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Nicolas Giallongo
Human Physiology with Lab - SCI 221 (Module 1-6)
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Extrinsic control usually involves which mode of regulation? | Both A and B are correct. Nervous and Endocrine |
| The impact of effector activity on sensors may be positive or negative. Therefore, homeostatic control mechanisms are categorized as | organs that are directly influenced by physiological variables or mechanisms. |
| Processes for maintaining or restoring homeostasis are known as | homeostatic control mechanisms. |
| Events that lead to an immune response to an infection or the formation of a blood clot are examples of | positive feedback. |
| Which of the following is a basic component of every feedback control loop? | All of these are components of a feedback control loop. sensor mechanism, integrating center, effector, feedback |
| What term describes a signal traveling toward a particular center or point of reference? | afferent |
| To accomplish self-regulation, a highly complex and integrated communication control system or network is required. This type of network is called a(n) | feedback control loop. |
| The concept that information may flow ahead to another process to trigger a change in anticipation of an event that will follow is called | feed-forward. |
| The normal reading or range is called the | set point. |
| Because negative feedback control systems oppose changes that are opposite in direction to the initial disturbance, they are | slowed or maintained in the homeostatic range. |
| The body naturally changes some set points to different values at different times of the day. These daily cyles are called | circadian cycles. |
| Local control or _____, intrinsic mechanisms often make use of chemical signals. | autoregulation |
| The relatively constant state maintained by the body is known as | homeostasis. |
| Effectors can be described as | organs that directly influence controlled physiological variables. |
| Many complex processes of the body are coordinated at many levels. These include | All of these are correct. Intracellular, intrinsic, extrinsic |
| Which level of control operates at the cell level, often using genes and enzymes to regulate cell function? | intracellular regulation |
| Negative-feedback mechanisms: | All of the above are correct. minimize changes in blood glucose levels, maintain homeostasis, are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature. |
| Negative-feedback control systems: | oppose a change. |
| Positive-feedback control systems: | accelerate a change. |
| Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called: | viruses |
| The normal reading or range of normal is called the: | set point. |
| Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? | Reproductive |
| Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? | Reproductive |
| Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? | Transmitter |
| Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: | both A and C. the body trying to maintain homeostasis, a negative-feedback mechanism |
| Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? | All of the above environment, stress, lifestyle |
| If the secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative-feedback control loop, what effect would it have on uterine contractions? | Oxytocin would inhibit uterine contractions. |
| The body’s thermostat is located in the: | hypothalamus. |
| The term that literally means self-immunity is: | autoimmunity. |
| Pathogenesis can be defined as: | the course of disease development. |
| Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex? | Tapeworms |
| Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? | Prion |
| Homeostasis can best be described as: | a state of relative constancy. |
| Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations. | All of the above are correct. occurence, distribution, transmission |
| Intrinsic control: | is sometimes called autoregulation. |
| The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback. | positive |
| A saturated fatty acid is one in which | all available bonds of its hydrocarbon chain are filled. |
| Chaperone proteins assist in the proper folding of other proteins so they can have the correct functional shape. | True |
| Which of the following is polymer of glucose that is sometimes referred to as animal starch? | Glycogen |
| What determines how a protein performs? | shape |
| Which term means “water loving” and applies to the phospholipid head? | hydrophilic |
| A very large molecule composed of subunits of sugar, a nitrogen base, and a phosphate bond is a | nucleic acid. |
| What term is often used to describe certain arrangements of atoms attached to the carbon core of many organic molecules? | functional group |
| All proteins have which four elements? | carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen |
| In base pairing of DNA molecules, _____ is bound to _____. | adenine; thymine |
| The lipid that is often referred to as a tissue hormone is | prostaglandin |
| A triglyceride is composed of a glycerol molecule and three of the same type of fatty acid. | False |
| When two amino acids are joined, a peptide bond is formed and an H+ ion is released. | False |
| The most important monosaccharide is | glucose |
| Which of these is not a lipid? | polysaccharide |
| DNA and RNA are important because | information molecules. |
| ATP | is the form of energy that cells generally use. |
| Proteins are polymers of | amino acids. |
| The carbon-containing molecules formed by living things are often called | organic molecules. |
| Any large molecule made up of many identical small molecules is called a(n) | polymer |
| RNA and DNA have the same pyrimidine bases but different purine bases. | False |
| Which of the following is not true of RNA? | All of the above are true of RNA. it contains ribose sugar, adenine and is composed of nucleotides |
| Which level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids? | Primary |
| DNA | is a double-helix strand of nucleotides. |
| Which lipid is part of vitamin D? | Steroids |
| The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called: | dehydration synthesis. |
| The roles played by proteins can be divided into which categories? | Structural and functional |
| When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide? | Maltose |
| Which energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule does not contain a nucleotide? | Creatine phosphate |
| The amino group in an amino acid is: | NH3+. |
| Which lipid acts as a “tissue hormone”? | Prostaglandin |
| A _____ is a functional group that is temporarily unattached and is highly reactive because of unpaired electrons. | free radical |
| A structural lipid found in the cell membrane is a: | Both B and C are correct. phospholipid and steroid |
| Which of the following is not true of carbohydrates? | All of the above are true of carbohydrates. |
| Amino acids frequently become joined by: | peptide bonds. |
| Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included in the diet, are called: | essential amino acids. |
| All of the following substances are organic except: | electrolytes |
| The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are: | steroids |
| Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics? | Both have a ring structure in their molecule. |
| Peptide bonds join together molecules of: | amino acids. |
| Which of the following is not one of the major groups of organic substances in the human body? | Salts |
| The cell process in which microorganisms or other large particles are engulfed is called | phagocytosis |
| RNA makes proteins by | translation |
| If oxygen is available, the pyruvate molecules formed by glycolysis are prepared to enter the next phase of aerobic cellular respiration, called the | citric acid cycle. |
| Diffusion can be defined as | the net movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration. |
| Which of the following phases is NOT correctly matched with its description? | anaphase – mitosis is complete |
| Replication of DNA occurs in which phase of interphase? | S phase |
| Normal mitosis results in | cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell. |
| Meiosis is called “reduction division” because | the number of chromosomes is reduced by half. |
| The total number of 46 chromosomes per cell is referred to as _________ number. | diploid |
| In the DNA molecule, a sequence of three base pairs forms a(n) | codon |
| Red blood cells are placed in an unknown solution. After 45 minutes, the cells are examined and determined to have decreased in size. The unknown solution is | hypertonic |
| A molecule or other agent that alters enzyme function by changing its shape is called a(n) | allosteric effector. |
| The component that distinguishes one nucleotide from another is the | nitrogen base. |
| If red blood cells containing 10% solute are placed in a solution containing 10% solute, what will happen? | Water will move into and out of the cells at equal rates. |
| Water pressure that develops in a solution as a result of osmosis into that solution is called _____ pressure. | osmotic |
| Facilitated diffusion is not an active transport process because it | does not depend on cell energy. |
| In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes move to the opposite ends of the cells along the spindle fibers? | anaphase |
| The two processes of protein synthesis are | transcription and translation. |
| Meiotic division occurs in | primitive sex cells. |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of meiosis? | two haploid gametes |
| Diffusion moves | down a concentration gradient. |
| The result of meiosis is | four daughter cells that are haploid. |
| Glycolysis occurs in what part of the cell? | cytoplasm |
| Which of the following is an active transport process? | endocytosis |
| In the electron transport system, the final electron acceptor is | oxygen |
| Transcription can best be described as the | synthesis of mRNA. |
| Proteins that act as catalysts are called | enzymes |
| Osmosis can be defined as | the net movement of water molecules from a region of lower solute concentration to a region of higher solute concentration. |
| Mitosis is subdivided into four phases, including all of the following except | karyophase |
| A chemical that reduces the amount of activation energy needed to start a chemical reaction is a(n) | catalyst |
| Which of the following statements is true? | The site of transcription is within the nucleus, whereas the site of translation is in the cytoplasm. |
| Diffusion of particles through a membrane by means of a carrier molecule is called: | facilitated diffusion. |
| Two solutions of different concentrations of glucose are separated by a membrane that allows both glucose and water to pass through. When dynamic equilibrium is reached, there will be: | an even exchange of material across the membrane. |
| If a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were A-U-C-G-A, which of the following would be true about the nucleic acid? | It contains ribose sugar. |
| Transcription can be best described as the: | synthesis of mRNA. |
| The pairing of bases of a strand of DNA is obligatory. If a strand of DNA were composed of the base sequence of ATCG, what would be the obligatory sequence of its opposing base pairs? | TAGC |
| During which stage of mitosis do the centrioles move to the opposite poles of the cell? | Prophase |
| A sequence of three bases forms a(n): | codon. |
| Which of the following is not true of RNA? | It contains deoxyribose sugar. |
| Water will move through the cell membrane by: | osmosis. |
| The correct order of the phases of mitosis is: | prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase. |
| Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as: | haploid. |
| An individual’s entire set of DNA can be referred to as a: | genome. |
| All of the following occur as a result of meiosis except: | chromosome number remains at 46. |
| The small water channels in the cell membrane are called: | aquaporins. |
| Which of the following is not true of diffusion? | Uses cellular energy |
| Materials can be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through: | active transport. |
| Which is true about the sodium and potassium pump? | Three sodium ions are taken out of the cell. |
| NaCl would move through the cell membrane in which direction? | Both into and out of the cell |
| Phagocytosis is an example of: | endocytosis |
| Which skin layer has cells that look prickly because of the desmosomes that join the cells together? | Stratum spinosum |
| Smooth muscles that produce goose pimples when they contract are the _____ muscles. | arrector pili |
| Which skin layer is called the barrier area? | Stratum corneum |
| The hair papilla consists of _____ tissue. | dermal |
| Fingernail growth is the result of the mitosis of the cells in the stratum: | germinativum. |
| Apocrine sweat glands can be found in all of the following areas except the: | soles of the feet. |
| Which cells of the skin act as a type of antigen-presenting cell in the skin? | Dendritic cells |
| In which skin layer does the process of keratinization begin? | Stratum granulosum |
| The hair follicle is found in the: | dermis. |
| The gland responsible for the waxy secretion in the external ear canal is: | ceruminous |
| The nail body forms at the nail root, which has a matrix of proliferating cells from the _____________ that enables the nail to grow continuously. | stratum basale |
| Which is not part of a hair? | Lanugo |
| Which skin layer contains closely packed, clear cells that contain a gel-like substance called eleidin? | Stratum lucidum |
| Which cells of the skin are filled with a tough, fibrous protein and account for most of the epidermal cells of the skin? | Keratinocytes |
| Hair: | is all of the above. alternates between periods of growth and rest, consists of keratinized cells, is formed from cells of the germinal matrix. |
| Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? | Connective |
| Which of the following is not a proteoglycan found in the matrix of connective tissue? | Collagen |
| Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the: | bones. |
| Areolar tissue usually contains which types of cells in the greatest number? | Fibroblasts |
| What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina? | Basement membrane |
| Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: | mesenchyme. |
| Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate? | Epithelial |
| A tissue is: | a group of similar cells that perform a common function. |
| Which type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing heat? | Brown fat |
| Which of the following epithelial functions is a primary activity of glandular epithelium? | Secretion |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of smooth muscles? | Having intercalated disks |
| Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways. | True |
| Which of the following is not a function of adipose tissue? | Defends the body from microbes and injurious substances |
| Which is not a function of epithelial tissue? | Assimilation |
| Which is not a function of connective tissue? | Communication |
| Which cells electrically insulate axons to increase the speed of conduction? | Both A and B Oligodentrocytes and Astrocytes |
| Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the stratum: | basale. |
| The papillary layer of the dermis: | produces the ridges that make fingerprints. |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of muscle tissue? | Cells are separated by a large quantity of extracellular matrix |
| Which of the following vitamins is(are) absorbed through the skin? | All of the above Vitamin A, D, K |
| What is are the two types/functions of bone marrow? | Red & yellow – produces red blood cells and stores energy as fat. |
| The external portion of the bone is known as | Cortical bone |
| Bones grow due to activity in the | Epiphyseal plates |
| Which of the following is NOT CONSIDERED a long bone. | C5 Vertebral Body |
| When an astronaut is in space for 2 months what may happen to their bone density as compared to a person living on earth? | The astronaut will experience bone loss at an increased rate as a person on earth |
| Why is cartilage slow to heal. | Both B & C. Because it is semi-solid and flexible and Because has a no or a limited blood supply |
| Which of the following is a location in which you would find fibrous cartilage | Only C and D. Public symphysis and Interverbal discs |
| Select the answer that best describes the axial skeletal structure. | D) Provides framework for muscles that anchor and stabilize the appendicular bones |
| Adipocytes, found in the yellow bone marrow, stores and releases ____________________________ for energy. | fat and triglycerides |
| Which function of the skeletal system would be especially important if you were in a car accident? | protection of internal organs |
| Without red bone marrow, bones would not be able to ________. | make blood cells |
| Which of the following provide flexibility and smooth surfaces for movement? | Cartilages |
| The fontenelles of an infant's skull consists of | fibrous membrane |
| Which statement below is correct regarding fontanelles? | All of the above. The anterior and posterior fontanelles allow for overlaping of skull bones to decrease the diamiter of the fetal head at birth, Allows for brain growth, The anterior fontanelle closes at about 2 years of age, and are fibrous |
| Hematopoietic stem cells that are found in red bone marrow can develop into a variety of different blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. | True |
| A person with a fractured patella would expect discomfort in the: | knee. |
| The humerus articulates proximally with the clavicle. | False |
| Please select the bone positioned most superiorly on the human skeleton | frontal |
| The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are: | endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus. |
| Blood calcium levels involve secretion of which two hormones? | parathyroid and calcitonin |
| One similarity between the structures of the foot and hand is the equivalent degrees of movement of both the thumb and the big toe. | False |
| Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _____ years. | 35 and 40 |
| After the age of 50, the density of bone: | decreases slowly because of a shift in the remodeling activity. |
| An age-related skeletal disease that is characterized by loss of bone mineral density and increased bone fragility is | osteoporosis. |
| A condition that is caused by an abnormally increased roundness in the thoracic curvature is | kyphosis. |
| If there is an injury to the occipital bone you may expect that which sense is damaged? | vision |
| Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes begin to divide and secrete | additional matrix. |
| Bones grow in diameter by the combined action of which two of the three bone cell types? | osteoblasts and osteoclasts |
| Until bone growth in length is complete, a layer of the cartilage, known as the _____, remains between the epiphysis and diaphysis. | epiphyseal plate |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of the epiphyses? | Cylindrical in shape |
| Which of the following is not dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood? | All of the above are dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood. Blood Clotting, transmission of nerve impulses, contraction of cardiac muscle |
| Calcification of the organic bone matrix occurs when | complex calcium salts are deposited in the matrix. |
| In intramembranous ossification, the process of appositional growth refers to the: | addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones. |
| The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: | in the diaphysis. |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of the diaphysis? | Provides a bulbous shape for attachment of muscle |
| The joint present during the growth years between the epiphyses of a long bone and its diaphysis is the | synchrondrosis |
| The contractile unit of a muscle cell is the | sarcomere. |
| Synarthrotic joints are | immovable. |
| The more muscle fibers contracting at the same time, the stronger the contraction of the entire muscle. The number of muscle fibers contracting depends on how many motor units are | recruited. |
| Exercise may cause an increase in muscle size called | hypertrophy. |
| If a structural classification is used, joints are named according to the type of _____ tissue that joins the bones together. | connective |
| Synovial joints are | freely movable. |
| _____ occurs when the foot is tilted upward, thus decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg. | Dorsiflexion |
| Joints joined by fibrocartilage are called | symphyses. |
| The energy required for muscular contraction is obtained by hydrolysis of | ATP. |
| Three phases of the twitch contraction are the | latent period, contraction phase, and relaxation phase. |
| Muscle tone is maintained by | negative feedback mechanisms. |
| Which of the following is not a function of muscles? | storage |
| According to the sliding filament theory | actin moves past myosin. |
| Which type of movement occurs between the carpal and tarsal bones and between the articular facets of adjoining spinal vertebrae? | gliding |
| The structure of the knee joint permits movements of | flexion and extension. |
| The shoulder joint is an example of a _____ joint. | The shoulder joint is an example of all of these. |
| Which structure allows the electrical signals to travel along the sarcolemma and move deeper into the cell? | transverse tubule |
| The joints between the articulating surfaces of the vertebral processes are classified as what type of joint? | gliding |
| The largest and most commonly injured joint in the body is the _____ joint. | knee |
| Which of the following is an example of a uniaxial joint? | elbow joint |
| Repeated stimulation of muscle in time lessens its excitability and contractibility and may result in | fatigue. |
| Which of the following is not among the structures that characterize synovial joints? | tendons |
| Anaerobic respiration results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule called | lactate . |
| A contraction in which muscle length remains the same but muscle tension increases is called an | isometric contraction. |
| The muscle’s ability to stretch or extend and to return to its resting length is called | extensibility. |
| The minimal level of stimulation required to cause a fiber to contract is called the | threshold stimulus. |
| The four kinds of protein that make up myofilaments are myosin, actin, | tropomyosin, and troponin. |
| Some synovial joints contain a closed pillow-like structure called a(n) | bursa. |
| Which subtype of fibrous joints is found only in the skull? | suture |
| Rotator cuff surgery is performed quite commonly on professional baseball players, especially pitchers. Evidently, the throwing motion places enormous stress on the: | shoulder |
| Which type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis? | Single-unit smooth |
| Physiological muscle fatigue may be caused by: | all of the above. a relative lack of ATP. high levels of lactate. failure of the sodium-potassium pumps. |
| Aerobic respiration: | produces the maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule. |
| The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is: | myosin. |
| Which of the following proteins found in myofilaments contains the cross-bridges? | Myosin |
| The contractile unit of a muscle cell is the | sarcomere. |
| In terms of function, which is considered an immovable joint? | Synarthrosis |
| Stretching the foot down and back and pointing the toe is called: | plantar flexion. |
| Which of the following is not one of the major functions of muscles? | Protection |
| The strength of a muscle contraction is influenced by the: | All of the above are correct. amount of load. initial length of muscle fibers. recruitment of motor units. |
| After it is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the calcium combines with which protein? | Troponin |
| Which joint allows for the most movement? | Ball and socket |
| Moving a body part away from the medial plane of the body is called: | abduction. |
| Which of the following terms describes an isometric contraction? | Static tension |
| During inspiration, the _____ flatten(s), thus increasing the size and volume of the thoracic cavity. | diaphragm |
| Which joint allows for a unique movement called opposition? | Saddle |
| Three phases of the twitch contraction are the | latent period, contraction phase, and relaxation phase. |
| Which of the following is not an end-product of the breakdown of ATP? | All of the above are end-products of the breakdown of ATP. An inorganic phosphate. Energy that can be used in muscle contraction. ADP |
| The opposite of eversion is: | inversion |
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