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What are the three main functions of grounding?
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What are the three subsystems of the facility ground system?
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What are the three main functions of grounding? Personnel safety, equipment protection, and electrical noise
What are the three subsystems of the facility ground system? Earth electrode, fault protection, and signal reference
What facility ground subsystem is also known as the “safety ground”? The fault protection subsystem
The signal reference subsystem is often called the “signal” ground as it establishes a _____ _____ for signal circuits and controls electrical noise and static in a facility. Voltage Reference
The signal reference subsystem establishes a multipoint signal reference subsystem by bonding equipment cabinets, racks,conduits,ducts,bus bars, wires and conductors to a common sheet or grid resulting in a network known as an Equipotential plane
________ is a conductive path between the earth and the grounded object. Grounding
________ is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces and is essential in all communications and power circuits. Bonding
Bonds can be made in many ways such as by welding,brazing,soldering, or by compression using bolts, nuts, clamps, and special straps which make up two different types of bonding. What are they? Direct and Indirect bonds
Corrosion introduces impedance, or opposition to the total current flow, into the bond which is why you do not want to bond _____ metals which are particularly susceptible to corrosion. unlike/dissimilar
Electrostatic Discharge (ESD) is the sudden _____ flow of electricity between two electrically charged objects and is caused by the _____ of an electric charge on one surface that _____ transferred to another surface when they touch. sudden, buildup, is suddenly
______ is another name for static electricity or electricity at rest Triboelectricity
A buildup of static electricity can be caused by friction between dissimilar materials and can be transferred through a _____ _____ _____. difference in potential
What type of ESD failure results in a total failure of the component or assembly? Catastrophic
What type of ESD failure has happened when the component appears to be operating normally but may experience premature failure? Latent
What are the three primary control measures for the ESD program? Workstation and personnel grounding, Handling Precautions, Protective Packaging
What is the best method for controlling electrostatic discharge across an ESDS device? Prevent build- up of the cahrge
Before removing an ESDS circuit card from equipment, the technician will Ensure they are at the same potential as the equipment
When working with electrostatic discharge sensitive devices, which of the following statements is TRUE? Ensure all hand tools are properly grounded prior to use.
How do you identify a package that requires special ESDS handling? ESDS Caution Label
How can you control the buildup of static and/or its discharge during shipping? use ESDS packaging
____ ____ is that part of security concerned with active and passive measures designed to prevent unauthorized access to any Air Force resource. Physical Security
List 4 things the Physical Security requirements for a particular facility are dependent on: Type and level of the information handled in the facility Type of equipment missions of the unit to which assigned duty hours of the facility
List the three access areas related to physical security. Control Area Restricted Area No-Lone Zone
When it comes to facility security requirements, your main role is to: Know the requirements for your unit of assignment and apply common sense security practices
_____ measures include the use of proven systems and technologies designed to deter, detect, report and react against threats. Active
The use of hedges or ditches around a building, bright lighting and limiting the number of entrances to a building are examples of ____ measures. passive
Which AF publication series covers all safety topics? 91-series
Safety is the responsibility of _________ all personnel
_____ establish policy and may provide general procedures for implementing policy. DoDIs
_____ consist of procedures that usually contains examples for performing specific tasks, may be separated into volumes, and may contain a policy section. DoDMs
_____ provide and implement guidance and procedures on policies dictated by Air Force Policy Directive, DODIs, DODMs and other policy documents. AFIs
AFIs are like DODIs but are written for members of the US Air Force and are intended for use by active duty, guard, and reserve members, associated civilians and, _____ who must abide by their Statement of Work. Contractors
_____ ________ are commercial publications products that are used in designing and installing networks and are reviewed every __ years for currency. TIA Standards, 5
___________ is a defense standard that establishes uniform engineering and technical requirements for military-unique or substantially modified commercial processes, procedures, practices, and methods. MIL STD
A _____ is a DoD defense standard that is managed by DISA and is a _________ methodology for standardizing security protocols within networks, servers, computers, and logical designs in order to enhance overall security. STIG, Cybersecurity
________ vulnerabilities can allow unauthorized access to classified data or facilities, and can lead to a denial of service or access CAT I
________ vulnerabilities can result in loss of confidentiality, availability, or integrity. CAT II
________ vulnerabilities degrades measures to protect against loss of confidentiality, availability, or integrity. CAT III
How are STIGs viewed? STIG Viewer
What is the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) most famous standard? Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Model
Layers 1-4 of the OSI model are considered the ________ layers, and mostly concern themselves with _________. Lower, Moving Data Around
What are the seven layers of the OSI reference model? Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical
In the OSI Model, the ____ is closest to the end user and therefore is where data is input/output, authentication happens, and the quality of service is identified. Application
The _____ layer of the OSI reference model relates to the services that directly support user applications. Application
The _____ of the OSI Model is where the ____ system lies and is where information received from Session layer in decrypted and/or reformatted back into words, pictures, video, or audio needed by apps in the _____ layer. Presentation Layer, Operating, Application
Everything at the Application layer of the OSI Model is application-specific and so this is where you would find Web browsers and applications which utilize protocols like FTP, DHCP, SMTP, SNMP and Telnet
Encryption, decryption, and data compression is also typically done at this layer of the OSI reference mode. Presentation Layer
The OSI reference model layer that exchanges, and dialogues between the applications on each host is the ______ layer. Session
Which layer of the OSI reference model is responsible for end-to-end recovery, flow control and ensures complete data transfer? Transport Layer
What layer of the OSI reference model is responsible for addressing packets and translating logical addresses and name into physical addresses? Network Layer
Which layer provides the functional and procedural means to transfer data between network entities and may provide the means to correct errors? Data Link Layer
____ are Network/Layer 3 devices and act as a dispatcher choosing the best for data/information to travel such as from a user to the Internet. Routers
___, which connect computers, printers, servers, and other devices to the private network, operate at the Data Link Layer/Layer 2 of the OSI Model. Switches
OSI Model Network Layer/Layer 3 protocols include: Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) Routing Information Protocol (RIP) IPSec IPv4 IPV6
The _______ sub layer controls how a computer on the network gain access to the data and permission to transmit it Media Access Control(MAC)
The data link layer is divided into the _______ and _______ layers. Media Access Control(MAC) Logical Link Control (LLC)
The _____ of the OSI reference model is responsible for the node-to-node delivery of the message. Data Link Layer
The _____ represents the electrical and physical representation of the system. Physical Layer
A ____ is a standard set of rules that allow electronic devices to communicate with each other. Protocol
What are the five layers of TCP/IP? Application, Transport,Network, Data Link, Physical
What protocol defines how data is formatted, transmitted, and what actions web servers and browsers should take in response to various commands? Hyper Text Transfer Porotcol (FTP)
What is the purpose of Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)? Used for email
Which protocol is a method of transferring data files from one computer to another over a network? File Transfer Protocol (FTP
The protocol that is the basis for all addressing on TCP/IP networks is known as Internet Protocol(IP)
Which protocol is created to permit remote monitoring and management of devices and hosts? Simple Network Management Protocol(SNMP)
The protocol that provides a friendly name to IP addresses on the internet is known as Domain Name System(dns)
Which protocol uses broadcast UDP data packets to exchange routing information? Routing information Protocol (RIP)
What protocol automatically assigns dynamic IP addresses to devices on a network? Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
What protocol “resolves” (converts) the network layer (IP) address into a link layer address (MAC)? Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
What is a virtual path to send and receive data from computers and used to communicate between two different applications? a port
What are the ports called that range from 0-1023 and are assigned to common protocols and services? Well-Known Ports
What is the range of Registered Ports? 1024-49151
What ports are assigned by IANA and are designated for specific application services requested by an application? Registered
Which type of ports are temporary allocations and only valid for the duration of the communication session? Dynamic, Private, or Ephemeral Ports
What are two statuses for ports? Open and Closed
_____ communication means the delivery of information or data is guaranteed by the protocols employed to transmit it. Connection - Oriented
TCP is a connnection-oriented communication protocol which provides ____ and _____ of data packet delivery. Sequencing and Acknowledgement
____ is used when speed is the primary importance, such as real-time video conferencing, streaming audio and video, Voice Over IP (VOIP), music, and online games. UDP
List the header fields in a UDP header: Length, Source port, Destination port, Checksum
This suite is a combination of protocol relationships, encompassing several different protocols, each having different purposes and needs and is the protocol suite the majority of the Internet uses. TCP/IP Protocol Suite
What are the protocols mentioned that require the reliable, ordered delivery of packets that the TCP protocol offers? Telnet, HTTP, SMTP, and FTP
The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a _____ protocol because data is sent from one endpoint to another without prior arrangement and no guarantees that the data will reach the recipient. Connectionless
1 1 0 1 (2) ^ ^ ^ ^ a b c d d is the Base/Radix a is the MSD c is the LSD b is the Place Holder
Decimal to Binary Weighted Chart 2^8|2^7|2^6|2^5|2^4|2^3|2^2|2^1 |2^0 256|128|64 |32 |16 |8 |4 |2 |1
Decimal numbers to Hexadecimal 1-9 A-F (10-15) Does not go higher than F(15) 1.)Find the largest number that will divide into the decimal number. 16 to the power. 2.)Find the largest number that will divide into the remainder of the decimal number.
Binary to Hexadecimal 8421 Method Beginning with the LSD, divide the Binary number into groups of 4 Place the 8421 above each group Directly convert each of these groups into a hexadecimal digit
How many binary digits make up a hexadecimal digit? 4
How do you write the hexadecimal digit of F in binary? 1111
Computers must have a valid ___ address in order to communicate on the network. IP
What are the names of the two parts an IPv4 address? Network and host
Which part of the IPv4 address identifies a specific network and must be assigned by IANA? Network
To represent a binary IP address in a more user-friendly manner ___ is used. dotted decimal notation
Which class of IPv4 addressing has network addresses of 1-126 Class A
What IPv4 class is used for small networks? Class C
Which class of IPv4 address has network addresses of 128-191? Class B
Class D addresses are reserved for ___ addressing. multicast
The IPv4 class reserved for research and development is class __. Class E
A ___ network is capable of joining two or more devices through radio waves. wireless
A(n) ____ connects to a wired router or switch via an Ethernet cable, and transmits a Wi-Fi signal to a designated area. Access Point
A ____ is a device that performs a specific function. network node
The ___ is the identifier (name) that tells you which service set (or network) to join. SSID
Which wireless network is achieved by wirelessly connecting coverage cells to provide services to an expanded geographical location? WWAN
Which wireless computer network links two or more devices using a wireless distribution method within a limited area such as a home, school, computer laboratory, or office building? WLAN
_____ link two or more devices using a wireless distribution method within a limited area such as a home, school, computer lab, or office building, with the most common connection through Wi-Fi for distances up to ___ meters WLAN, 100
What type of address is normally used as the ID of a BSS (BSSID)? MAC Address
An ____ consists of all the BSSs in the network. Extended Basic Service Set(ESSID)
A _____ consumes less power, provides short-range communication, is low cost, and provides a connected communication of various devices in people's personal space. WPAN
A wireless network that is intended to cover an area that ranges around 31 miles or 50 kilometers and allows multiple locations or buildings to stay connected within any metropolitan area is a ___ WMAN
What type of network relies on wireless as well as wired signals? Hybrid
A wireless ____ network allows one to wirelessly connect one device to another without first connecting to a wireless router or access point. Ad Hoc
List three wireless advantages. Increased mobility and collaboration, Roam without losing connection, and connect hard-to-reach areas.
Which network is faster when transferring files over a local area network, wired or wireless? Wiredq
Wi-Fi is a technology based on the ___ suite of standards. IEEE 802.11
This IEEE standard is for the short-range wireless interconnection of mobile phones, computers, and other electronic devices. IEEE 802.15.1 Bluetooth
This IEEE standard is a 2.4 GHz mesh LAN protocol developed for a suite of high-level communication protocols used to create personal area networks with small, low-power digital radios. IEEE 802.15.4 Zigbee
This IEEE standard uses a form of visual light communication that uses light waves from Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) to exchange data quickly and securely at a much lower power level compared to Wi-Fi. IEEE 802.15.7 Li-Fi
This IEEE standard was developed separately from Wi-Fi and designed for long-range networking (spanning miles or kilometers) as opposed to local area wireless networking. IEEE 802.16 WiMax
is a network contention protocol that listens to a network in order to avoid collisions. Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA)
This type of wireless access point has all the software required to manage the WLAN processes with no need for additional controllers or switches. Autonomous Access Point
This type of wireless access point has additional device or devices merged with the access point to provide the additional functionalities along with existing functionality of the access point. Multifunction Access Point
This type of wireless access point works as the client of the Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) and doesn’t make any forwarding decision. Lightweight Access Point
This type of wireless access point has either been installed on a secure company network without explicit authorization from a local network administrator or has been created to allow a hacker to conduct a man-in-the-middle attack. Rogue Access Point
he two types of twisted-pair cable are Unshielded and shielded
cable is the most common media for network connectivity. Twisted-pair
Category ___ UTP is not suitable for data transmission 1
Category ___ UTP is rated for data transmission speeds up to 100Mbps. 5
A ________ ________cable has the pins on end of the cable match and is used to connect two unlike devices, such as a PC to a switch. Straight Through
Which type of network cable has the TX and RX pins swapped on the opposite end of the cable and is used to connect like devices, such as switch to switch? Crossover Cable
A ______ cable has the pins exactly opposite on the ends of the cables and is used to connect a PC to the console port of a switch or router. rollover
Shielded twisted pair (STP) cables combines the techniques of ____ and _____ of wires to protect against signal degradation. Shielding, Twisting
Which cable type has the major benefit of reducing electrical noise both within the cable (pair-to- pair crosstalk) and outside the cable (Electromagnetic Interference and Radio Frequency Interference)? Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
Fiber optic cables are immune to all types of EMF monitoring. (True/False) True
Which cable type supports the longest segment length? Single-mode fiber
One problem with light transmissions is _____ conditions, such as fog, can degrade the signal. atmospheric
With ______ _______ signals, the information you wish to transmit is superimposed onto a radio frequency (RF) carrier, which increases power and range of the signal. Fixed Frequency
_____ signals is a transmission technique that transmits a signal across a broad frequency bandwidth and varies as the RF carrier frequency varies. Spread Spectrum
____ and ____ are two advantages of unguided media. Mobility and Portability
Three disadvantages of unguided/ unbound media are ____ , _____ and _____. security, distortion and interference, and speed
List the steps in network troubleshooting methodology. 1) Identify the problem, 2) Establish a theory of probable cause, 3) Test the theory, 4) Establish a plan of action, 5) Verify functionality, 6) Document the findings, actions and outcomes
List three sources from which to obtain information when identifying a network problem. 1) The user experiencing the problem, 2) the computer in the form of logs and error messages, 3) personal observation
In ________________ the symptoms are NOT the problem! Troubleshooting
In the Establish a Theory of Probable Cause step, how are probable causes prioritized? From most likely to least likely
When writing a step by step Plan of Action what are three things that should be considered? 1) The plan should identify any possible repercussions that the resolution to the problem may introduce to the network, 2) If the problem impacts others, 3) Does it require coordination with other offices or agencies?
Why should you test and verify that the system is fully functional? Sometimes a fix will introduce a new issue.
What is an aspect of troubleshooting that addresses issues by digging deeper to find and resolve underlying causes - rather than merely "putting out fires" or fixing surface-level problems? Root Cause Analysis
This final troubleshooting methodology step captures a history of equipment and users so that perpetual issues become known and recorded: Document the findings, actions and outcomes
Secures cable ends to connectors through mechanical pressure. Crimper
Tests continuity and pin-out for disconnected cables Cable Tester
Performs cable tester functions on cables connected to a device Loopback Adapter
Inserts and securely seats individual cable wires into contact slots Punchdown Tool
Checks for breaks in fiber optic cable OTDR
Checks for proper light propagation in fiber optic cables. Light Meter
Isolates a single cable within a larger bundle of cables. Tone Generator
Measures voltage, resistance, and tests continuity in electrical circuits Digital Multimeter
Scans for amplitude across a domain of radio frequencies Spectrum Analyzer
Intercepts and logs network packets for malware/intrusion analysis. Packet Sniffer
Searches for unintentionally opened logical ports. Port Scanner
Shows information on all frames within your network (i.e. Wireshark). Protocol Analyzer
Tests the WiFi signal for reliability, signal strength, and download speed. WiFi Analyzer
Tests upload and download speed of modem Bandwidth Speed Tester
Queries Internet Protocol (IP) address to verify network connectivity. ping
Traces all routers between two points, used to detect unresponsive routers. tracert
Displays activity for a given domain name, used to diagnose DNS problems. nslookup
Displays IP settings for the computer on which this command is input. ipconfig
Configures network interface. ifconfig
Allows utility firewall settings (Unix Only) iptables
Shows all active TCP sessions for a computer. netstat
Same as Wireshark, but with only available in command line. tcpdump
Measures network latency and loss pathping
Scans all devices on your network for vulnerabilities. nmap
Display/edit the local systems routing table. route
Display/edit the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) table on a computer. ARP
Same as nslookup (Unix Only) dig
Network Connectivity Test Sets use a series of queries to test for proper transmission and reception of data communication signals between devices within a network.
Some connectivity test sets can perform switch connectivity, Ping, and _______ testing. Power over Ethernet
Some connectivity test sets can act as transmission testers, perform RF tests, check for delay skew and create ___________ maps IEEE 802.3
______________________________ are used by network administrators to monitor the availability of network services, functionality of network interfaces, status of critical hardware systems, CPU, memory, or bandwidth. Network Monitoring Systems
List three other statistics an NMS provides for servers and devices on a network. Service or device availability Network response time Network route analytics
List five basic functions of the NMS Discover, Map, Monitor, Alert, and Report
Which basic function of the NMS is to find the devices on the network and how they are connected? Discover
When a network monitoring system completes the discovery process, it automatically assigns an appropriate ___ _________ to each discovered device on the discovered ___________ ___________. device role device list
Device roles are ____ and ____________ specific type and vendor
Which basic function of the NMS is to visualize your network? Map
NMSs generate ____ _________, a powerful first response tool that enables network administrators to visualize their networks, display devices and up- to-date status. network maps
Which basic function of the NMS keeps an eye on your network? Monitor
List the “big 5” network administrators want to monitor for any device on the network. Ping Availability and Latency CPU Memory Disk and Interface Utilization
Which basic function of the NMS notifies network administrators when something goes wrong? Alert
based alerting enables network administrators to respond to problems before they impact users, or applications. Threshold
____ is an automated messaging system that sends messages when an event affects a network device. Syslog
Which basic function of the NMS deals with real-time and historical reporting? Report
NMSs deliver monitoring information in webpages called _____ made up of ____ views. dashboards turn-key
A(n) ______________ _____________ ____________ detects anomalies with the aim of catching hackers before they do real damage to a network. Intrusion Detection System
IDSs ___, ____, and ____ the security infrastructure for signs of attack in progress scan, audit, monitor
List two ways that IDSs work. Looking for signatures of known attacks or deviations from normal activity.
____ is one of the most widely used protocols for monitoring. SNMP
List the key functions of the SNMP management tool. Querying agents, getting replies from agents, establishing variables in agents, and recognizing asynchronous events
Objects queried by SNMP are maintained in a ____ ____ ____. Management Information Base (MIB)
What does a MIB define? All the information that is exposed by the managed device.
The objects in a MIB are catalogued and has its own, unique _________ _______. Object Identifier
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