of the following except the _____ stage. laryngeal
CCK is an intestinal hormone that causes the pancreas to increase secretion of exocrine high in enzymatic content. opposes the influence of gastrin on gastric parietal cells. stimulates contraction of the gallbladder so that bile can pass into the duodenum.
Saliva contains the enzyme amylase
_____ is the passage of substances through the intestinal mucosa into the blood or lymph. Absorption
Peristalsis is regulated in part by the intrinsic stretch reflexes. It is also thought to be stimulated by the hormone cholecystokinin (CCK)
What percentage of this blood flow comes from the hepatic portal system? 80%
The act of expelling feces is called defecation
Chemical digestion requires the secretion of _____ into the lumen of the GI tract. digestive enzymes and bile
The chemical process in which a compound unites with water and then splits into simpler compounds is called hydrolysis
Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by hydrochloric acid, which is produced by the _____ of the gastric glands. parietal cells
Fats and other nutrients in the duodenum stimulate the intestinal mucosa to release a hormone called gastric inhibitory peptide.
Because fats are insoluble in water, they must be emulsified
The hormone that inhibits gastric muscle, slowing passage of food into the duodenum, is called: gastric inhibitory peptide.
Which blood vessel carries absorbed food from the GI tract to the liver? Portal vein
The process of swallowing is known as: deglutition
An end product of fat digestion is: glycerol
Which of the following is not a function of the liver? Secretion of insulin
Which of the following is not true of enzymes? They change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction.
Which step of deglutition is under voluntary control? Oral stage
The substances absorbed into the lymph capillaries are: glycerol and fatty acids.
Which of the processes of mechanical digestion involves the esophagus? Deglutition Peristalsis
The intestinal hormone cholecystokinin: causes the pancreas to increase exocrine secretions high in enzyme content. opposes the influence of gastrin on gastric parietal cells. stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder.
The final product of carbohydrate digestion is a: monosaccharide
The major site for the absorption of the end products of digestion is the: small intestine.
The enzyme pepsin begins the digestion of: protein
Which phase(s) of gastric secretion is(are) stimulated by the sight, taste, and smell of food? Cephalic phase
The purpose of peristalsis is to: propel food forward along the GI tract.
Which of these is not an example of mechanical digestion? Moistening the food
Cellulose is a residue of digestion that comes from: carbohydrates
The hormone that stimulates the release of bicarbonate substance from the pancreas is: secretin
Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as: amylase
The sodium cotransport or coupled transport acts to transport sodium ions and glucose molecules _____ the GI lumen. passively out of
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