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SCI221-Assignment#1

Week1-6

QuestionAnswer
Which level of control operates at the cell level, often using genes and enzymes to regulate cell function? intracellular regulation
The relatively constant state maintained by the body is known as homeostasis
The impact of effector activity on sensors may be positive or negative. Therefore, homeostatic control mechanisms are categorized as organs that are directly influenced by physiological variables or mechanisms.
Extrinsic control usually involves which mode of regulation? nervous endocrine
What term describes a signal traveling toward a particular center or point of reference? afferent
The concept that information may flow ahead to another process to trigger a change in anticipation of an event that will follow is feed-forward
Processes for maintaining or restoring homeostasis are known as homeostatic control mechanisms.
The normal reading or range is called the set point
Many complex processes of the body are coordinated at many levels. These include intracellular intrinsic extrinsic
Local control or _____, intrinsic mechanisms often make use of chemical signals. autoregulation
Which of the following is a basic component of every feedback control loop? sensor mechanism, integrating center, effector, feedback
The body naturally changes some set points to different values at different times of the day. These daily cyles are called circadian cycles
Effectors can be described as organs that directly influence controlled physiological variables
To accomplish self-regulation, a highly complex and integrated communication control system or network is required. This type of network is called a(n) feedback control loop
Events that lead to an immune response to an infection or the formation of a blood clot are examples of positive feedback
Because negative feedback control systems oppose changes that are opposite in direction to the initial disturbance, they are slowed or maintained in the homeostatic range.
Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? Transmitter
The term that literally means self-immunity is: autoimmunity
Negative-feedback mechanisms: minimize changes in blood glucose levels maintain homeostasis are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature
Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? Reproductive
Negative-feedback control systems: oppose a change
Positive-feedback control systems: accelerate a change
Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called: viruses
The body’s thermostat is located in the: hypothalamus
Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: the body trying to maintain homeostasis a negative-feedback mechanism
Intrinsic control: is sometimes called autoregulation
Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? Environment Stress Lifestyle
The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback positive
If the secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative-feedback control loop, what effect would it have on uterine contractions? Oxytocin would inhibit uterine contractions
Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? Prion
Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations. occurrence distribution transmission
The normal reading or range of normal is called the: set point
Pathogenesis can be defined as: the course of disease development.
Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex? Tapeworms
Homeostasis can best be described as: a state of relative constancy
The most important monosaccharide is glucose
Any large molecule made up of many identical small molecules is called a(n) polymer
A saturated fatty acid is one in which all available bonds of its hydrocarbon chain are filled.
Which of the following is polymer of glucose that is sometimes referred to as animal starch? Glycogen
ATP is the form of energy that cells generally use
A triglyceride is composed of a glycerol molecule and three of the same type of fatty acid False
What term is often used to describe certain arrangements of atoms attached to the carbon core of many organic molecules? functional group
All proteins have which four elements? carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen
A very large molecule composed of subunits of sugar, a nitrogen base, and a phosphate bond is a nucleic acid
DNA and RNA are important because information molecules
Which term means “water loving” and applies to the phospholipid head? hydrophilic
Which of these is not a lipid? polysaccharide
What determines how a protein performs? shape
RNA and DNA have the same pyrimidine bases but different purine bases. False
The lipid that is often referred to as a tissue hormone is prostaglandin
Proteins are polymers of amino acids
Chaperone proteins assist in the proper folding of other proteins so they can have the correct functional shape. True
When two amino acids are joined, a peptide bond is formed and an H+ ion is released. False
The carbon-containing molecules formed by living things are often called organic molecules
In base pairing of DNA molecules, _____ is bound to _____. adenine; thymine
What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids? Degree of saturation
Peptide bonds join together molecules of: amino acids
Which energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule does not contain a nucleotide? Creatine phosphate
The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called: dehydration synthesis
The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are: steroids
All of the following substances are organic except: electrolytes
When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide? Maltose
The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of _____, with _____ being the dominant component. carbohydrate and protein; protein
The basic building blocks of fats are: fatty acids and glycerol
A _____ is a functional group that is temporarily unattached and is highly reactive because of unpaired electrons free radical
Sometimes referred to as animal starch, _____ is the main polysaccharide in the body glycogen
The type of lipoprotein associated with “bad” cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels is: LDL
Which lipid acts as a “tissue hormone”? Prostaglandin
Unsaturated fats: will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms.
Amino acids frequently become joined by: peptide bonds
Which of the following is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids? They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end
The roles played by proteins can be divided into which categories? Structural and functional
The element that is present in all proteins but not in carbohydrates is: nitrogen
Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included in the diet, are called: essential amino acids
The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure? Secondary
The cell process in which microorganisms or other large particles are engulfed is called phagocytosis
The two processes of protein synthesis are transcription and translation
Meiosis is called “reduction division” because the number of chromosomes is reduced by half.
Which of the following phases is NOT correctly matched with its description? anaphase – mitosis is complete
Which of the following is not a characteristic of meiosis? two haploid gametes
In the electron transport system, the final electron acceptor is oxygen
If oxygen is available, the pyruvate molecules formed by glycolysis are prepared to enter the next phase of aerobic cellular respiration, called the citric acid cycle
Osmosis can be defined as the net movement of water molecules from a region of lower solute concentration to a region of higher solute concentration
The total number of 46 chromosomes per cell is referred to as _________ number diploid
Water pressure that develops in a solution as a result of osmosis into that solution is called _____ pressure osmotic
RNA makes proteins by translation
A molecule or other agent that alters enzyme function by changing its shape is called a(n) allosteric effector
Replication of DNA occurs in which phase of interphase? S phase
In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes move to the opposite ends of the cells along the spindle fibers? anaphase
If red blood cells containing 10% solute are placed in a solution containing 10% solute, what will happen? Water will move into and out of the cells at equal rates
Red blood cells are placed in an unknown solution. After 45 minutes, the cells are examined and determined to have decreased in size. The unknown solution is hypertonic
A chemical that reduces the amount of activation energy needed to start a chemical reaction is a(n) catalyst
Transcription can best be described as the synthesis of mRNA.
Diffusion can be defined as the net movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration
Diffusion moves down a concentration gradient.
The component that distinguishes one nucleotide from another is the nitrogen base
Meiotic division occurs in primitive sex cells
Glycolysis occurs in what part of the cell? cytoplasm
In the DNA molecule, a sequence of three base pairs forms a(n) codon
Which of the following is an active transport process? endocytosis
The result of meiosis is four daughter cells that are haploid
Mitosis is subdivided into four phases, including all of the following except karyophase
Facilitated diffusion is not an active transport process because it does not depend on cell energy
Proteins that act as catalysts are called enzymes
Normal mitosis results in cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell
NaCl would move through the cell membrane in which direction? Both into and out of the cell
Extensive weight training causes the muscle cells to: hypertrophy
Diffusion requires: a concentration gradient
If a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were A-U-C-G-A, which of the following would be true about the nucleic acid? It contains ribose sugar
A sequence of three bases forms a(n): codon
Which of the following statements is true? The site of transcription is within the nucleus, whereas the site of translation is in the cytoplasm.
Transcription can be best described as the: synthesis of mRNA
The small water channels in the cell membrane are called: aquaporins
Which of the following is not true of RNA? It contains deoxyribose sugar
A membrane carrier structure attracts a solute to a binding site, changes shape, and releases the solute on the other side of the cell membrane. This describes the process of: carrier-mediated transport
Diffusion of particles through a membrane by means of a carrier molecule is called: facilitated diffusion
Which of the following terms is synonymous with tumor? Neoplasm
A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell would be: hypertonic
Two solutions of different concentrations of glucose are separated by a membrane that allows both glucose and water to pass through. When dynamic equilibrium is reached, there will be: an even exchange of material across the membrane
Which is true about the sodium and potassium pump? Three sodium ions are taken out of the cell
Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as: haploid
When the chromosomes align themselves across the equator of the spindle fibers, it is characteristic of which phase of mitosis? Metaphase
The physical process by which water and solute move through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure gradient exists across the membrane is the process of: filtration
The pairing of bases of a strand of DNA is obligatory. If a strand of DNA were composed of the base sequence of ATCG, what would be the obligatory sequence of its opposing base pairs? TAGC
Which of the following is not true of diffusion? Uses cellular energy
In which skin layer does the process of keratinization begin? Stratum granulosum
The hair papilla consists of _____ tissue. dermal
The nail body forms at the nail root, which has a matrix of proliferating cells from the _____________ that enables the nail to grow continuously. stratum basale
Which skin layer has cells that look prickly because of the desmosomes that join the cells together? Stratum spinosum
Fingernail growth is the result of the mitosis of the cells in the stratum: germinativum
Which cells of the skin act as a type of antigen-presenting cell in the skin? Dendritic cells
Smooth muscles that produce goose pimples when they contract are the _____ muscles. arrector pili
Which skin layer contains closely packed, clear cells that contain a gel-like substance called eleidin? Stratum lucidum
Apocrine sweat glands can be found in all of the following areas except the: soles of the feet.
Hair: alternates between periods of growth and rest consists of keratinized cells is formed from cells of the germinal matrix
Which is not part of a hair? Lanugo
The hair follicle is found in the: dermis
The gland responsible for the waxy secretion in the external ear canal is: ceruminous
Which cells of the skin are filled with a tough, fibrous protein and account for most of the epidermal cells of the skin? Keratinocytes
Which skin layer is called the barrier area? Stratum corneum
Which of the following is not used by the body as a neurotransmitter? Nitric oxide Acetylcholine Carbon monoxide
Stimulus-gated channels open in response to: sensory stimuli
The brief period during which a local area of an axon's membrane resists re-stimulation is called the __________ period. refractor
Serotonin is an example of a(n): amine neurotransmitter
A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a _____ potential local
A term commonly used as a synonym for action potential is nerve impulse
A synaptic knob would be located on a(n): axon
The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct an impulse that is how much faster than the slowest fibers in the body? Almost 300 times faster
Which is true of an action potential? The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is positively charged
There are two types of synapses—the electrical synapse and the __________ synapse chemical
The only ion(s) that can diffuse across a neuron’s membrane when the neuron is at rest is (are): potassium
Compared with the outside of the neuron, the inside has a(n) ____ charge negative
The active transport mechanism in the plasma membrane that transports sodium and potassium ions in opposite directions and at different rates is the sodium-potassium pump
Acetylcholine is in the same class of neurotransmitters as: serotonin. histamine. dopamine. - none of the above
Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to: initiate an action potential
When an impulse reaches a synapse: chemical transmitters are released
A synapse consists of: a synaptic knob. a synaptic cleft. the plasma membrane of a postsynaptic neuron.
Severe depression can be caused by a deficit in certain brain synapses of: amines
The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct impulses up to approximately _____ meters per second 130
Within the nervous system, coding for the strength of a stimulus is accomplished through: the frequency of nerve impulses
What is are the two types/functions of bone marrow? Red & yellow – produces red blood cells and stores energy as fat
The external portion of the bone is known as Cortical bone
Bones grow due to activity in the Epiphyseal plates
Which of the following is NOT CONSIDERED a long bone C5 Vertebral Body
When an astronaut is in space for 2 months what may happen to their bone density as compared to a person living on earth? The astronaut will experience bone loss at an increased rate as a person on earth
Why is cartilage slow to heal. Because it is semi-solid and flexible Because has a no or a limited blood supply
Which of the following is a location in which you would find fibrous cartilage Public symphysis Interverbal discs
Select the answer that best describes the axial skeletal structure. Provides framework for muscles that anchor and stabilize the appendicular bones
Adipocytes, found in the yellow bone marrow, stores and releases ____________________________ for energy. fat and triglycerides
Which function of the skeletal system would be especially important if you were in a car accident? protection of internal organs
Without red bone marrow, bones would not be able to ________ make blood cells
Which of the following provide flexibility and smooth surfaces for movement? Cartilages
The fontenelles of an infant's skull consists of fibrous membrane
Which statement below is correct regarding fontanelles? Allows for brain growth. The anterior fontanelle closes at about 2 years of age. The fontanelles are fibrous membranes.
Hematopoietic stem cells that are found in red bone marrow can develop into a variety of different blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. True
Please select the bone positioned most superiorly on the human skeleton frontal
Blood calcium levels involve secretion of which two hormones? parathyroid and calcitonin
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the diaphysis? Provides a bulbous shape for attachment of muscle
Which of the following is not one of the primary functions performed by bones? Hormonal production
An open fracture is also known as a compound fracture True
The humerus articulates proximally with the scapula
If there is an injury to the occipital bone you may expect that which sense is damaged? vision
One similarity between the structures of the foot and hand is the equivalent degrees of movement of both the thumb and the big toe. False
Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone False
Bones grow in diameter by the combined action of which two of the three bone cell types? osteoblasts and osteoclasts
Which structures are unique to the fetal skull and provide additional space for molding the head shape as the baby passes through the birth canal? fontanels
Bones act as a reservoir for which of the following minerals? Both B and C
Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens True
Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes begin to divide and secrete additional matrix
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the epiphyses? Cylindrical in shape
Due to how the clavicle articulates with the scapula, all shoulder movements involve the sternoclavicular joint. True
Calcification of the organic bone matrix occurs when complex calcium salts are deposited in the matrix
The following are functions of bone except for support. protection. mineral storage. hematopoiesis.
The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are: endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus
Hematopoiesis is carried out in the: red bone marrow
Which of the following is not among the structures that characterize synovial joints? tendons
According to the sliding filament theory actin moves past myosin
If a structural classification is used, joints are named according to the type of _____ tissue that joins the bones together connective
Joints joined by fibrocartilage are called symphyses
The energy required for muscular contraction is obtained by hydrolysis of ATP
Anaerobic respiration results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule called lactate
Exercise may cause an increase in muscle size called hypertrophy
_____ occurs when the foot is tilted upward, thus decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg Dorsiflexion
The joints between the articulating surfaces of the vertebral processes are classified as what type of joint? gliding
The structure of the knee joint permits movements of flexion and extension
Which type of movement occurs between the carpal and tarsal bones and between the articular facets of adjoining spinal vertebrae? gliding
Synovial joints are freely movable
Which of the following is an example of a uniaxial joint? elbow joint
The minimal level of stimulation required to cause a fiber to contract is called the threshold stimulus
Three phases of the twitch contraction are the latent period, contraction phase, and relaxation phase
The joint present during the growth years between the epiphyses of a long bone and its diaphysis is the synchrondrosis
The shoulder joint is an example of a _____ joint. The shoulder joint is an example of all of these
The largest and most commonly injured joint in the body is the _____ joint knee
Synarthrotic joints are immovable
Which of the following is not a function of muscles? storage
The muscle’s ability to stretch or extend and to return to its resting length is called extensibility
Muscle tone is maintained by negative feedback mechanisms
Repeated stimulation of muscle in time lessens its excitability and contractibility and may result in fatigue
A contraction in which muscle length remains the same but muscle tension increases is called an isometric contraction
The four kinds of protein that make up myofilaments are myosin, actin, tropomyosin, and troponin
The more muscle fibers contracting at the same time, the stronger the contraction of the entire muscle. The number of muscle fibers contracting depends on how many motor units are recruited
Some synovial joints contain a closed pillow-like structure called a(n) bursa
The contractile unit of a muscle cell is the sarcomere
Which structure allows the electrical signals to travel along the sarcolemma and move deeper into the cell? transverse tubule
Which subtype of fibrous joints is found only in the skull? suture
A condyloid joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. biaxial
The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is: myosin
The ability of muscle cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called: irritability
The knee joint is an example of a _____ joint. hinge
All of the following are true characteristics of an isometric contraction except: movement is produced
Muscle contractions will continue as long as: the calcium ions are attached to the troponin
Stretching the foot down and back and pointing the toe is called: plantar flexion
A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called a(n) _____ contraction isotonic
Which type of joint joins the two pubic bones together? Symphysis
Aerobic respiration: produces the maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule
After it is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the calcium combines with which protein? Troponin
Endurance training is also known as: aerobic training
Which type of muscle does not have T-tubules? Smooth
Which muscle group extends the vertebral column and also flexes the back laterally and rotates it a little? erector spinae
Which of the following statements about cardiac muscle is incorrect? Cardiac muscle requires nervous stimulation to contract.
Physiological muscle fatigue may be caused by: a relative lack of ATP. high levels of lactate. failure of the sodium-potassium pumps.
The energy required for muscular contraction is obtained by hydrolysis of ATP
The opposite of dorsiflexion is: plantar flexion
Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in which type of muscle contraction? Isometric
Created by: nadee11
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