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Nightingale
Physiology Practice Final
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called: viruses. bacteria. fungi. protozoa. | viruses. |
| Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? Circulatory Endocrine Lymphatic Reproductive | Reproductive |
| Pathogenesis can be defined as: a specific disease. a group of diseases. the course of disease development. a subgroup of viruses. | the course of disease development. |
| Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? Environment Stress Lifestyle All of the above | All of the above |
| The term that literally means self-immunity is: autoimmunity. homoimmunity. passive immunity. active immunity. | autoimmunity. |
| Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex? Viruses Tapeworms Bacteria Protozoa | Tapeworms |
| Intrinsic control: usually involves the endocrine or nervous system. operates at the cellular level. is sometimes called autoregulation. operates at the system or organism level. | is sometimes called autoregulation. |
| Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations. occurrence distribution transmission All of the above are correct. | All of the above are correct. |
| Positive-feedback control systems: have no effect on the deviation from set point. accelerate a change. ignore a change. do not exist in human systems. | accelerate a change. |
| Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: the body trying to maintain homeostasis. a positive-feedback mechanism. a negative-feedback mechanism. both A and C. | both A and C. |
| The body’s thermostat is located in the: heart. cerebellum. pituitary. hypothalamus. | hypothalamus. |
| Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? Effector mechanism Transmitter Sensor Integrating center | Transmitter |
| Homeostasis can best be described as: a constant state maintained by living and nonliving organisms. a state of relative constancy. adaptation to the external environment. changes in body temperature. | a state of relative constancy. |
| The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback. negative positive inhibitory deviating | positive |
| If the secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative-feedback control loop, what effect would it have on uterine contractions? Oxytocin would stimulate stronger uterine contractions. Oxytocin would inhibit uterine contractions. | Oxytocin would inhibit uterine contractions |
| Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics? Both are found in the cell membrane. Both have a ring structure in their molecule. Both have a saturated fat in their structure. None of the above are shared charac | Both have a ring structure in their molecule. |
| Peptide bonds join together molecules of: glycerol. glucose. amino acids. water. | amino acids. |
| All of the following substances are organic except: lipids. electrolytes. carbohydrates. proteins. | electrolytes. |
| The type of lipoprotein associated with “bad” cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels is: HDL.(High-Density Lipoprotein) LDL (Low-Density Lipoprotein) VHDL. none of the above. | LDL. |
| DNA: is a single strand of nucleotides. contains the sugar ribose. is a double-helix strand of nucleotides. transports amino acids during protein synthesis. | is a double-helix strand of nucleotides. |
| Which of the following is not true of carbohydrates? They include substances commonly called sugars. They are the body’s primary source of energy. They are a part of both DNA and RNA. All of the above are true of carbohydrates. | All of the above are true of carbohydrates. |
| Which energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule does not contain a nucleotide? FAD Creatine phosphate NAD ATP | Creatine phosphate |
| When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide? Sucrose Maltose Lactose Fructose | Maltose |
| The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are: triglycerides. phosphoglycerides. steroids. prostaglandins. | steroids. |
| Which of the following is not true of RNA? It contains ribose sugar. It contains adenine. It is composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides. All of the above are true of RNA. | All of the above are true of RNA. |
| Amino acids frequently become joined by: peptide bonds. catabolic reactions. atrophic reactions. all of the above. | peptide bonds. |
| A structural lipid found in the cell membrane is a: triglyceride. phospholipid. steroid. Both B and C are correct. | Both B and C are correct. |
| The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of _____, with _____ being the dominant component. a lipid and a protein; the lipid carbohydrate and protein; carbohydrate a lipid and a protein; the protein | carbohydrate and protein; protein |
| Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included in the diet, are called: enzymes. essential amino acids. structural proteins. peptide bonds. | essential amino acids. |
| Unsaturated fats: contain all the hydrogen atoms they can hold. contain only single bonds between carbon atoms. are usually solids at room temperature. will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms. | will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms. |
| Which of the following epithelial functions is a primary activity of glandular epithelium? Protection Secretion Sensation Excretion | Secretion |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of skeletal muscles? Having one nucleus per cell Being attached to bone Having striations Having voluntary or “willed” muscles | Having one nucleus per cell |
| Areolar tissue usually contains which types of cells in the greatest number? Macrophages Fibroblasts Mast cells Phagocytes | Fibroblasts |
| Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? Muscle Nervous Epithelial Connective | Connective |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of epithelial tissue? Forms glands that secrete substances into and out of the body Is important in communication and control Covers and protects body surfaces Lines the interior of body cavi | Is important in communication and control |
| The hypodermis: connects the dermis to underlying tissues. is the layer of skin in which hair is produced. connects the dermis and the epidermis. is the layer of skin in which the nails are produced. | connects the dermis to underlying tissues. |
| Which of the following vitamins is(are) absorbed through the skin? Vitamin A Vitamin D Vitamin K All of the above | All of the above |
| Which cells form the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood? Oligodendrocytes Neurons Astrocytes Microglia | Astrocytes |
| Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways. True False | True |
| Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: mesenchyme. blastocyst. endoderm. ectoderm. | mesenchyme. |
| The area referred to as true skin is the: stratum corneum. subcutaneous layer. dermis. hypodermis. | dermis. |
| Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the: heart. lungs. bones. intestines. | bones. |
| A tissue is: a membrane that lines body cavities. a group of similar cells that perform a common function. a thin sheet of cells embedded in a matrix. the most complex organizational unit of the body. | a group of similar cells that perform a common function. |
| Which is not a function of epithelial tissue? Absorption Secretion Assimilation Protection | Assimilation |
| What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina? Nucleus Basement membrane Lysosome Endoplasmic reticulum | Basement membrane |
| The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: in the diaphysis. in the epiphysis. in the medullary cavity. at the epiphyseal cartilage. | in the diaphysis. |
| Hematopoiesis is carried out in the: osteoclasts. osteocytes. yellow bone marrow. red bone marrow. | red bone marrow. |
| The following are functions of bone except for support. protection. mineral storage. hematopoiesis. All of the above are functions of the bone | All of the above are functions of the bone |
| Which of the following may cause skeletal variations? Inadequate supply of calcium and vitamin D Mechanical stress Age All of the above may cause skeletal variations | All of the above may cause skeletal variations |
| The humerus articulates proximally with the radius. ulna. scapula. does not have a proximal articulation | scapula. |
| A condition that is caused by an abnormally increased roundness in the thoracic curvature is kyphosis. scoliosis. Scheuermann disease. lordosis. | kyphosis. |
| One similarity between the structures of the foot and hand is the equivalent degrees of movement of both the thumb and the big toe. True False | False |
| Bones act as a reservoir for which of the following minerals? Copper Calcium Phosphorus Both B and C | Both B and C |
| The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are: mitochondria and Golgi apparatus. ribosomes and Golgi apparatus. endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes. endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus. | endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus. |
| The cells responsible for active erosion of bone minerals are called: osteocytes. osteoclasts. osteoblasts. osteomorphytes. | osteoclasts. |
| Bones grow in diameter by the combined action of which two of the three bone cell types? osteoblasts and osteocytes osteoblasts and osteoclasts osteoclasts and osteocytes osteocytes and osteons | osteoblasts and osteoclasts |
| As the activity of osteoblasts increases, the: level of calcium in the blood increases. amount of calcium in bone increases. level of calcium in the blood decreases. Both B and C occur. | Both B and C occur. |
| During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the: pelvic outlet. symphysis pubis. pelvic brim. ilium. | pelvic outlet. |
| Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _____ years. 20 and 25 25 and 30 30 and 35 35 and 40 | 35 and 40 |
| Which of the following is not dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood? Blood clotting Transmission of nerve impulses Contraction of cardiac muscle All of the above are dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the bl | All of the above are dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood. |
| Which muscle group extends the vertebral column and also flexes the back laterally and rotates it a little? erector spinae levator ani rectus abdominis serratus anterior | erector spinae |
| Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in which type of muscle contraction? Isotonic Flaccid Treppe Isometric | Isometric |
| Aerobic respiration: allows the body to avoid the use of oxygen for a short time. results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule. results in the formation of lactate. produces the maximum amount of energy available from | produces the maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule. |
| Which of the following terms describes an isometric contraction? Eccentric contraction Static tension Concentric contraction Both A and C | Static tension |
| Physiological muscle fatigue may be caused by: a relative lack of ATP. high levels of lactate. failure of the sodium-potassium pumps. all of the above. | all of the above. |
| Which type of muscle does not have T-tubules? Smooth Cardiac Striated All muscles have T-tubules. | Smooth |
| A gliding joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. uniaxial biaxial multiaxial pivot | multiaxial |
| All of the following are characteristics of smooth muscle except: there are no striations. there are no T-tubules. thin and thick filaments are aligned in sarcomeres like skeletal muscles. the sarcoplasmic reticula are loosely organized. | thin and thick filaments are aligned in sarcomeres like skeletal muscles. |
| Skeletal muscles are innervated by: somatic motor neurons. autonomic motor neurons. both somatic and autonomic motor neurons. internal stimulation. | somatic motor neurons. |
| The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to: carry oxygen. store calcium. replenish energy supply. rotate the cross-bridges. | replenish energy supply |
| The ability of muscle cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called: irritability. contractility. extensibility. elasticity. | irritability. |
| A condyloid joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. uniaxial biaxial multiaxial immovable | biaxial |
| During which phase of the twitch contraction is there a triggering of the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm? Latent period Contraction phase Relaxation phase None of the above | Contraction phase |
| The substance that attracts oxygen in the myoglobin molecule is: hemoglobin. calcium. iron. ATP. | iron. |
| The ion necessary for cross-bridging is: iron. sodium. potassium. calcium. | calcium. |
| A term commonly used as a synonym for action potential is nerve impulse. stimulus. repolarization. depolarization. | nerve impulse |
| The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct impulses up to approximately _____ meters per second. 60 85 130 190 | 130 |
| Which neuron could transmit a nerve impulse the fastest? A small-diameter neuron without myelin A large-diameter neuron without myelin A large-diameter neuron with myelin A small-diameter neuron with myelin | A large-diameter neuron with myelin |
| Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to: increase the speed of impulse conduction. make the cell membrane impermeable. initiate an action potential. make the resting potential more negative. | initiate an action potential. |
| The first event to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron is: the membrane potential moves immediately to a value of +30 mV. the potassium channels open. the sodium channels are inactivated. some of the sodium channels at | some of the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open. |
| Which is true of a neuron with a resting potential? The cell membrane is permeable to Na+ but impermeable to K+ ions. The outer surface of the plasma membrane has a negative charge. The highest concentration of K+ is extracellular. The sodi | The sodium pump has moved Na+ to the outside of the plasma membrane. |
| Which of the following statements about amino acid neurotransmitters is incorrect? They are among the most common neurotransmitters in the central nervous system (CNS). They are all inhibitory neurotransmitters. Glycine is a widely distribute | They are all inhibitory neurotransmitters. |
| Acetylcholine is in the same class of neurotransmitters as: serotonin. histamine. dopamine. none of the above. | none of the above. |
| No impulse can be sent through a neuron: during the relative refractory period. when the charge of the neuron is –70. during the absolute refractory period. when the stimulus is too strong. | during the absolute refractory period. |
| Dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are classified as: acetylcholine. neuropeptides. catecholamines. none of the above. | catecholamines. |
| Stimulus-gated channels open in response to: sensory stimuli. the influx of potassium. hyperpolarization. both A and B. | sensory stimuli. |
| A synapse consists of: a synaptic knob. a synaptic cleft. the plasma membrane of a postsynaptic neuron. all of the above. | all of the above. |
| A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a _____ potential. membrane resting membrane local None of the above is correct. | local |
| During a relative refractory period: the action potential cannot be initiated. a resting potential exists. the cell membrane is impermeable to Na+ and K+. the action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus. | the action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus. |
| Severe depression can be caused by a deficit in certain brain synapses of: acetylcholine. amines. amino acids. neuropeptides. | amines. |
| Parasympathetic stimulation has no effect on any of the following areas except: sweat glands. skin blood vessels. the liver. the urinary bladder. | sweat glands. |
| Danielle has sustained an injury that has reduced her ability to complete simple tasks such as lifting a pencil, manipulating eating utensils, and brushing her hair. The injury has affected the _____ motor pathways _____ the central nervous system (CNS). | voluntary; outside |
| Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus? Production of hormones “Go between” of the psyche and the soma Appetite center Regulation of motor activity | Regulation of motor activity |
| The preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions are cholinergic. True False | True |
| A child was frightened by a large dog. The pupils of the child’s eyes became dilated, and the heart and respiratory rates increased. These symptoms were caused by stimulation of: the parasympathetic nervous system. the sympathetic nervous system. | the sympathetic nervous system. |
| If the ventral nerve root of a spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose _____ related to that pathway. sensory perception willed movement only reflex activity both reflex activity and sensation | willed movement |
| Biofeedback involves willful control of specific effectors normally controlled only autonomically. True False | True |
| Normal infants will show the Babinski reflex up to the age of _____ years. 1.5-2 5 1 3 | 1.5-2 |
| Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may: synapse with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron. send ascending and/or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to synapse with postganglionic neurons in other cha | do all of the above. |
| How does a dually innervated autonomic effector differ from a singly innervated autonomic effector? | A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division. |
| The part of the brain that can directly influence or inhibit the release of hormones from the pituitary is the: hypothalamus. thalamus. medulla. midbrain. | hypothalamus. |
| Which of the following is a description of the principle of autonomic antagonism as it relates to the autonomic nervous system? If sympathetic impulses tend to inhibit the effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to stimulate it. If sympathetic im | If sympathetic impulses tend to stimulate an effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to inhibit it. |
| Impulses from the _____ play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum. pons thalamus cerebellum hypothalamus | thalamus |
| Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by filtration of blood in the: central canal. choroid plexuses. subarachnoid space. arachnoid villi. | choroid plexuses. |
| The vomiting reflex is mediated by the: cerebrum. medulla. thalamus. cerebellum. | medulla. |
| The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are the: Meissner corpuscles. Krause end bulbs. Ruffini corpuscles. free nerve endings. | Ruffini corpuscles. |
| All of the following are true statements except: there are at least 16 different prostaglandins. the first prostaglandin was identified in semen. aspirin produces some of its effects by increasing PGE synthesis. PGFs have been used to ind | aspirin produces some of its effects by increasing PGE synthesis. |
| If you slammed your finger in a car door, it would stimulate _____ pain fibers. chronic acute visceral both chronic and visceral | both chronic and visceral |
| The sequence of auditory ossicles in the middle ear starting at the tympanic membrane and ending at the oval window is: malleus, incus, and stapes. malleus, stapes, and incus. stapes, malleus, and incus. stapes, incus, and malleus. | malleus, incus, and stapes. |
| Accommodation for near vision necessitates an increase in the curvature of the lens. constriction of the pupils. convergence of the two eyes. all of the above. | all of the above. |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? Chemical messenger travels a short distance. Effector tissues include virtually all tissues. Receptors are located on the plasma membrane or within the target cell. A | Chemical messenger travels a short distance. |
| All of the following are nonsteroid hormones except: oxytocin. calcitonin. cortisol. glucagon. | cortisol. |
| Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the _____ membrane can stimulate nerve impulse condition. tectorial basilar vestibular cochlear | tectorial |
| Which is not true of the hormone somatostatin? It is produced by the delta cells of the pancreas. It inhibits the secretion of glucagon. It stimulates the secretion of insulin. Both B and C are not true of the hormone somatostatin. | It stimulates the secretion of insulin. |
| The last step in the nonsteroid hormone mechanism of action is: joining with the G protein on the cell membrane. protein kinases activate other enzymes. adenyl cyclase is activated. cAMP is formed. | protein kinases activate other enzymes. |
| Which of the following statements is not true of the pineal gland? It is located on the dorsal aspect of the diencephalon. Melatonin is stimulated by the presence of sunlight. It produces melatonin. All of the above are true of the pineal | Melatonin is stimulated by the presence of sunlight. |
| The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the: anterior pituitary. posterior pituitary. thyroid gland. parathyroid gland. | anterior pituitary. |
| Visceroceptors are located in which of the following? Skin Tendons Internal organs Skeletal muscles | Internal organs |
| The somatic senses enable us to detect sensations, including: touch. temperature. pain. all of the above. | all of the above. |
| When a small amount of one hormone allows a second hormone to have its full effect, the phenomenon is called: synergism. permissiveness. antagonism. augmentation. | permissiveness. |
| Erythrocytes begin their maturation sequence in red bone marrow from nucleated cells known as: hemoglobin. osteons. You Answered erythroblasts. hematopoietic stem cells. | hematopoietic stem cells. |
| Which are the two baroreceptors that are located near the heart? coronary baroreceptors and aortic baroreceptors aortic baroreceptors and carotid baroreceptors carotid baroreceptors and venous baroreceptors aortic baroreceptors and pulmonar | aortic baroreceptors and carotid baroreceptors |
| Which of the following vessels do not have the ability to constrict and dilate? capillaries Arterioles arteries veins | capillaries |
| The chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies are particularly sensitive to: hypercapnia. hypoxia. a decrease in blood pH. an increase in the hydrogen ion concentration of the blood. | hypercapnia. |
| During pregnancy, what happens to the oxygenated blood returned from the placenta via the umbilical vein? It flows into the inferior vena cava. It flows into the superior vena cava. It flows into the ductus venosus. It flows into the duct | It flows into the inferior vena cava. |
| Circulatory shock caused by a drop in the amount of blood in the circulatory system is called _____ shock. hypovolemic cardiogenic anaphylactic septic | hypovolemic |
| _____ is used to determine the volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood. Spectrin Hematocrit Hematopoiesis Hemocytometer | Hematocrit |
| The heart begins beating in the fetus at about what stage of development? Third Month Second Trimester After about 4 weeks After about 2 weeks | After about 4 weeks |
| Which of the following is not true of ventricles? They are the pumping chambers of the heart. The myocardium of the ventricles is thicker than that of the atria. The myocardium of the left ventricle is thicker than that of the right ventricle | All of the above are true of the ventricles. |
| The term blood type refers to the type of blood cell antibody. antigen. transfusion reaction. | antigen. |
| Which organ has several functions, including defense, hematopoiesis, red blood cell and platelet destruction, and blood reservoir? thymus thyroid spleen thalamus | spleen |
| What is the function of the spleen? tissue repair hematopoiesis red blood cell and platelet destruction blood reservoir all of the above | all of the above |
| Which of the following is a powerful poison that acts directly on any cell and quickly kills it? You Answered cytotoxin phagotoxin lymphotoxin granulotoxin | lymphotoxin |
| The body’s defense mechanisms can be organized into one of two major categories of immune mechanisms; these are species resistance and specific immunity. mechanical and chemical barriers. innate and adaptive immunity. nonspecific and inflam | innate and adaptive immunity. |
| Lymphocytes that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses are known as phagocytes. leukocytes. natural killer cells. macrophages. | natural killer cells. |
| Molecules formed by the reactions of the complement cascade assemble themselves on the enemy cell’s surface, which results in cytolysis. crenation. apoptosis. hemolysis. | cytolysis. |
| During their residence in the thymus, pre-T cells develop into _____, cells that proliferate as rapidly as any in the body. cytotoxic T cells antigen-presenting cells thymocytes memory T cells | thymocytes |
| The functions of the lymphatic system include: transporting interstitial fluid back to the bloodstream. providing immunological defenses. transporting absorbed fats from the intestine to the blood. houses and develops lymphocytes. A , B | A , B, C, & D |
| Activities that result in central movement or flow of lymph are called lymph mechanisms. lymphokinetic activities. lymphatic activities. none of the above. | lymphatic activities. |
| The lymphatic system serves various functions in the body. The two most important functions of this system are fluid balance and waste removal. fluid balance and immunity. immunity and waste removal. waste removal and gas exchange. | fluid balance and immunity. |
| The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles is called pinocytosis. exocytosis. apedesis. phagocytosis. | phagocytosis. |
| Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an antibody attaches to the target cell’s antigen binding site. antigen’s epitopes fit into and bind to an antigen molecule’s antigen-binding site. antibody’s epitopes fit into and bind to an an | antigen’s epitopes fit into and bind to an antigen molecule’s antigen-binding site. |
| Which protein interferes with the ability of viruses to cause disease? natural killer cell interferon macrophage viral enzyme | interferon |
| _______ is the only antibody class with the ability to cross the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to the developing fetus during pregnancy. IgE. IgG. IgM. IgA. | IgG. |
| The lymph pressure gradient is established by: breathing movements. skeletal muscle contractions. parasympathetic stimulation. both A and B. | both A and B. |
| During inspiration, the expansion of the lungs causes: cohesion of visceral and parietal pleura. a pressure gradient from alveoli to atmosphere. a decrease in alveolar pressure. an increase in intrathoracic pressure from about –6 to –4 mm H | a decrease in alveolar pressure. |
| The major form by which carbon dioxide is transported in the circulatory system is: in solution. as bicarbonate ions. as carbaminohemoglobin. none of the above. | as bicarbonate ions. |
| The PCO2 in alveolar air is _____ blood. less than in the systemic venous greater than in the systemic venous equal to the systemic arterial Both A and C are correct. | Both A and C are correct. |
| Dalton law states that the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture of gases is _____ to the total pressure of the mixture. inversely related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and directly related to the concentration of that gas in the | directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and |
| Which of the following combinations in arterial blood could cause an increase in the respiratory rate? Increased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, decreased pH, decreased PO2 Increased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, increased pH, decreased PO2 | Increased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, decreased pH, decreased PO2 |
| The function of the vibrissae in the vestibule is to: provide a large, mucus-covered surface area over which air must pass before reaching the pharynx. provide an initial “filter” to screen particulate matter from air that is entering the system. | provide an initial “filter” to screen particulate matter from air that is entering the system. |
| The PCO2 in the atmosphere is: less than in the alveolar air. greater than in the alveolar air. equal to the alveolar air. greater than arterial blood. | less than in the alveolar air. |
| Ciliated cells lining the respiratory tract: help move air into and out of the lungs. trap and phagocytize microorganisms. help move the mucus blanket toward the pharynx. do both B and C. | do both B and C. |
| The term used to describe the volume of air exchanged during normal inspiration and expiration is: inspiratory and expiratory reserve volume. vital capacity. tidal volume. residual volume. | tidal volume. |
| Which of the following would you expect to happen to cellular respiration during exercise? | Increased cellular respiration occurs during exercise, causing a rise in plasma PCO2, which is detected by central chemoreceptors in the brain and perhaps peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid sinus and aorta to cause an increase in respiration rate. |
| Which gas law deals with the solubility of gases in solution? Dalton Henry Boyle Charles | Henry |
| The function of surfactant is to: transport oxygen from the air to the blood. transport carbon dioxide from the blood to the air. prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration. trap foreign particles as | prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration. |
| Which of the following is not a regulated process associated with the functioning of the respiratory system? Transport of gases Gas exchange in lungs and tissue Control of cell metabolism rate Pulmonary ventilation | Control of cell metabolism rate |
| External respiration can be defined as: the exchange of gases between the lung and the blood capillaries in the lung. pulmonary ventilation. the exchange of gases between the blood capillaries and the tissue cells. both A and B | both A and B. |
| Internal respiration can be defined as: the exchange of gases between the lung and the blood capillaries in the lung. pulmonary ventilation. the exchange of gases between the blood capillaries and the tissue cells. both A and B. | the exchange of gases between the blood capillaries and the tissue cells. |
| The process of fat emulsification consists of: chemically breaking down fat molecules. the secretion of digestive juices for fat digestion. absorption of fats. breaking fats into small droplets. | breaking fats into small droplets. |
| Oral stage Pharyngeal stage Esophageal stage Gastric phase | Oral stage |
| Glucose moves from the GI tract into the circulatory system by the process of: diffusion. cotransport. facilitated diffusion. filtration. | cotransport. |
| The hormone that inhibits gastric muscle, slowing passage of food into the duodenum, is called: gastric inhibitory peptide. enterogastrone. chyme. cholecystokinin. | gastric inhibitory peptide. |
| Which blood vessel carries absorbed food from the GI tract to the liver? Hepatic artery Hepatic vein Portal vein Renal artery | Portal vein |
| The sodium cotransport or coupled transport acts to transport sodium ions and glucose molecules _____ the GI lumen. passively out of passively into actively out of actively into | passively out of |
| Cellulose is a residue of digestion that comes from: carbohydrates. meat proteins. undigested fats. undigested connective tissue. | carbohydrates. |
| An end product of fat digestion is: glycerol. glucose. glycogen. galactose. | glycerol. |
| Which of the following is not true of enzymes? They accelerate chemical reactions. They change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction. They are vital to chemical reactions. Many contain vitamins in their structure. | They change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction. |
| Which phase(s) of gastric secretion is(are) stimulated by the sight, taste, and smell of food? Intestinal phase Cephalic phase Gastric phase All of the above | Cephalic phase |
| The purpose of peristalsis is to: break apart chunks of food and mix it in digestive juices. propel food forward along the GI tract. absorb food. enable swallowing. | propel food forward along the GI tract. |
| The major site for the absorption of the end products of digestion is the: stomach. small intestine. cecum. large intestine. | small intestine. |
| The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is: enterogastrone. insulin. gastrin. cholecystokinin. | cholecystokinin. |
| Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as: lipase. proteases. maltase. amylase. | amylase. |
| The process of swallowing is known as: mastication. deglutition. peristalsis. segmentation. | deglutition. |
| Edema is defined as abnormally large amounts of fluid in the: capillaries. cells. veins. intercellular spaces. | intercellular spaces. |
| Which of these is true about the metabolism of glucose? Aerobic metabolism produces lactic acid. Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid. Anaerobic metabolism produces carbonic acid. Both A and C are true about the metabolism of glucose. | Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid. |
| What is the most abundant cation in intracellular fluid? Sodium Chlorine Potassium Magnesium | Potassium |
| If the pH of the blood were 7.23, it would be within the normal range. slightly more acidic than normal. slightly more basic than normal. much more basic than normal. | slightly more acidic than normal. |
| Which of the following is a true statement? Arterial blood has a higher hydrogen ion concentration than venous blood. Venous blood has a higher pH than arterial blood. Arterial blood has an average pH of 7.41. Venous blood has a lower hydro | Arterial blood has an average pH of 7.41. |
| If the blood pH decreases below normal, the kidney tubules secrete _____ urine. fewer hydrogen ions from blood to more hydrogen ions from blood to more sodium ions into the Both A and C will occur. | more hydrogen ions from blood to |
| Ketone bodies are associated with cellular metabolism of: fats. carbohydrates. proteins. vitamins. | fats. |
| Which of the following is not one of the seven basic solutions used for parenteral therapy? Ammonium chloride Lactate solutions Carbohydrate in water Liquid protein | Liquid protein |
| A decrease in blood pH below normal tends to: stimulate increased respirations. produce hypoventilation. stimulate a compensatory increase in blood hydrogen ion concentration through the respiratory system. do both B and C. | stimulate increased respirations. |
| Which of the following ratios of base bicarbonate to carbonic acid will maintain a normal pH? 3:1 5:1 10:1 20:1 | 20:1 |
| Which of the following is(are) classified as an acid-forming food? Meat Eggs Poultry All of the above | All of the above |
| In young adults, the percentage of body weight composed of water will average about _____ for males and _____ for females. 40%; 50% 60%; 50% 70%; 60% 60%; 70% | 60%; 50% |
| Cerebrospinal fluid is part of the _____ fluid. intracellular extracellular interstitial Both A and C are correct. | extracellular |
| Which of the following is not a method used for parenteral administration? Intravenous Subcutaneous Intramuscular By mouth | By mouth |
| Which of the following would have the greatest concentration of hydrogen ions? pH 2 pH 6 pH 8 pH 10 | pH 2 |
| Which of the following cells contain 46 chromosomes? Sperm cells Primary spermatocytes Secondary spermatocytes Spermatids | Primary spermatocytes |
| Which of the following is not a function of the Sertoli cells? They produce testosterone. They produce androgen-binding protein. They form the blood-testis barrier. All of the above are functions of the Sertoli cells. | They produce testosterone. |
| The opening of the urethra at the tip of the glans is called the: prepuce. external urinary meatus. corpora cavernosa. glans penis. | external urinary meatus. |
| Fertilization of an ovum most often occurs in the: ovary. fallopian tube. uterus. vagina. | fallopian tube. |
| Which of the following is a part of the supporting structures of the male reproductive system? Scrotum Spermatic cord Prostate Seminal vesicle | Scrotum |
| The main factor determining male fertility is the: size of the sperm. number of sperm ejaculated. shape of the sperm. motility of the sperm. | number of sperm ejaculated. |
| Which of the following hormones causes ejection of milk into the mammary ducts, making it accessible for the infant? Progesterone Oxytocin Prolactin Estrogen | Oxytocin |
| The male gland that secretes a fructose sugar used as an energy source for sperm is the: prostate gland. bulbourethral gland. seminal vesicle. Cowper gland. | seminal vesicle. |
| A high blood concentration of estrogens: stimulates endometrial glands to secrete. stimulates epithelial cells of the endometrium to proliferate. stimulates FSH secretion by the anterior pituitary. causes development of the corpus luteum. | stimulates epithelial cells of the endometrium to proliferate. |
| Which of the following is not true of FSH? It is produced in the anterior pituitary gland. It increases the production of sperm. It stimulates the secretion of testosterone. Its secretion is inhibited by high testosterone levels. | It stimulates the secretion of testosterone. |
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