Question 1

The body naturally changes some set points to different values at different times of the day. These daily cycles are called

Accepted Answer

Circadian cycles.

Question 2

To accomplish self-regulation, a highly complex and integrated communication control system or network is required. This type of network is called a(n)

Accepted Answer

Feedback Control loop

Question 3

Which level of control operates at the cell level, often using genes and enzymes to regulate cell function?

Accepted Answer

Intracellular regulation

Question 4

Because negative feedback control systems oppose changes that are opposite in direction to the initial disturbance, they are

Accepted Answer

Slowed or maintained in homeostatic range

Question 5

Effectors can be described as

Accepted Answer

Organs that directly influence controlled physiological variables.

Question 6

The normal reading or range is called the

Accepted Answer

Set point

Question 7

The impact of effector activity on sensors may be positive or negative. Therefore, homeostatic control mechanisms are categorized as:

Accepted Answer

Organs that are directly influenced by physiological variables or mechanisms.

Question 8

Many complex processes of the body are coordinated at many levels. These include
  intracellular. 
  intrinsic. 
  extrinsic. 
  All of these are correct.

Accepted Answer

All of these are correct

Question 9

Events that lead to an immune response to an infection or the formation of a blood clot are examples of

Accepted Answer

Positive feedback loop

Question 10

What term describes a signal traveling toward a particular center or point of reference?

Accepted Answer

Afferent

Question 11

Extrinsic control usually involves which mode of regulation?

Accepted Answer

Nervous and Endocrine

Question 12

Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations.
  occurrence 
  distribution 
  transmission 
  All of the above are correct.

Accepted Answer

All of these are correct

Question 13

Autoregulation is also called?

Accepted Answer

Intrinsic control

Question 14

The body’s thermostat is located in the:

Accepted Answer

Hypothalamus

Question 15

Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease?

Accepted Answer

Prion

Question 16

Positive-feedback control systems:

Accepted Answer

Accelerate a change

Question 17

Negative-feedback mechanisms:
  minimize changes in blood glucose levels. 
  maintain homeostasis. 
  are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature. 
  All of the above are correct.

Accepted Answer

All of these are correct

Question 18

If the secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative-feedback control loop, what effect would it have on uterine contractions

Accepted Answer

There would be no changes in the strength of the uterine contractions.

Question 19

Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex?
  Viruses 
  Tapeworms 
  Bacteria 
  Protozoa

Accepted Answer

Tapeworms

Question 20

Negative-feedback control systems

Accepted Answer

Oppose a change

Question 21

Any large molecule made up of many identical small molecules is called a(n)

Accepted Answer

Polymer

Question 22

The lipid that is often referred to as a tissue hormone is

Accepted Answer

Prostaglandin

Question 23

Chaperone proteins assist in the proper folding of other proteins so they can have the correct functional shape.

Accepted Answer

True

Question 24

All proteins have which four elements?

Accepted Answer

Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen

Question 25

Shape determines how a protein performs:

Accepted Answer

True

Question 26

Proteins are polymers of

Accepted Answer

Amino acids

Question 27

A very large molecule composed of subunits of sugar, a nitrogen base, and a phosphate bond is a

Accepted Answer

Nucleic acid

Question 28

A triglyceride is composed of a glycerol molecule and three of the same type of fatty acid.

Accepted Answer

False

Question 29

n base pairing of DNA molecules, _____ is bound to _____.

  adenine; thymine 
  adenine; cytosine 
  guanine; uracil 
  adenine; uracil

Accepted Answer

Adenine; thymine

Question 30

RNA and DNA have the same pyrimidine bases but different purine bases.

Accepted Answer

False

Question 31

What term is often used to describe certain arrangements of atoms attached to the carbon core of many organic molecules?

Accepted Answer

Functional Group

Question 32

Which term means “water loving” and applies to the phospholipid head?

Accepted Answer

Hydrophilic

Question 33

When two amino acids are joined, a peptide bond is formed, and an H+ ion is released.

Accepted Answer

False

Question 34

Which of the following is not true of carbohydrates?
  They include substances commonly called sugars. 
  They are the body’s primary source of energy. 
  They are a part of both DNA and RNA. 
  All of the above are true.

Accepted Answer

All of the above are true

Question 35

When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide?

Accepted Answer

Maltose

Question 36

Which level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids?
  Primary 
  Secondary 
  Tertiary 
  Quaternary

Accepted Answer

Primary

Question 37

A structural lipid found in the cell membrane is a:
  triglyceride. 
  phospholipid. 
  steroid. 
  Both B and C are correct.

Accepted Answer

Both B and C are correct

Question 38

Prostaglandins and steroids both have a ring structure in their molecule

Accepted Answer

True

Question 39

Sometimes referred to as animal starch, _____ is the main polysaccharide in the body.

Accepted Answer

Glycogen

Question 40

Which of the following is not true of RNA?
  It contains ribose sugar. 
  It contains adenine. 
  It is composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides.
  All of the above are true of RNA.

Accepted Answer

All of the above are true of RNA

Question 41

A _____ is a functional group that is temporarily unattached and is highly reactive because of unpaired electrons.

Accepted Answer

Free Radical

Question 42

All of the following substances are organic except:
  lipids. 
  electrolytes. 
  carbohydrates. 
  proteins.

Accepted Answer

Electrolytes

Question 43

The amino group in an amino acid is:

Accepted Answer

NH3+

Question 44

Which energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule does not contain a nucleotide?

Accepted Answer

Creatine Phosphate

Question 45

Which of the following is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids?
  They both contain glycerol. 
  They both contain fatty acids. 
  They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end. 
  All of the above are true of both.

Accepted Answer

They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end.

Question 46

Phagocytosis is?

Accepted Answer

The cell process in which microorganisms or other large particles are engulfed

Question 47

Transcription can best be described as the process of

Accepted Answer

mRNA synthesis

Question 48

Facilitated diffusion is not an active transport process because it

Accepted Answer

Does not depend on cellular energy

Question 49

The component that distinguishes one nucleotide from another is the
  nitrogen base. 
  phosphate groups. 
  five-carbon sugar. 
  hydrogen bond.

Accepted Answer

Nitrogen base

Question 50

What is a Catalyst?

Accepted Answer

A chemical that reduces the amount of activation energy needed to start a chemical reaction

Question 51

The total number of 46 chromosomes per cell is referred to as _________ number.

Accepted Answer

Diploid

Question 52

Normal mitosis results in

Accepted Answer

Cells that are identical to the parent cell

Question 53

A molecule or other agent that alters enzyme function by changing its shape is called a(n)
  substrate. 
  end product inhibition. 
  allosteric effector. 
  proenzyme.

Accepted Answer

Allosteric effector

Question 54

In the DNA molecule, a sequence of three base pairs forms

Accepted Answer

A codon

Question 55

Meiotic division occurs in

Accepted Answer

Primitive sex cells

Question 56

Replication of DNA occurs in which phase of interphase?
  S phase 
  G1 phase 
  G2 phase 
  M phase

Accepted Answer

S phase

Question 57

Which of the following is an active transport process?
  facilitated diffusion 
  diffusion 
  endocytosis 
  osmosis

Accepted Answer

Endocytosis

Question 58

The two processes of protein synthesis are

  transcription and translation. 
  replication and duplication. 
  transcription and replication. 
  translation and duplication.

Accepted Answer

Transcription and translation

Question 59

Which of the following is not a characteristic of meiosis?

  four haploid gametes 
  a reduction division 
  two steps of cell division 
  two haploid gametes

Accepted Answer

Two haploid gametes

Question 60

If red blood cells containing 10% solute are placed in a solution containing 10% solute, what will happen?

Accepted Answer

Water will move into and out of the cells at equal rates.

Question 61

Define diffusion

Accepted Answer

Diffusion is the net movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.

Question 62

Red blood cells are placed in an unknown solution. After 45 minutes, the cells are examined and determined to have decreased in size. The unknown solution is

Accepted Answer

hypertonic.

Question 63

In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes move to the opposite ends of the cells along the spindle fibers?

  anaphase 
  metaphase 
  prophase 
  telophase

Accepted Answer

Anaphase

Question 64

In the electron transport system, the final electron acceptor is

  carbon dioxide. 
  water. 
  oxygen. 
  hydrogen ions.

Accepted Answer

Oxygen


The body naturally changes some set points to different values at different times of the day. These daily cycles are called	Circadian cycles.
To accomplish self-regulation, a highly complex and integrated communication control system or network is required. This type of network is called a(n)	Feedback Control loop
Which level of control operates at the cell level, often using genes and enzymes to regulate cell function?	Intracellular regulation
Because negative feedback control systems oppose changes that are opposite in direction to the initial disturbance, they are	Slowed or maintained in homeostatic range
Effectors can be described as	Organs that directly influence controlled physiological variables.
The normal reading or range is called the	Set point
The impact of effector activity on sensors may be positive or negative. Therefore, homeostatic control mechanisms are categorized as:	Organs that are directly influenced by physiological variables or mechanisms.
Many complex processes of the body are coordinated at many levels. These include intracellular. intrinsic. extrinsic. All of these are correct.	All of these are correct
Events that lead to an immune response to an infection or the formation of a blood clot are examples of	Positive feedback loop
What term describes a signal traveling toward a particular center or point of reference?	Afferent
Extrinsic control usually involves which mode of regulation?	Nervous and Endocrine
Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations. occurrence distribution transmission All of the above are correct.	All of these are correct
Autoregulation is also called?	Intrinsic control
The body’s thermostat is located in the:	Hypothalamus
Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease?	Prion
Positive-feedback control systems:	Accelerate a change
Negative-feedback mechanisms: minimize changes in blood glucose levels. maintain homeostasis. are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature. All of the above are correct.	All of these are correct
If the secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative-feedback control loop, what effect would it have on uterine contractions	There would be no changes in the strength of the uterine contractions.
Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex? Viruses Tapeworms Bacteria Protozoa	Tapeworms
Negative-feedback control systems	Oppose a change
Any large molecule made up of many identical small molecules is called a(n)	Polymer
The lipid that is often referred to as a tissue hormone is	Prostaglandin
Chaperone proteins assist in the proper folding of other proteins so they can have the correct functional shape.	True
All proteins have which four elements?	Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen
Shape determines how a protein performs:	True
Proteins are polymers of	Amino acids
A very large molecule composed of subunits of sugar, a nitrogen base, and a phosphate bond is a	Nucleic acid
A triglyceride is composed of a glycerol molecule and three of the same type of fatty acid.	False
n base pairing of DNA molecules, _____ is bound to _____. adenine; thymine adenine; cytosine guanine; uracil adenine; uracil	Adenine; thymine
RNA and DNA have the same pyrimidine bases but different purine bases.	False
What term is often used to describe certain arrangements of atoms attached to the carbon core of many organic molecules?	Functional Group
Which term means “water loving” and applies to the phospholipid head?	Hydrophilic
When two amino acids are joined, a peptide bond is formed, and an H+ ion is released.	False
Which of the following is not true of carbohydrates? They include substances commonly called sugars. They are the body’s primary source of energy. They are a part of both DNA and RNA. All of the above are true.	All of the above are true
When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide?	Maltose
Which level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids? Primary Secondary Tertiary Quaternary	Primary
A structural lipid found in the cell membrane is a: triglyceride. phospholipid. steroid. Both B and C are correct.	Both B and C are correct
Prostaglandins and steroids both have a ring structure in their molecule	True
Sometimes referred to as animal starch, _____ is the main polysaccharide in the body.	Glycogen
Which of the following is not true of RNA? It contains ribose sugar. It contains adenine. It is composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides. All of the above are true of RNA.	All of the above are true of RNA
A _____ is a functional group that is temporarily unattached and is highly reactive because of unpaired electrons.	Free Radical
All of the following substances are organic except: lipids. electrolytes. carbohydrates. proteins.	Electrolytes
The amino group in an amino acid is:	NH3+
Which energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule does not contain a nucleotide?	Creatine Phosphate
Which of the following is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids? They both contain glycerol. They both contain fatty acids. They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end. All of the above are true of both.	They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end.
Phagocytosis is?	The cell process in which microorganisms or other large particles are engulfed
Transcription can best be described as the process of	mRNA synthesis
Facilitated diffusion is not an active transport process because it	Does not depend on cellular energy
The component that distinguishes one nucleotide from another is the nitrogen base. phosphate groups. five-carbon sugar. hydrogen bond.	Nitrogen base
What is a Catalyst?	A chemical that reduces the amount of activation energy needed to start a chemical reaction
The total number of 46 chromosomes per cell is referred to as _________ number.	Diploid
Normal mitosis results in	Cells that are identical to the parent cell
A molecule or other agent that alters enzyme function by changing its shape is called a(n) substrate. end product inhibition. allosteric effector. proenzyme.	Allosteric effector
In the DNA molecule, a sequence of three base pairs forms	A codon
Meiotic division occurs in	Primitive sex cells
Replication of DNA occurs in which phase of interphase? S phase G1 phase G2 phase M phase	S phase
Which of the following is an active transport process? facilitated diffusion diffusion endocytosis osmosis	Endocytosis
The two processes of protein synthesis are transcription and translation. replication and duplication. transcription and replication. translation and duplication.	Transcription and translation
Which of the following is not a characteristic of meiosis? four haploid gametes a reduction division two steps of cell division two haploid gametes	Two haploid gametes
If red blood cells containing 10% solute are placed in a solution containing 10% solute, what will happen?	Water will move into and out of the cells at equal rates.
Define diffusion	Diffusion is the net movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
Red blood cells are placed in an unknown solution. After 45 minutes, the cells are examined and determined to have decreased in size. The unknown solution is	hypertonic.
In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes move to the opposite ends of the cells along the spindle fibers? anaphase metaphase prophase telophase	Anaphase
In the electron transport system, the final electron acceptor is carbon dioxide. water. oxygen. hydrogen ions.	Oxygen
Proteins that act as catalysts are called	Enzymes
RNA makes proteins by transcription. translation. replication. duplication.	Translation
Diffusion moves	Down a concentration gradient
The result of meiosis is	Two daughter cells that are identical to the parent cell
If a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were A-U-C-G-A, which of the following would be true about the nucleic acid? It contains deoxyribose sugar. It could be found only in the nucleus. It contains ribose sugar.	It contains ribose sugar
Extensive weight training causes the muscle cells to: atrophy. hypertrophy. undergo hyperplasia. undergo anaplasia.	Hypertrophy
Which of the following is not true of diffusion? Uses cellular energy Can occur in living and nonliving cells May occur both into and out of the cell	Uses cellular energy
Diffusion requires?	A concentration gradient
The correct order of the phases of mitosis is:	Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.
The physical process by which water and solute move through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure gradient exists across the membrane is the process of: dialysis. osmosis. diffusion. filtration.	Filtration
During which stage of mitosis do the centrioles move to the opposite poles of the cell?	Prophase
The pairing of bases of a strand of DNA is obligatory. If a strand of DNA were composed of the base sequence of ATCG, what would be the obligatory sequence of its opposing base pairs?	TAGC
Which is true about the sodium and potassium pump? Two sodium ions are taken into the cell. Three sodium ions are taken out of the cell. Three potassium ions are taken into the cell. Two potassium ions are taken out of the cell.	Three sodium ions are taken out of the cell
What is Genome?	An individual’s set of DNA
Which of the following statements is true? Amino acid chains form DNA. The site of transcription is within the nucleus, whereas the site of translation is in the cytoplasm. Uracil is present in DNA in place of thymine.	The site of transcription is within the nucleus, whereas the site of translation is in the cytoplasm.
Fingernail growth is the result of the mitosis of the cells in the stratum: germinativum. granulosum. corneum. lucidum.	Germinativum
Apocrine sweat glands can be found in all of the following areas except the: soles of the feet. armpits. areolae of the breasts. pigmented skin areas around the anus.	Soles of the feet
Which layer of skin is also known as the barrier	Stratum corneum
The nail body forms at the nail root, which has a matrix of proliferating cells from the _____________ that enables the nail to grow continuously.	Stratu, Basale
Which cells of the skin are filled with a tough, fibrous protein and account for most of the epidermal cells of the skin?	Keratinocytes
Which skin layer has cells that look prickly because of the desmosomes that join the cells together?	Stratum spinosum
Which skin layer contains closely packed, clear cells that contain a gel-like substance called eleidin?	Stratum lucidum
In which skin layer does the process of keratinization begin?	Stratum granulosum
Smooth muscles that produce goose pimples when they contract are the _____ muscles.	Erector pili
The gland responsible for the waxy secretion in the external ear canal is:	Ceruminous
The hair papilla consists of _____ tissue.	Dermal
Which of the following is not a function of the skin? Defense against disease organisms Synthesis of vitamin E Regulation of body temperature Excretion of water and salts	Syntheses if vitamin E
Which cells help destroy pathogens and damaged tissue in the brain?	Microglia
Which of the following vitamins is(are) absorbed through the skin? Vitamin A Vitamin D Vitamin K All of the above	All of the above
Which of the following is not a characteristic of connective tissue? Typically holds its cells together tightly by means of desmosomes Protects the body from foreign invaders Supports the body Transports substances throughout the body	Typically holds its cells together tightly by means of desmosomes
Which of the following is not a characteristic of smooth muscles? Having one nucleus per cell Having intercalated disks Composing the walls of the viscera Usually not being under voluntary control	Having intercalated disks
which cells form the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood?	Astrocytes
Areolar tissue usually contains which types of cells in the greatest number? Macrophages Fibroblasts Mast cells Phagocytes	Fibroblasts
Which of the following is not a proteoglycan found in the matrix of connective tissue? Glucosamine Collagen Hyaluronic acid All of the above are proteoglycans.	Collagen
Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals?	Connective tissue
Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: mesenchyme. blastocyst. endoderm. ectoderm.	Mesenchyme
Which layer of the dermis produces the ridges that make fingerprints.	Papillary layer
What is are the two types/functions of bone marrow?	Red & yellow – produces red blood cells and stores energy as fat.
The external portion of the bone is known as	Cortical bone
The external portion of the bone is known as	Epiphyseal plates
When an astronaut is in space for 2 months what may happen to their bone density as compared to a person living on earth?	The astronaut will experience bone loss at an increased rate as a person on earth
Why is cartilage slow to heal. Because it eventually turns into bone Because it is semi-solid and flexible Because has a no or a limited blood supply Because cartilage calcifies at a slow rate	Because it is semi-solid and flexible Because has a no or a limited blood supply
What kind of cartilage is found in the knees and Interverbal discs	Fibrous cartilage
Describe the axial skeletal structure.	Provides framework for muscles that anchor and stabilize the appendicular bones
The fontanelles of an infant's skull consist of	Fibrous membrane
Hematopoietic stem cells that are found in red bone marrow can develop into a variety of different blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.	True
the bone positioned most superiorly on the human skeleton	Frontal
Which of the following is not dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood? Blood clotting Transmission of nerve impulses Contraction of cardiac muscle All of the above are dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions	All of the above are dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood
The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are:	endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus.
Blood calcium levels involve secretion of which two hormones?	parathyroid and calcitonin
In bone formation, the cells that produce the organic matrix are the:	Osteoblasts
The humerus articulates proximally with the clavicle.	False
Bones grow in diameter by the combined action of osteoblasts and osteoclasts	True
When osteoblast activity increases the calcium in bone increases and calcium levels in the blood decreases.	True
open fracture is also known as a compound fracture.	True
The diaphysis provides a bulbous shape for attachment of muscle	True
Appositional growth refers to	The addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones.
The energy required for muscular contraction is obtained by hydrolysis of	ATP
Some synovial joints contain a closed pillow-like structure called a(n)	Bursa
The structure of the knee joint permits movements of	Flexion and Extension
Joints joined by fibrocartilage are called	Symphysis
The four kinds of protein that make up myofilaments are myosin, actin,	tropomyosin, and troponin
According to the sliding filament theory	Actin moves past myosin
Synarthrotic joints are	immovable
Which structure allows the electrical signals to travel along the sarcolemma and move deeper into the cell?	transverse tubule
A contraction in which muscle length remains the same but muscle tension increases is called an	Isometric contraction
Three phases of the twitch contraction are the	latent period, contraction phase, and relaxation phase
Which of the following is an example of a uniaxial joint? shoulder joint hip joint elbow joint joint between the carpal and tarsal bones	Elbow joint
The joint present during the growth years between the epiphyses of a long bone and its diaphysis is the	synchondrosis
_____ occurs when the foot is tilted upward, thus decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg.	Dorsiflexion
Moving a body part away from the medial plane of the body is called:	Abduction
Cross-bridges are also called:	Myosin heads
After it is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the calcium combines with which protein?	Troponin
Which type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis? Multiunit smooth Single-unit smooth Cardiac Striated	Single-unit smooth
Muscle contractions will continue as long as:	the calcium ions are attached to the troponin
Which of the following is not an end-product of the breakdown of ATP? An inorganic phosphate Energy that can be used in muscle contraction ADP All of the above are end-products of the breakdown of ATP.	All of the above are end-products of the breakdown of ATP
Thick myofilaments extend the length of the: A-band. Z-line. I-band. None of the above are correct.	A-band
Stretching the foot down and back and pointing the toe is called:	Plantar flexion.
The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to:	replenish energy supply.

Dana McLelland

Physiology mid term

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