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Physiology final

QuestionAnswer
Of the pathogenic organsims, which of the following are the most complex Tapeworms
Negative-feedback mechanisms: All of the above: minimize changes in blood glucose levels, maintain homeostasis, are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature.
Homeostasis can best be described as: a state of relative constancy.
Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? transmitter
Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: the body trying to maintain homeostasis, a negative-feedback mechanism
pathogenesis can be defined as: the course of disease development
of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? reproductive
the body's thermostat is located in the: hypothalamus
the normal reading or range of normal is called the: set point
Negative-feedback control systems: oppose a change
intrinsic control: is sometimes called autoregulation
positive-feedback control systems: accelerate a change
the term that literally means self-immunity is: autoimmunity
If the secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative-feedback control loop, what effect would it have on uterine contractions? oxytocin would inhibit uterine contractions
Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? prion
Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics? both have a ring structure in their molecule
The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are: steroids
What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids? degree of saturation
Peptide bonds join together molecules of: amino acids
all of the following substances are organic except: electrolytes
which lipid is part of vitamin D? steroids
Which energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule does not contain a nucleotide? creatine phosphate
Which of the following is not true of carbohydrates? all of the above are true of carbohydrates: they include substances commonly called sugars, are the body's primary source of energy, part of both DNA & RNA
Which of the following is not true of RNA? All of the above are true of RNA: It contains ribose sugar. It contains adenine. It is composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides
The type of lipoprotein associated with “bad” cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels is: LDL
The element that is present in all proteins but not in carbohydrates is: nitrogen
If one side of a DNA molecule is CTAGGCTG, the other side would be: GATCCGAC.
which lipid acts as a tissue hormone prostaglandin
Which of the following is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids? They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end.
Which of the following is not one of the major groups of organic substances in the human body? salts
Which of the following vitamins is(are) absorbed through the skin? all of the above: vitamin D,A, K
Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the stratum: basale
Which of the following is not a characteristic of smooth muscles? having intercalated disks
The hypodermis: connects the dermis to underlying tissues
Which cells form the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood? Astrocytes
Which of the following is not a characteristic of skeletal muscles? having one nucleus per cell
Which type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing heat? brown fat
Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? connective
Which is not a function of connective tissue? communication
Which is not a function of epithelial tissue? assimilation
Which of the following is not a function of adipose tissue? Defends the body from microbes and injurious substances
Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: mesenchyme
Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways. true
Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? connective
The type of tissue that contains cells called neurons is called: nervous
Which of the following is not dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood? All of the above are dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood: blood clotting, transmission of nerve impulses, contraction of cardiac muscle
Hematopoiesis is carried out in the: red bone marrow
Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens. true
If there is an injury to the occipital bone you may expect that which sense is damaged? vision
Please select the bone positioned most superiorly on the human skeleton frontal
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the epiphyses? cylindrical shape
Which of the following is not one of the primary functions performed by bones? hormonal production
The humerus articulates proximally with the clavicle. false
The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are: endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus
the ulna articulates proximally with the: humerus
Which structures are unique to the fetal skull and provide additional space for molding the head shape as the baby passes through the birth canal? fontanels
An open fracture is also known as a compound fracture. true
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the diaphysis? Provides a bulbous shape for attachment of muscle
he primary ossification center of a long bone is located: in the diaphysis
Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _____ years. 35 and 40
Most body movements are _____ contractions. isotonic
glucose can be stored in the muscle as: glycogen
All of the following are characteristics of smooth muscle except: thin and thick filaments are aligned in sarcomeres like skeletal muscles
A condyloid joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. biaxial
cross-bridges are also called: myosin heads
Thick myofilaments extend the length of the: A-band
the opposite of dorsiflexion is: plantar flexion
The largest and most frequently injured joint is the: knee
Physiological muscle fatigue may be caused by: all of the above: a relative lack of ATP, high levels of lactate, failure of the sodium-potassium pumps
Which muscle group extends the vertebral column and also flexes the back laterally and rotates it a little? erector spinae
Moving a body part away from the medial plane of the body is called: abduction
The opposite of eversion is: none of the above: protraction, depression, retraction
Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in which type of muscle contraction? isometric
After it is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the calcium combines with which protein? troponin
Kicking a football is accomplished by knee: extension
A synapse consists of: all of the above; a synaptic knob, a synaptic cleft, the plasma membrane of a postsynaptic neuron
When current leaps across an insulating myelin sheath from node to node, the type of impulse conduction is called: saltatory conduction
The first event to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron is: some of the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open
Compared with the outside of the neuron, the inside has a(n) ____ charge. negative
Acetylcholine is in the same class of neurotransmitters as: none of the above: serotonin, histamine, dopamine
Which neuron could transmit a nerve impulse the fastest? a large-diameter neuron without myelin
Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to: initiate an action potential
Which of the following statements about amino acid neurotransmitters is incorrect? they are all inhibitory neurotransmitters
The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct an impulse that is how much faster than the slowest fibers in the body? almost 300 times faster
When an impulse reaches a synapse: chemical transmitters are released
The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct impulses up to approximately _____ meters per second. 130
During a relative refractory period: the action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus.
Which of the following antidepressants acts by blocking the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO)? phenelzine
Dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are classified as: catecholamines
There are two types of synapses—the electrical synapse and the __________ synapse. chemical
Parasympathetic stimulation has no effect on any of the following areas except: sweat glands
The vomiting reflex is mediated by the: medulla
A mixed nerve is one that carries both sensory and motor fibers
The cerebellum acts with the _____ to produce skilled movement. cerebrum
Which of the following is not true of the knee jerk reflex? it is a flexor reflex
Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may: do all of the above
The cerebellum performs all of the following functions except: controls cardiac function
Norepinephrine is liberated at most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings
Which of the following statements is not true? The major function of the parasympathetic division is to serve as an “emergency” system.
The part of the brain that can directly influence or inhibit the release of hormones from the pituitary is the: hypothalamus
Acetylcholine can stimulate _____ receptors. nicotinic
The part of the brain that assists in the maintenance of balance is the: cerebellum
Biofeedback involves willful control of specific effectors normally controlled only autonomically. true
Normal infants will show the Babinski reflex up to the age of _____ years. 1.5-2
All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except: increased heart rate
The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is: progesterone
The two-point discrimination test can be used to measure: the sensitivity of the skin in various parts of the body.
Which of the following statements is not true of the pineal gland Melatonin is stimulated by the presence of sunlight
The sequence of auditory ossicles in the middle ear starting at the tympanic membrane and ending at the oval window is: malleus, incus, and stapes.
The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the: anterior pituitary.
When a small amount of one hormone allows a second hormone to have its full effect, the phenomenon is called: permissiveness
Which of the following is a function of glucagon? Tends to increase blood glucose concentrations
The immediate effect of a steroid hormone on a cell is the: transcription of RNA
In comparison with the nervous system, the regulatory effects of the endocrine system are: slow to appear but long-lasting.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? Chemical messenger travels a short distance
Accommodation for near vision necessitates all of the above
One of the few hormones that functions on a positive-feedback loop is: oxytocin
When you are looking at a large green field, which cones would be sending the green wavelength to the brain? M
Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the _____ membrane can stimulate nerve impulse condition. tectorial
All of the following are true statements except: aspirin produces some of its effects by increasing PGE synthesis
A hematocrit of 56% would be an indication of: polycythemia.
_____ is used to determine the volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood. hematocrit
____, a natural constituent of blood, acts as an antithrombin and prevents clots from forming in vessels. heparin
The term used to describe the collection of mechanisms that influence the circulation of blood is: hemodynamics
The chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies are particularly sensitive to: hypercapnia
Inhibition of sympathetic vasoconstrictor impulses is considered a major mechanism of vasodilation.
Erythrocytes begin their maturation sequence in red bone marrow from nucleated cells known as: hematopoietic stem cells.
What is the functional significance of large areas of cardiac muscle being electrically coupled to form a single functional syncytium? Because they form a syncytium, muscle cells can pass an action potential along a large area of the heart wall, stimulating contraction in each muscle fiber of the syncytium.
During pregnancy, what happens to the oxygenated blood returned from the placenta via the umbilical vein? It flows into the inferior vena cava.
The term blood type refers to the type of blood cell antigen.
The _____ postulates that when an antigen enters the body, it selects the clone whose cells are committed to synthesizing its specific antibody and stimulates these cells to proliferate and to thereby produce more antibodies. clonal selection theory
Because T cells attack pathogens more directly, T-cell immune mechanisms are classified as _____ immunity. cell-mediated
Memory cells: become plasma cells when exposed to an antigen.
Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an antigen’s epitopes fit into and bind to an antigen molecule’s antigen-binding site
The body’s defense mechanisms can be organized into one of two major categories of immune mechanisms; these are innate and adaptive immunity.
_____ refers to a phenomenon in which the genetic characteristics common to a particular kind of organism provide defense against certain pathogens. Species resistance
The movement of phagocytes from blood vessels to an inflammation site is called diapedesis
The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles is called phagocytosis
_______ is the only antibody class with the ability to cross the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to the developing fetus during pregnancy. IgG
The functions of the lymphatic system include: transporting interstitial fluid back to the bloodstream. providing immunological defenses. transporting absorbed fats from the intestine to the blood. houses and develops lymphocytes.
Which protein interferes with the ability of viruses to cause disease? interferon
Molecules formed by the reactions of the complement cascade assemble themselves on the enemy cell’s surface, which results in cytolysis.
Which of these substances operate(s) immune mechanisms? all of the above
Which antibody is synthesized by immature B cells and then inserted into their plasma membranes? Which antibody is synthesized by immature B cells and then inserted into their plasma membranes?
Pyrogen molecules trigger the fever response by promoting the production of prostaglandins
External respiration can be defined as: the exchange of gases between the lung and the blood capillaries in the lung. pulmonary ventilation
The tendency of the thorax and lungs to return to the preinspiration volume is called: elastic recoil.
Which gas law deals with the solubility of gases in solution Henry
Standard atmospheric pressure is _____ mm Hg. 760
The PCO2 in alveolar air is _____ blood. less than in the systemic venous equal to the systemic arterial
During inspiration, the expansion of the lungs causes: a decrease in alveolar pressure.
One hundred milliliters of arterial blood contains approximately what volume percent of oxygen? 20%
The function of the vibrissae in the vestibule is to: provide an initial “filter” to screen particulate matter from air that is entering the system
Dalton law states that the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture of gases is _____ to the total pressure of the mixture. directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and
When the pressure in the lung is greater than atmospheric pressure: expiration occurs
The PCO2 in the atmosphere is: less than in the alveolar air.
The function of surfactant is to: prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration.
The vital capacity is equal to the sum of the: inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume.
Boyle’s law states that the volume of a gas varies _____ with pressure at a _____ temperature. inversely; constant
The term used to describe the volume of air exchanged during normal inspiration and expiration is: tidal volume
The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is: cholecystokinin.
The major site for the absorption of the end products of digestion is the: small intestine.
Which step of deglutition is under voluntary control? Oral stage
The process of swallowing is known as: deglutition
The process of fat emulsification consists of: breaking fats into small droplets.
When classified according to the kind of chemical reactions catalyzed, digestive enzymes are referred to as _____ enzymes. hydrolyzing
Hydrolysis refers to: using water to split larger compounds into smaller ones.
Which of the following is not a function of the liver? Secretion of insulin
The enterogastric reflex causes inhibition of gastric peristalsis.
The enzyme pepsin begins the digestion of: protein
The purpose of peristalsis is to: propel food forward along the GI tract.
The intestinal hormone cholecystokinin: causes the pancreas to increase exocrine secretions high in enzyme content. opposes the influence of gastrin on gastric parietal cells. stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder.
Glucose moves from the GI tract into the circulatory system by the process of cotransport
Which of the following is a disaccharide? Sucrose
Bicarbonates are useful in the GI tract to: neutralize hydrochloric acid
Water normally leaves the body through _____ exits. four
Which of the following pairs are almost identical when compared chemically? Plasma and interstitial fluid
Which of the following ratios of base bicarbonate to carbonic acid will maintain a normal pH? 20:1
When the effective filtration pressure equals zero: no net transfer of water occurs between blood and interstitial fluid.
The pH of the blood is maintained at approximately: 7.4
Which of the following is not considered a “transcellular fluid”? Lymph
The total fluid or water content of the human body ranges from _____ of its total weight 45% to 75%
Which of the following is not a method used for parenteral administration? By mouth
Which of the following is not one of the seven basic solutions used for parenteral therapy? Liquid protein
What is the most abundant cation in extracellular fluid? sodium
Which of the following is true of total body water? Overweight people have lower water content per kilogram of body weight than slender people.
If the pH of the blood were 7.23, it would be slightly more acidic than normal.
Ketone bodies are associated with cellular metabolism of: fats.
Edema is defined as abnormally large amounts of fluid in the: intercellular spaces
In accordance with the physical laws governing filtration and osmosis, which of the following statements is true? Blood colloid osmotic pressure tends to draw fluid back into the capillaries.
Which of the following statements is not true about the mechanism controlling lactation? Prolactin stimulates the ejection of milk into the ducts of the mammary glands.
Functional sterility results when the sperm count per milliliter falls below _____ million 25
The increase in blood estrogens during the postmenstrual phase of the menstrual cycle produces all of the following changes in the uterus except: decreased myometrial contractions.
Which of the following is not a function of the ovary? It produces follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
Which of the following is true of the essential organ in the reproductive system? It produces gametes. It is called the testis in the male. It is called the gonad in both sexes
Which of the following is not a function of the Sertoli cells? They produce testosterone
The phase of the menstrual cycle that occurs between the expulsion of the ovum from the ovary and the onset of menses is the _____ phase. luteal
The female reproductive system differs from the male reproductive system in that it: provides protection for the developing offspring. provides nutrition to the developing offspring.
Fertilization of an ovum most often occurs in the: fallopian tube
The major function of the reproductive system is propagation of the species. True
Created by: sjhoana241
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