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Jeannette Dodd

SCI221 Human Physiology

QuestionAnswer
Which four elements do proteins have? Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen, Nitrogen.
RNA and DNA have the same pyrimidine bases but different purine bases. False.
What term is often used to describe certain arrangements of atoms attached to the carbon core of many organic molecules? Functional Group.
Which of the following is polymer of glucose that is sometimes referred to as animal starch? Glycogen.
The most important monosaccharide is what? Glucose.
What determines how a protein performs? Shape.
In base pairing of DNA molecules, adenine is bound to what? Thymine.
The carbon-containing molecules formed by living things are often called what? Organic Molecules.
What two amino acids are joined, a peptide bond is formed and an H+ ion is released? False.
Why are DNA and RNA important? They are information molecules.
What is a polymer? A large molecule made up of many identical small molecules.
A triglyceride is composed of a glycerol molecule and three of the same type of fatty acid. False.
Chaperone proteins assist in the proper folding of other proteins so they can have the correct functional shape. True.
Proteins are polymers of what? Amino Acids.
A saturated fatty acid is one in which what? All available bonds of its hydrocarbon chain are filled.
The lipid that is often referred to as a tissue hormone is what? Prostaglandin.
What term means "water loving" and applies to the phospholipid head? Hydrophilic.
A very large molecule composed of subunits of sugar, a nitrogen base, and a phosphate bond is a what? Nucleic Acid.
The form of energy that cells generally use is what? ATP.
What is not a lipid? Polysaccharide.
If one side of a DNA molecule is CTAGGCTG, the other side would be what? GATCCGAC.
Sometimes referred to as animal starch, _____ is the main polysaccharide in the body. Glycogen.
Which lipid acts as a “tissue hormone”? Prostaglandin.
Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics? Both have a ring structure in their molecule.
The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure? Secondary.
The type of lipoprotein associated with “bad” cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels is what? LDL.
Which energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule does not contain a nucleotide? Creatine phosphate.
Peptide bonds join together molecules of what? Amino acids.
Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included in the diet, are called what? Essential amino acids & Peptide bonds.
The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called what? Dehydration Synthesis.
Which level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids? Primary.
Which of the following is not one of the major groups of organic substances in the human body? Salts.
A structural lipid found in the cell membrane is a what? Phospholipid & Steroid.
When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide? Maltose.
What is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids? They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end.
The basic building blocks of fats are what? Fatty acids and Glycerol.
Which is true of RNA? It contains ribose sugar. It contains adenine. It is composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides.
What is true of carbohydrates? They include substances commonly called sugars. They are the body’s primary source of energy. They are a part of both DNA and RNA.
The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are what? Steroids.
The element that is present in all proteins but not in carbohydrates is what? Nitrogen.
Provide the description of the phase: Metaphase Chromosomes align along the center of the cell.
Provide the description of the phase: Prophase Chromatin condenses into chromosomes.
Provide the description of the phase: Telophase Nuclear envelope reappears.
In the DNA molecule, a sequence of three base pairs forms a what? Codon.
What are the two processes of protein synthesis? Transcription & Translation
The result of meiosis is what? Four daughter cells that are haploid.
What are the characteristics of meiosis? Four haploid gametes. A reduction division. Two steps of cell division.
If oxygen is available, the pyruvate molecules formed by glycolysis are prepared to enter the next phase of aerobic cellular respiration, called the what? Citric acid cycle.
Diffusion can be defined as what? The net movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
Replication of DNA occurs in what phase of interphase? S Phase.
Normal mitosis results in ______. Cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.
What term describes a signal traveling toward a particular center or point of reference? Afferent
To accomplish self-regulation, a highly complex and integrated communication control system or network is required. This type of network is called a(n) what? Feedback control loop
The relatively constant state maintained by the body is known as ____________. Homeostasis
Many complex processes of the body are coordinated at many levels. These include what? Intracellular Intrinsic Extrinsic
Which level of control operates at the cell level, often using genes and enzymes to regulate cell function? Intracellular regulation
The body naturally changes some set points to different values at different times of the day. These daily cycles are called ___________. Circadian cycles.
Because negative feedback control systems oppose changes that are opposite in direction to the initial disturbance, they are _________. Slowed or maintained in the homeostatic range.
The impact of effector activity on sensors may be positive or negative. Therefore, homeostatic control mechanisms are categorized as _________________. Organs that are directly influenced by physiological variables or mechanisms.
What is a basic component of every feedback control loop? Sensor mechanism Integrating Center Effector Feedback
Extrinsic control usually involves which mode of regulation? Nervous & Endocrine
The normal reading or range is called the ________. Set point
Effectors can be described as ________. Organs that directly influence controlled physiological variables.
Processes for maintaining or restoring homeostasis are known as ______________. Homeostatic control mechanisms.
Local control or _____, intrinsic mechanisms often make use of chemical signals. Autoregulation
The concept that information may flow ahead to another process to trigger a change in anticipation of an event that will follow is called __________. Feed-forward
Events that lead to an immune response to an infection or the formation of a blood clot are examples of __________. Positive feedback
The body’s thermostat is located in the _____. Hypothalamus
Negative-feedback control systems ___ a change. Oppose
Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? Reproductive
Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? Transmitter
Intrinsic control is sometimes called _____. Autoregulation
Positive-feedback control systems _____ a change. Accelerate
Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called _______. Viruses
What may put one at risk for developing a given disease? Environment Stress Lifestyle
Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex? Tapeworms
If the secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative-feedback control loop, what effect would it have on uterine contractions? Oxytocin would inhibit uterine contractions.
Negative-feedback mechanisms ______. Minimize changes in blood glucose levels. Maintain homeostasis. Are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature.
Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? Prion
Pathogenesis can be defined as the ______ of disease development. Course
Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of ________ and ________. The body trying to maintain homeostasis. A negative-feedback mechanism.
Homeostasis can best be described as what? A state of relative constancy.
The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback. Positive
Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations. Occurrence Distribution Transmission
The term that literally means self-immunity is ______. Autoimmunity
Glycolysis occurs in what part of the cell? Cytoplasm
RNA makes proteins by _____. Translation
The component that distinguishes one nucleotide from another is the _____________ base. Nitrogen
The cell process in which microorganisms or other large particles are engulfed is called _________________. Phagocytosis
Mitosis is subdivided into what four phases? Prophase Anaphase Metaphase Telophase
The total number of 46 chromosomes per cell is referred to as _________ number. Diploid
Proteins that act as catalysts are called __________. Enzymes
Diffusion moves __________ a concentration gradient. Down
Meiosis is called “reduction division” because the number of chromosomes is reduced by _____. Half
Facilitated diffusion is not an active transport process because it_______ depend on cell energy. Does not
Meiotic division occurs in _________ sex cells. Primitive
If red blood cells containing 10% solute are placed in a solution containing 10% solute, what will happen? Water will move into and out of the cells at equal rates.
Red blood cells are placed in an unknown solution. After 45 minutes, the cells are examined and determined to have decreased in size. The unknown solution is __________. Hypertonic
Endocytosis is an _______ transport process. Active
In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes move to the opposite ends of the cells along the spindle fibers? Anaphase
In the electron transport system, the final electron acceptor is ________. Oxygen
A molecule or other agent that alters enzyme function by changing its shape is called a(n) ____________. Allosteric Effector
Osmosis can be defined as the net movement of water molecules from a region of lower solute concentration to a region of higher solute concentration. True
Water pressure that develops in a solution as a result of osmosis into that solution is called _____ pressure. Osmotic
Transcription can best be described as the ___________ of mRNA. Synthesis
A chemical that reduces the amount of activation energy needed to start a chemical reaction is a(n) ________. Catalyst
If a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were A-U-C-G-A, the nucleic acid contains ____________. Ribose sugar
What are three examples of passive transport? Filtration Osmosis Dialysis
Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as ______. Haploid
Diffusion requires a _______ gradient. Concentration
Phagocytosis is an example of ____________. Endocytosis
NaCl would move through the cell membrane in which direction? Both into and out of the cell.
Neoplasm is synonymous with tumor? True
When the chromosomes align themselves across the equator of the spindle fibers, it is characteristic of which phase of mitosis? Metaphase
Diffusion can occur in living and nonliving cells. True
Diffusion may occur both into and out of the cell. True
Two solutions of different concentrations of glucose are separated by a membrane that allows both glucose and water to pass through. When dynamic equilibrium is reached, there will be an ______ exchange of material across the membrane. Even
The sodium and potassium pump uses cellular energy. True
The sodium and potassium pump - a carrier system is used. True
The sodium and potassium pump can move substances ______ their concentration gradient. Against
A membrane carrier structure attracts a solute to a binding site, changes shape, and releases the solute on the other side of the cell membrane. This describes the process of ________. Carrier-Mediated transport
Materials can be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through what type of transport? Active
RNA is a single strand. True
RNA contains uracil rather than thymine. True
The obligatory base pairs of RNA are adenine and uracil, and guanine and cytosine. True
DNA - the site of transcription is within the nucleus, whereas the site of translation is in the cytoplasm. True
An individual’s entire set of DNA can be referred to as a _______. Genome
Extensive weight training causes the muscle cells to _______. Hypertrophy
Diffusion of particles through a membrane by means of a carrier molecule is called _____ diffusion. Facilitated
Within the sodium and potassium pump, ______ sodium ions are taken out of the cell. Three
A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell would be __________. Hypertonic
Areolar tissue usually contains which types of cells in the greatest number? Fibroblasts
Which type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing heat? Brown fat
A function of adipose tissue - insulates to conserve body heat. True
A function of adipose tissue - supports and protects the kidneys. True
A function of adipose tissue - stores excess food. True
The papillary layer of the dermis produces the ridges that make ________. Fingerprints
A characteristic of epithelial tissue - forms glands that secrete substances into and out of the body. True
A characteristic of epithelial tissue - covers and protects body surfaces. True
A characteristic of epithelial tissue - lines the interior of body cavities. True
What are three functions of epithelial tissue? Absorption Secretion Protection
A characteristic of connective tissue - protects the body from foreign invaders. True
A characteristic of connective tissue - supports the body. True
A characteristic of connective tissue - transports substances throughout the body. True
What are three functions of connective tissue? Transport Support Defense
Which cells help destroy pathogens and damaged tissue in the brain? Microglia
A characteristic of smooth muscles - having one nucleus per cell. True
A characteristic of smooth muscles - composing the walls of the viscera. True
A characteristic of smooth muscles - usually not being under voluntary control. True
Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the _____________. Bones
What tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? Connective
What vitamins are absorbed through the skin? A D K
The type of tissue that contains cells called neurons is called _________. Nervous
Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called _______. Mesenchyme
Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways. True
The _____________ connects the dermis to underlying tissues. Hypodermis
What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina? Basement membrane
Which cells form the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood? Astrocytes
A characteristic of muscle tissue - cells are specialized to contract . True
A characteristic of muscle tissue - produces movement for the body. True
A characteristic of muscle tissue - generates heat for the body. True
If there is an injury to the occipital bone you may expect that which sense is damaged? Vision
Due to how the clavicle articulates with the scapula, all shoulder movements involve the sternoclavicular joint. True
Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _____ years. 35 and 40
Blood clotting is dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood. True
Transmission of nerve impulses is dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood. True
Contraction of cardiac muscle is dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood. True
A condition that is caused by an abnormally increased roundness in the thoracic curvature is _______. Kyphosis
A characteristic of the diaphysis - hollow. True
A characteristic of the diaphysis - composed of compact bone. True
A characteristic of the diaphysis - provides a bulbous shape for attachment of muscle. False
An open fracture is also known as a compound fracture. True
Hematopoiesis is carried out in the _______ bone marrow. Red
In bone formation, the cells that produce the organic matrix are the _______. Osteoblasts
The primary ossification center of a long bone is located where? In the diaphysis.
The ulna articulates proximally with the _______. Humerus
An age-related skeletal disease that is characterized by loss of bone mineral density and increased bone fragility is ________. Osteoporosis
The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are ________ reticulum and ______ apparatus. Endoplasmic & Golgi
The humerus articulates proximally with the _________. Scapula
Age, mechanical stress and inadequate supply of calcium and Vitamin _____ can cause skeletal variations? D
As the activity of osteoblasts increases, the amount of calcium in the bone ________ and the level of calcium in the blood _______. Increases Decreases
Until bone growth in length is complete, a layer of the cartilage, known as the _____, remains between the epiphysis and diaphysis. Epiphyseal plate
During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the ______ outlet. Pelvic
The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the ______. Thumb
_______, protection, mineral storage, and hematopoiesis are functions of the bone. Support
One hundred milliliters of arterial blood contains approximately what volume percent of oxygen? 20%
Boyle’s law states that the volume of a gas varies _____ with pressure at a _____ temperature. inversely; constant
Gas exchange, the lungs’ main and vital function, takes place in the _______. Alveoli
If the tidal volume of a given individual is 500 ml, then the anatomical dead space is approximately _____ ml. 150
The term used to describe the volume of air exchanged during normal inspiration and expiration is _____ volume. Tidal
Raising the ribs decreases the depth and width of the thorax. False
Changes in thorax size bring about inspiration and expiration. True
When the diaphragm contracts, it pulls the floor of the thoracic cavity downward. True
When the diaphragm relaxes, it returns to a domelike shape. True
About 98.5% of the oxygen carried by systemic arterial blood is attached to _____. Hemoglobin
The approximate partial pressure of oxygen at standard atmospheric pressure is about _____ mm Hg. 160
Increased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, decreased pH, decreased PO2 in arterial blood could cause an increase in the respiratory rate. True
The vital capacity is equal to the sum of the _______, _________, and _____________. inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume.
Dalton law states that the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture of gases is _____ to the total pressure of the mixture. Directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture.
The PCO2 in the atmosphere is _______ than in the alveolar air. Less
Control of cell metabolism rate is not a regulated process associated with the functioning of the respiratory system. True
Transport of gases is not a regulated process associated with the functioning of the respiratory system. False
Gas exchange in lungs and tissue is not a regulated process associated with the functioning of the respiratory system. False
Pulmonary ventilation is not a regulated process associated with the functioning of the respiratory system. False
The function of the vibrissae in the vestibule is to provide an initial “filter” to screen particulate matter from air that is ______ the system. Entering
Which gas law deals with the solubility of gases in solution? Henry
By the time the blood leaves the lung capillaries to return to the heart, what percentage of the blood’s hemoglobin has united with oxygen? 97%
During inspiration, the expansion of the lungs causes a ________ in alveolar pressure. Decrease
The major form by which carbon dioxide is transported in the circulatory system is __________ ions. Bicarbonate
When the pressure in the lung is greater than atmospheric pressure __________ occurs. Expiration
Helps determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute - the total functional surface area of the respiratory membrane. True
Helps determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute - alveolar ventilation. True
Helps determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute - the oxygen pressure gradient between alveolar air and incoming pulmonary blood. True
Because fats are insoluble in water, they must be _____. Emulsified
During which stage of swallowing is there a risk of food entering respiratory pathways? Oropharyngeal
CCK is an intestinal hormone that causes the pancreas to increase secretion of exocrine high in enzymatic content. True
_____ is the passage of substances through the intestinal mucosa into the blood or lymph. Absorption
The process of deglutition includes all of the following except the _____ stage. Laryngeal
The chemical process in which a compound unites with water and then splits into simpler compounds is called ____________. Hydrolysis
The act of expelling feces is called ______________. Defecation
Peristalsis is regulated in part by the intrinsic stretch reflexes. It is also thought to be stimulated by the hormone ___________. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
Fats and other nutrients in the duodenum stimulate the intestinal mucosa to release a hormone called ______________. Gastric inhibitory peptide
The final step in lipid transport by the intestines is the formation of ___________________. Chylomicrons
The wave-like ripple of the muscle layer of the GI tract is called ___________________. Peristalsis
Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by hydrochloric acid, which is produced by the _____ of the gastric glands. Parietal cells
What percentage of this blood flow comes from the hepatic portal system? 80%
Chemical digestion requires the secretion of _____ into the lumen of the GI tract. Digestive enzymes and bile
Stimulation of gastric juice secretion occurs in all of the following phases except the _____ phase. Digestive
Saliva contains the enzyme _________________. Amylase
The ejection of bile from the gallbladder is controlled by which hormones? CCK and secretin
CCK is an intestinal hormone that opposes the influence of gastrin on gastric parietal cells. True
CCK is an intestinal hormone that stimulates contraction of the gallbladder so that bile can pass into the duodenum. True
The hormone that inhibits gastric muscle, slowing passage of food into the duodenum, is called _____________. Gastric inhibitory peptide.
The hormone that stimulates the release of bicarbonate substance from the pancreas is ____________. Secretin
The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is ____________. Cholecystokinin.
The enterogastric reflex causes _______ of gastric peristalsis. Inhibition
The purpose of peristalsis is to propel food ________ along the GI tract. Forward
Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as: Amylase
What is not one of the openings that must be blocked when food moves from the pharynx into the esophagus? Oropharynx
What is a disaccharide? Sucrose
Which blood vessel carries absorbed food from the GI tract to the liver? Portal vein
Which step of deglutition is under voluntary control? Oral stage
The final product of carbohydrate digestion is a what? Monosaccharide
The major site for the absorption of the end products of digestion is the ___________ intestine. Small
The substances absorbed into the lymph capillaries are ___ and ____. Glycerol Fatty Acids
When classified according to the kind of chemical reactions catalyzed, digestive enzymes are referred to as _____ enzymes. Hydrolyzing
The enzyme pepsin begins the digestion of __________. Protein
The hormone thought to be a messenger causing release of digestive enzymes from the intestinal mucosa is _________. Vasoactive intestinal peptide.
The process of fat emulsification consists of breaking fats into ____ droplets. Small
Deglutition and ___________ is the process of mechanical digestion involving the esophagus. Peristalsis
The process of swallowing is known as __________. Deglutition
Enzymes change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction. False
Enzymes accelerate chemical reactions. True
Enzymes are vital to chemical reactions. True
Enzymes contain vitamins in their structure. True
Oxygen enters blood from alveolar air because the partial pressure of alveolar air is ____ than the partial pressure of incoming blood. Greater
Hyperpnea means what? Increase in breathing.
The amount of oxygen that diffuses into blood each minute depends on which factors? Oxygen pressure gradient between alveolar air and incoming pulmonary blood. Total functional surface area of the respiratory membrane Respiratory minute volume Alveolar ventilation
The mechanism that produces pulmonary ventilation is one that establishes a gas pressure gradient between the _______ and the alveolar air. Atmosphere
Which structural feature facilitates oxygen diffusion from the alveolar air into the blood in lung capillaries The alveolar and capillary walls are both very thin. The alveolar and capillary surfaces are both extremely large. The lung capillaries accommodate a large amount of blood at one time. Each red blood cell comes close to alveolar air.
During inspiration, as the size of the thorax increases, the _______ and alveolar pressure decrease. Intrapleural
The _____ represents the largest volume of air an individual can move in and out of the lungs. Vital capacity
A right shift of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve due to increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide is also known as the _____ effect. Bohr
Which term refers to the volume of inspired air that actually reaches, or “ventilates,” the alveoli? Alveolar ventilation
An obstructive lung disorder that is characterized by recurring spasms of the smooth muscles in the wall of the bronchial air passages is ______________. Asthma
What variations exist in the body to temporarily store or carry oxygen? Neuroglobin Myoglobin Fetal hemoglobin
The sensors that provide feedback information to the medullary rhythmicity area are the _________ chemoreceptors and peripheral chemoreceptors. Central
The apparatus used to measure the volume of air exchanged in breathing is called a(n) _____. Spirometer
The forced expiratory volume test can determine the presence of respiratory obstruction by measuring the volume of air ______ per second during forced ______. Expired & Expiration
The volume of air exhaled normally after a typical inspiration is called _____ volume. Tidal
The exit of the bicarbonate ion from the red blood cell is balanced by the inward transport of another negative ion, chloride. This countertransport of negative ions is often called the _____ shift. Chloride
In what form does oxygen travel in the blood? Dissolved oxygen in the plasma Associated with hemoglobin
The compound formed when carbon dioxide combines with hemoglobin is Carbaminohemoglobin.
The exact amount of oxygen in blood depends mainly on the amount of __________. Hemoglobin
When carbon dioxide dissolves in water, some of the carbon dioxide molecules associate with water to form ____ acid. Carbonic
Pressure gradients are established by changes in the _____ cavity. Thoracic
The ability of the lungs and thorax to stretch is referred to as ___________. Compliance
_____ law states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure. Boyle's
Created by: jeannettedodd
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