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Immunology final

Immunology/serology final

Which class of immunoglobulins possesses 10 antigen sites? IgM
Which class of immunoglobulins binds to basophils and mast cells to mediate immediate hypersensitivity reactions? IgE
What is the predominant type of antibody found in the serum of neonates born after full term gestation? Maternal IgG
HLA antigens are found on? All nucleated cells
After exposure to antigen, the first antibodies that can be detected belong to the class: IgM
Monoclonal antibodies are produced by? Hybridomas
Which class of antibody, referred to as incomplete antibody, is able to agglutinate RBC's after anti-human globulin is added? IgG
Which of the following immunoglobulins is most prevalent in secretions? IgA
Which of the following factors are associated with declining levels of immunity? Advanced age, Poor nutrition, Inability to cope, Alcoholism
Which of the following cells is associated with cell-mediated immunity? T-Lymphocytes
Another name for antibody-mediated immunity is: Humoral
Specific antigenic determinants of the antibody that processes a unique structure on the variable portion of light and heavy chains? Idiotypic
Genetically different individuals are referred to as? Allogenic
Which of the following characteristics is not true of an anamnestic response compared to a primary response? IgM antibodies predominate
Which type of antibody is capable of placental transfer? IgG
Which is true about monoclonal antibodies? Engineered to bind to a single specific cell, purified antibodies, cloned from a single cell, used to classify and identify specific cellular membrane characteristics
The principal type of leukocyte in the process of phagocytosis is he: Neutrophil
A primary function of the eosinophil is? Suppression of the inflammatory response
The host defense functions of monocytes/macropages includes? Secretion of biologically active molecules, antigen presentation, phagocytosis
Which statement about basophils is True Are associated with anaphylactic shock, have high concentrations of heprin and histamine in granules
Defective mobilization Diabetes
Defect in bactericidal ability of neutrophils Myeloperoxidase deficiency
Failure to exhibit increased anaerobic metabolism during phagocytosis Chronic granulomatous disease
Defect in cellular response to chemotaxis Chediak-Higashi Anomaly
Which is the correct order of action regarding phagocytosis Chemotaxis, adherence, engulfment, digestion
T cell lymphocytes gain maturity in the thymus orginating from bone marrow progenitor cells true
Which of the following Are secondary lymphoid tissues? GALT, Filtration & drainage system, thoracic duct
8-cell differentiation CD4
Cytotoxic T cells CD8
Macrophage APC
The term "pentameric" refers to an immunoglobulin molecule involved in secondary response false
SCIDS refers to? Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome, a disease usually affecting babies, results in early death, and results in numerous infections
What is true regarding B lymphocytes Humoral immune response, production of immunoglobulins, activation, secretion
Factors the influence the development of an infectious disease include all of the following: Immune status of an individual, Pathogenicity of the agent, Incidence of an organism in the population
Varicella-zoster virus can be reactivated in all the following: Aids, Elderly, Compromised
For an infectious disease to develop in a host, the organism must initially...: Penetrate the skin or mucous membrane barrier
Why is phagocytosis Not an effective device for human immunity when the body is fending of f a parasite? They are able to migrate away from the phagocyte
The best diagnostic protocol for determining the stage of infection the patient is in, involves: Testing MULTIPLE specimens during the course of the disease
Rising titer during testing of paired specimens is an indication of increasing severity of the disease
What type of B cells are formed after antigen stimulation? Plasma cells and memory B cells
Which T cell expresses the CD8 marker and acts specifically to kill tumors or virally infected cells? T cytotoxic
Which of the following antigens is classified as an MHC class II antigen? HLA-DR
Soluble mediators of the immune system generally refers to the________ cascade proteins Complement
Which of the following is the primary major protein involved in the complement cascade proteins? C3
The main function of C3 convertase is? Cleavage of the C3 molecule resulting in C3b
The controlling event of the alternate complement pathway is? Factor H prvention of association between C3b and factor B
The radioallergosorbent test (RAST): Uses antigen specific IgE Antibody
The CH50 assay is useful for? Following course of an immune complex disease, screening genetic deficiencies of te complement system, the diagnosis of hereditary angio-neurotic edema
Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) has replased radioimmunoassay (RIA) because RIA: Creates a hazardous waste problem
In radial immunodiffusion (RID), specific_______ are added to the buffered agarose medium: Antibodies
Radial immunodiffusion (RID) measures______ at the optimal point of diffusion. Diameter or precipitation
DNA can be amplified by: "in vitro" amplification and cloning
The advantages of molecular testing include: Faster turn around time, smaller specimen volume, increased specificity
The clinical application of the analysis of amplification products includes: Genetic testing, hematopathology diagnosis and monitoring, and Identification of infectious agents
Reverse transcriptase PCR applications include identification of : HIV and HCV
Amplification of nucleic acid fragments from a different target is performed with : Multiplex PCR
Steps in the enzymatic process of the PCR cycle: DNA denaturation, Primer anneling, Extension of the primed DNA sequence
The important applications of PCR include all the following: Amplification of DNA, detection of genetic mutations, synthesis of a labeled anti-sense probe
The first phase of aggultination and a representative of the physical attachment of antibody molecules to antigens on the RBC membrane refer to...: Sensitization
Serum protein Elecetrophoresis separates proteins into: Albumen and Globulin Fractions
All the following are true regarding PCR: Amplifies low levels of DNA, Two short DNA primers are used, oligonucleotides act as a template
Current uses of cell cytometry use: four monoclonal antibodies directly conjugated to a distinct fluorochrome
In nephelometry measurement, a______method is used: Fixed time
A disadvantage of nephelometry is lipemic must be rejected and a new specimen must be obtained
A fundamental prerequisite for nephelometric protein quantitation is: Formation of a macromolecular complex
Which of the following is correct regrading measurement of turbidity? Light is scattered at an angle that is determined
A nephelometric immunoassay is an example of a: competitive immunoassay
Latex particles act as _____ in nephelometry? Antigen-coated reaction intensifiers
An Antigen passively attached to red blood cells are bound by antibodies is called: Indirect hemagglutination testing
The amount of antigen and antibody binding in latex aggultination procedures is influenced by pH, ionic concentration of solvent, and Osmolarity
The force of attraction between an antibody and a single antigenic determinant is: affinity
The chemical binds of importance in aggulation reactions are Ionic bonds, hydrophobic binds, and hydrogen bonds
The "Lattice hypothesis" states that an optimal reaction occurs between antigen and antibody when: Antigen and antibody are present in approximately equal proportions.
The strength of an aggulutination reaction can be enhanced by: Centerfugation, the use of albumin, and the use of low-ionic-strength saline
A reaction between soluble antigen, soluble antibody and particulate antigen is the definition of? Agglutination
Monoclonal IgE leads to Short, thick arcs in the antigen well
Diagnosed as IEP, Single clone of plasma produces increased levels of single class and type of immunoglobulin(Ig) Monoclonal gammopathy
Monoclonal gammopathies can be observed in: a malignancy, Multiple myeloma, and macroglobulemia
The immunoelectrophoresius of a normal serum typically depicts IgM, IgG, and IgA bands, but IgD and IgE bands are missing because: Normal concentrations of IgD and IgE are too low to be detected.
Monoclonal IgM bands are: Skewed arcs of a circle
In IEP, When a favorable antigen ratio is reached, the antigen-antibody complex becomes visible as: Bands, lines, and a line representing one specific protein
IEP is a reliable and accurate method for detecting structural abnormalities and concentration changes in protein
Evaluation of abnormal precipitin band can include assessing? Any deviation of position and shape of precipitin bands
Monoclonal IgA gammopathy has a distinctive immunoelectrophoresis (IEP) feature of: Antibody position of band precipitin
To be used in the enzyme immunoassay (EIA), an enzyme must have A high amount of stability and extreme specificity
The use of recombinant DNA technology, the detection of hematophathologic and oncogenic chromosomal abnormalities FISH tecnology
Automated DNA sequences, DNA probe technology and gel electrophoresis are used by: Magnetic labeling application
The enzyme immunoassay (EIA) method can be used for analysis of: Anti-IgM Anti-HBc, IgM and IgG of Borrelia burgdorferi, and cytomegalovirus (CMV) IgG and IgM antibodies
Indirect immunofluorescent assay (IFA) is widely used for detection of Autoantibodies, antibody to tissue antigen, and antibody to cellular antigen
An advantage of enzyme immunoassay (EIA) compared to radioimmunoassay (RIA) is: No radioactive hazardous waste
Which of the following is an undesirable characteristic of antibodies used in enzyme immunoassay High cross-reactivity
In competitive immunoassay, the amount of light emmitted for measurement____as the concentration of the analyte being measured_____? decreases, increases
The complement component found in the all of the pathways is C3
Which of the following characteristics is representative of C-reactive protein The first acute phase reactant to become elevated, nonspecific indicators of inflammation, C-RP is an acute phase reactant
The measurement of C-reactive Protein can NOT be used for: Diagnosis of viral septicemia
The classic complement pathway is activated by Recognition by complement factor C1 of antigen-antibody complexes on the cell surface
The alternate complement pathway is activated by: Components of the bacterial cell surface in the absence of antigen-antibody
Factor H acts by competing with _______for the same binding site in complement reactivity Factor B
Factors that influence the development of an infectious disease include: Immune status of the individual, Incidence of an organism int he population, and the pathogenesis of the agent.
The detection of _____ can be diagnostic significance during the first exposure of a patient to an infectious agent. IgM
A distinguishing characteristic of the herpes viruses is that they are cell associated and humans are the only known reservoir of infection
Strp pyogenes is the most common causative agent of all the following disorders and complications Pharyngitis, scarlet fever, and impetigo
Long term complications pf S pyogens infection can include Acute rheumatic fever and Rheumatoid Arthritis
A CLT is writing the SOP for VDRL. Under which section would they include info regarding checking the number of drops from the needle used to dispense the antigen reagent? Quality control
Dark field microscopy may be performed during which stage of syphilis? Primary is organism is present
What does TORCH stand for: Toxoplasmosis, other lab tests, Rubella, CMV, Herpes
The following is true regarding S. agalactiae Is usually isolated in the blood, is responsible for increased mortality especially in neonates, and Pts w/ underlying complications are particularly susceptible
Congenital syphilis may involve which of the following as the child develops? Nerve deafness, Hutchinson's teeth, Hutchinsonian triad
Increased presence of a false negative in a test method involves decreased level of...: sensitivity
Inactivation of complement for the FTA procedure involves heat treatment at ____degrees C for _____minutes. 56 degrees for 30 minutes
The term "double dilutions" refers to: Two-fold increase in dilution from tube to tube
HLA antigens are found on All nucleated cells
Toxoplasma- infected mothers who are not treated can give birth to a (n): congenitally infected infant
The type of immunity that follows the injection of antibodies synthesized by another individual or animal is termed passive
Monoclonal antibodies are produced by hybridomas
Which of the following infectious diseases is usually diagnosed by an antigen detection test rather then an antibody detection test? Cryptococcosis
The ability of a virus to invade a human body is dependent MOST on Cellular replication
What disease is associated with Varicella Zoster virus Shingles
The presence of the "M protein" is a major virulence factor for which organism? GAS (group A strep)
Which of the following applies to Hepatitis D Requires the presence of Hep B, May involve co-infections and super infections
Lyme disease is caused by a _____ Spirochete
What type of B cells are formed after antigen stimulation Memory cells and Plasma cells
The detection of precipitation reaction depends on the presence of maximal proportions of antigen and antibody. A pt's sample contains a large amount of antibody, but the reaction in a test system containing antigen is negative. What has happened? Prozone phenomenon
What comprises the indicator system in an ELISA for detecting antibody? Enzyme-conjugated antibody+ chromogenic substrate
What is the titer in tube number 8 if tube number 1 is undiluted and dilutions are doubled 128
What substance is detected by the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) and venereal disease research Laboratory (VDRL) tests for syphilis? Reagin
What type of antigen is used in the RPR card test? Cardiolipin
A 12 year old girl has symptoms of fatigue and a localized lymphadenopathy. Lab test reveal a peripheral blood lymphocytosis with a atypical (reactive) lymphocytes, and a positive spot test for IM. What test should be performed next? EBV specific antigen test
Which test is most likely to be positive in the tertiary stage of syphilis? FTA-ABS
Which specimen is the sample of choice to evaluate latent or tertiary syphilis? CSF
What is the most likely explanatin when antibody tests for HIV are negative but a NAT test for HIV is positive? Patient is in "WINDOW" phase before antibody production
Which hep B marker is the best indicator of early acute infection? HBsAg
If only anti-HBs is positive, which of the following can be ruled out? Chronic hep B virus infection
In monitoring an HIV- infected patient, which parameter may be expected to be the most SENSITIVE indicator of the effectiveness of antiretroviral treatment? HIV viral load
The risk of fetal anomalies in maternal rubella is highest at the : first month
Which of the fololowing is a symptom of an inflammatory condition? Pain, redness, burning, and swelling
Which of the following are enzyme markers useful in identifying HEP diseases? AST,ALT,ALP,LD
Type I hypersensitivity reactions are characterized by: Activattion of complement and Antigen cross-links with IgE on mast cells
Cell-mediated immunity is responsible for: Contact sensitivity, Elimination of tumor cells bearing neoantigens, and the Rejection of foreign tissue graft.
Cell mediated Delayed hyper sensitivity
Antibody mediated Immediate hyper sensitivity
Dependent on the host response to a subsequent exposure of antigen Immunization, or sensitization
Not mediated by antigen-antibody interaction Anaphylactoid reaction
The major growth factor for multiple myeloma cells is: IL-6.
Which laboratory assay has been adopted as a prognostic indicator in multiple myeloma? β2-microglobulin
Patients with multiple myeloma (MM) have defects in _____ but not in _____. humoral immunity; cellular immunity
The most consistent immunologic feature of multiple myeloma (MM) is: A. Incessant synthesis of a dysfunctional single monoclonal protein. B. Incessant synthesis of immunoglobulin chains of fragments. C. Suppression of the synthesis of normal functional antibody.
What is the M component in a monoclonal gammopathy? Monoclonal antibody or cell line
The diagnosis of multiple myeloma (MM) depends on: Greater than10% plasma cells in the bone marrow.
Fill in the blanks, choosing the correct temperature.Bence Jones (BJ) proteins are soluble at room temperature, become insoluble near (1) _______, and then resolubilize at (2) ________. 60° C and 80° C
Benign or malignant condition that results from a single clone of lymphoid-plasma cells producing elevated levels of a single class and type of immunoglobulin Monoclonal gammopathy
Condition characterized by the elevation of two or more immunoglobulins by several clones of plasma cells Polyclonal gammopathy
Decreased tolerance to “self” antigens. autoimmunity
Which of the following disorders is considered to be "organ nonspecific"? Systemic lupus erythematosus
An individual may develop an autoimmune response to: Antigens that do not normally circulate in the blood, Altered antigens, Loss of immunoregulatory function by lymphocyte subsets.
The basic immunologic mechanism responsible for autoimmune disorders is related to: Deposition of circulating immune complexes.
Anti-DNA antibody is associated with: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
The etiology of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is: Immune destruction of B lymphocytes in pancreatic islets.
Pernicious anemia is characterized by: Deficiency of vitamin B12, Presence of antiparietal antibodies, Presence of IF-blocking antibodies.
Most immunologically mediated renal diseases fall into one of the following categories except: Association with circulating antigen.
Measures antibody to nuclear antigens ANA
Produces a characteristic granular cytoplasmic staining pattern to cytoplasmic constituents of granulocytes Antineutrophil antibody
An antibody to a basic nonhistone nuclear protein Anti-Scl antibody
Found in about 80% of patients with pernicious anemia Anti parietal cell antibody
A condition called the _____________ syndrome can be secondary to lupus and may complicate pregnancy. antiphospholipid
SLE is more common in: Adult women.
Laboratory features of SLE include: The presence of ANAs, Circulating anticoagulant and immune complexes, Decreased levels of complement.
A major cellular immunologic feature of SLE is: Lack of generalized suppressor T-cell function, Reduction of generalized suppressor T-cell function, Hyperproduction of helper T cells.
What autoimmune disorder is indicated by an increased titer of anti-Sm (anti-Smith) antibody? Systemic lupus erythematosus
The site of deposition of immune complexes in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is determined by: Molecular configuration, Immunoglobulin class, Complement-fixing ability.
Many of the clinical manifestations of systemic lupus erythematosus are a consequence of: Tissue damage mediated by immune complexes.
Can affect the skin, joints, and almost any organ or body system, including the lungs, kidneys, heart, and brain Systemic
Always limited to the skin Discoid
Can be caused by procainamide Drug induced
Immunologic features of rheumatoid arthritis include anti–cyclic citrullinated peptide. true
Immunologic features of rheumatoid arthritis include immune complexes. True
Immunologic features of rheumatoid arthritis include antinuclear antibodies. True
Pathogenic mechanisms hypothesized for rheumatoid arthritis (RA) include: A. An infective agent or other stimulus that binds to receptors on dendritic cells (DCs) and Activated T lymphocytes that proliferate and migrate into the joint.
A biologic false-positive rheumatoid factor (RF) assay can be manifested by patients with: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), Hepatitis, Syphilis.
Class II transplant antigens are expressed on: B lymphocytes, Activated T lymphocytes, and Macrophages.
Which of the following antigens is a MHC class II antigen? HLA-DQ and HLA-DR
Which of the following class of MHC antigens is necessary for antigen recognition by CD4+ T lymphocytes? Class II
The major histocompatibility complex (MHC) D region codes for _____ molecules. Class II
The most efficient method of preventing graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) is: Irradiating the blood components pretransfusion.
Graft between individuals of different species (e.g., pig heart valve to a human heart) Xenograft
Graft transferred from one position to another in the same individual (e.g., skin, hair, bone) Autograft
Graft between genetically different recipient and donor of the same species; the grafted donor tissue or organ contains antigens not present in the recipient Allograft
Graft transplanted between different but identical recipient and donor (e.g., kidney transplant between monozygous twins) Syngraft
They are pluripotent, They are found in bone marrow and peripheral circulating blood, and They contain precursor cells to leukocytes and platelets. progenitor blood cells
Hematopoietic stem cells are: CD34+ cells.
Stem cell selection can be improved using the CD_______ cell surface marker. 34+
Pretransplant evaluation of a bone marrow recipient includes: HLA tissue typing, Disease status, and Compatibility of donor and recipient.
Complications of bone marrow or peripheral blood stem cell (PBSC) transplantation include: Infection and graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), Acute rejection and organ damage, and Chronic rejection and death.
A major complication in patients with bone marrow (BM) or peripheral blood stem cell (PBSC) transplant during the first month after transplantation is: Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD).
Stem cells from identical twins Syngeneic
Marrow from a related or unrelated donor Allogeneic
Transplant of own cells Autologous
Tumors are neoplasms. TRUE
Tumors can be described as benign or malignant. TRUE
Cell surface molecules coded for by tumorigenic viruses Tumor-associated antigens
Gene derepression is responsible for the production of increased concentrations of these gene products Carcinofetal antigens
Chemically induced tumors Tumor-specific antigens
Caused by no known mechanism Spontaneous tumor antigens
Created by: geebs28