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A&P Orals Focus
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| If any one generator in a 24-volt DC system shows low voltage what is the most likely cause? | An out-of-adjustment voltage regulator. |
| What controls the inductor-type inverter output voltage? | The DC stator field current. |
| What should be done to a corroded aluminum alloy surface after the corrosion has been removed by mechanical methods? | The surface should be treated with a chemical conversion coating before the topcoats are applied. |
| When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, an alternating red and green light from the control tower means what? | Steady red - Stop Flashing red - Taxi clear of the runway or taxiway Steady green - OK to taxi Alternating red and green - OK to taxi, but exercise extreme caution Flashing white - Return to starting point |
| What are the factors of radiographic exposure? | Material thickness and density. Shape and size of the object. Type of defect to be detected. Characteristics of X-ray machine used. The exposure distance. The exposure time. Film characteristics. Type of intensifying screen, if used. |
| Define "false brinelling". | friction corrosion-the rusty discoloration of the lubricant & the race surfaces caused by vibration of the bearing while in a static state which forces lubricant from the metal-to-metal points of contact between the bearing rollers and the race surface |
| 14 CFR Part 147 | Aviation Maintenance Technician Schools |
| 14 CFR Part 91 | General Operating & Flight Rules |
| 14 CFR Part 65 | Certification: Airmen Other than Flight Crew |
| 14 CFR Part 47 | Aircraft Registration |
| 14 CFR Part 45 | Identification & Registration Markings |
| 14 CFR Part 43 | Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, Rebuilding, Alteration |
| 14 CFR Part 39 | Airworthiness Directives |
| 14 CFR Part 35 | Airworthiness Standards for Propellers |
| 14 CFR Part 33 | Airworthiness Standards for Aircraft Engines |
| 14 CFR Part 25 | Airworthiness Standards for Transport Category Aircraft |
| 14 CFR Part 23 | Airworthiness Standards for Normal, Utility, Acrobatic Category Aircraft |
| 14 CFR Part 21 | Certification Procedures for Products & Parts |
| 14 CFR Part 13 | Investigations & Enforcement Procedures |
| 14 CFR Part 1 | Definitions & Abbreviations |
| Airworthiness Directives contain what four areas of information? | Applicability, Compliance Time, Required Action, Effective Date |
| What is a Parts Manufacturer Approval (PMA)? | An approval, granted under 14 CFR Part 21, that allows a person to produce a modification or replacement part for sale for installation on a type certificated product. |
| What is a Technical Standard Order (TSO)? | Minimum performance standard that is covered under 14 CFR Part 21 for the manufacture of a component that may be installed on certificated aircraft. |
| What is a General Aviation Airworthiness Alert? | A publication issued by the FAA as part of their Service Difficulty Program as an information gathering & disseminating program to all interested individuals, through the Malfunction and Defect Reports. Compliance is not mandatory. |
| Define “maintenance”. | MAINTENANCE includes: Inspection, Overhaul, Repair, Preservation, Parts Replacement, Excluding Preventive Maintenance |
| What type of fuel is Jet-A fuel? | A fuel with a heavy kerosine base, a flash point of 110-150°F, a freezing point of -40°F, and a heat energy content of 18,600 BTU/pound. |
| When starting an aircraft engine that is equipped with a float carburetor, in what position should the carburetor heat control be placed? | In the "Cold" position. |
| Why do some hydraulic pressure gages have a snubber installed between them and the hydraulic pump? | The snubber keeps the gage from fluctuating. |
| An aircraft has not been approved for return to service after an annual inspection because of several items requiring minor repair. Who can repair the items and return the aircraft to service? | An appropriately rated mechanic may repair the defects and approve the aircraft for return to service. |
| When should E-8162 oxygen cylinders be taken out of service? | After 15 years of service or 10,000 filling cycles, whichever comes first. |
| When should 3HT oxygen cylinders be taken out of service? | After 24 years of service or after they have been filled 4,380 times, whichever comes first. |
| How often are 3HT Oxygen cylinders hydrostatically tested and to what pressure? | Every 3 years to a pressure of 3,083 psi. |
| How often are 3AA Oxygen cylinders hydrostatically tested and to what pressure? | Every 5 years to a pressure of 3,000psi. |
| Oxygen cylinders must be hydrostatically tested to what pressure? | To 5/3 of their working pressure. |
| What are the two relays in a thermocouple fire detection system? | Sensitive and slave relays. |
| How far from running parts and electrical wiring should oxygen lines be when installed? | At least 2 inches away from running parts and 6 inches away from electrical wiring. |
| Which of the following are characteristics of a chemical or solid-state oxygen system? | A volume storage capacity about three times that of compressed oxygen and system generators that are inert below 400°F, even under severe impact. |
| What is used to flush a hydraulic system that uses mineral base hydraulic fluid? | Naphtha, varsol or Stoddard solvent. |
| What is the significance of the identification number 91-08-07 R1? | 91 -This AD was issued in 1991. 08-This AD was issued in the eighth biweekly period (15th or 16th week) of 1991. 07-This is the seventh AD issued during this period. R1-This is the first revision of this AD. |
| What publication lists all of the ADs that apply to aircraft, engines, propellers, or appliances? | AC 39-6 Summary of Airworthiness Directives. |
| What type of AD may be adopted without an NPRM? | ADs of an urgent nature are issued as immediately adopted rules without prior notice. |
| What is the first step in the issuance of an AD? | A notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM) is published in the Federal Register. |
| Who is authorized to perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft that is not flown under Part 121, 127, 129, or 135? | The holder of a pilot certificate that flies that particular aircraft. |
| What are "Instructions for Continued Airworthiness"? | A document prepared by the operator of a helicopter and approved by the FAA that explains the maintenance that will be performed. This document is described in 14 CFR Part 27, Appendix A. |
| What is a master minimum equipment list (MMEL)? | A document approved by the FAA that lists the minimum operative instruments and equipment required for safe flight in that aircraft type in each authorized operating environment. |
| What is the purpose of a minimum equipment list (MEL)? | An MEL permits operations with certain inoperative items of equipment for the minimum period of time necessary until repair or replacement can be accomplished. |
| May the data in an aircraft maintenance manual be used as approved data for an aircraft repair? | Yes. An aircraft maintenance manual is an FAA-approved document. |
| Why is it necessary to refer to the TCDS for an airplane when conducting a 100-hour inspection? | The TCDS includes the specifications required for the aircraft to maintain its airworthy status. |
| What is a Type Certificate Data Sheet? | A document that sets forth essential factors and other considerations which are necessary for U.S. airworthiness certification of aircraft, engines and propellers. |
| What is meant by ground resonance in a helicopter? | The destructive vibration that occurs when the helicopter touches down roughly and unevenly, causing the lead-lag hinges of the rotor blades to oscillate. This oscillation can destroy the helicopter. |
| What is meant by weight? | The measure of the force of gravity acting on a body. |
| What is meant by air density? | The mass of air in a given volume. |
| What is the difference between speed and velocity? | Speed is the rate at which an object is moving. Velocity is the vector quantity that expresses both the rate and direction an object is moving. |
| What is the second law of thermodynamics? | Heat energy can only flow from a body having a high temperature to a body having a lower temperature. |
| What is the first law of thermodynamics? | Heat energy can neither be created nor destroyed, it can only be changed in its form. |
| How much heat energy is in a large calorie (Calorie)? | The amount of heat energy that will raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of water 1°C. |
| How much heat energy is in a small calorie? | The amount of heat energy that will raise the temperature of 1 gram of water 1°C. |
| How much work will one BTU of heat energy perform? | 778 foot-pounds of work |
| What is the Celsius equivalent of a temperature of 50°F? | 10°C (°F − 32) × 5/9 = °C |
| What effect on density altitude is caused by an increase in air temperature? | As the temperature increases, the air density decreases and the density altitude increases. |
| What is meant by the density of a fluid? | The mass-per-unit volume of the fluid. |
| What is meant by the resonant frequency of an aircraft structure? | The frequency that produces the greatest amplitude of vibration in the structure. |
| What is a malfunction and defect report? | Malfunction and Defect Reports (FAA Form 8010-4) are a voluntary reporting mechanism to report unusual problems or weakness not associated with expected wear. |
| Which FAR specifies required maintenance records? | 14 CFR Part 91.417 specifies you must keep records of maintenance, preventive maintenance, major repairs and alterations, and 100-hour, annual, and progressive inspections. |
| What is meant by a progressive inspection? | An FAA FSDO approved inspection in which an aircraft is inspected according to a schedule that allows the complete inspection over a period of time minimizing the aircraft out of service time. |
| What record must be made of a major repair to an aircraft structure? | An FAA Form 337 must be completed for the repair, and a record must be made in the aircraft maintenance records referencing the Form 337 by its date. |
| Where can you find an example of the correct type of write-up to use for recording a 100-hour inspection in the aircraft maintenance records? | In 14 CFR Part 43.11 |
| What is a sector? | The portion of a circle bounded by two radii and one of the intercepted arcs. |
| What is the proper way to clean plastics? | Flush the plastic with clean water. Remove dirt by hand. Plastics are easily scratched and usage of rags is not recommended. |
| What is used to clean a composite material prior to repair? | Acetone or methyl-ethyl-ketone (MEK) is commonly used. It is important to verify the solvent residue is compatible with the resin system. |
| Explain the methods used to remove finishes from a composite material. | By light sanding or abrasive blast with plastic media. |
| How is rust removed from a highly stressed metal part? | •By glass bead blasting •By careful polishing with mild abrasive paper •By using fine buffing compound on a cloth buffing wheel. |
| What is used to keep corrosion from forming on structural aluminum alloy? | An oxide coating or aluminum cladding. |
| What type of device is used to remove surface corrosion from a piece of magnesium alloy? | A stiff hog-bristle brush. |
| What can be used to repair the anodized surface of an aluminum alloy part? | A chemical conversion coating such as Alodine. |
| How should an A&P minimize corrosion at piano hinges? | They should be kept as clean and dry as practicable and lubricated with a low-viscosity moisture dispersing agent. |
| What is used to keep corrosion from forming on structural aluminum alloy? | An oxide coating or aluminum cladding. |
| What must be done to a piece of aluminum alloy to remove surface corrosion and to treat the metal to prevent further corrosion? | Remove the corrosion residue with a bristle brush or a nylon scrubber. Neutralize the surface with chromic acid or with some type of conversion coating. Protect the surface from further corrosion with a coat of paint. |
| Where is stress corrosion most likely to occur on an aircraft? | In any metal component that is continually under a tensile stress. The metal around holes in castings fitted with pressed-in bushings is susceptible to stress corrosion. |
| Where is filiform corrosion most likely to occur on an aircraft? | Under a dense coating of topcoat enamel such as polyurethane. Filiform corrosion is caused by improperly cured primer. |
| Identify the areas of an aircraft that are most prone to corrosion. | •Battery compartment •exhaust system and exhaust trails • wheel wells, flap recesses • bilges •piano hinges, areas of dissimilar metal contact •welded areas •inside of fuel tanks •metal fittings under high (tensil) stress •lavatories & galleys |
| What solvent is recommended for removing grease from aircraft fabric prior to doping it? | Methyl-ethyl-ketone (MEK) or lacquer thinner. |
| What is meant by detonation in an aircraft reciprocating engine? | Detonation is an uncontrolled burning of the fuel in the cylinder of an engine. It is an explosion, rather than a smooth burning. |
| Why is it important that turbine fuel not be mixed with aviation gasoline used in an aircraft reciprocating engine? | Turbine fuel causes severe detonation. |
| What kind of rope is best to tie down an aircraft? | Nylon or polypropylene. |
| What information must be located near the fuel tank filler opening in an aircraft powered by a turbine engine? | The words "Jet Fuel," the permissible fuel designations, or references to the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM) for permissible fuel designations; additionally, for pressure fueling systems, the maximum permissible fueling and defueling pressures |
| What is the procedure if a hung start occurs when starting a turbojet engine? | Terminate the starting operation and find the reason the engine would not accelerate as it should. |
| What is the alloy number of a high strength aluminum alloy that has zinc as an alloying component? | 7075 |
| What type of fabric is most widely used for covering aircraft structures? | Heat-shrinkable polyester fabric |
| What kind of measuring instrument is used to measure the runout of an aircraft engine crankshaft? | A dial indicator |
| What is the smallest size cable that is allowed to be used in the primary control system of an aircraft? | 1/8-inch diameter |
| Of what two materials are cotter pins made? | Low-carbon steel and corrosion-resistant steel. |
| What is a channel nut? | A series of nuts mounted loosely in a channel that is riveted (hard mounted) to the aircraft structure. You can install screws in a channel nut without having to hold the nut with a wrench. |
| What is a correct application for self-tapping sheet metal screws on an aircraft? | They may be used to hold nonstructural components onto the aircraft. |
| How tight should the nut be installed on a clevis bolt that is used to attach a cable fitting to a control surface horn? | Loose enough to allow the clevis bolt to turn in the cable fitting and the horn. |
| What mark on the head of a rivet identifies the following alloys: 2117-T, 2017-T, 2024-Т, 5056-Т? | 2117-T recessed dot/dimple. 2017-T raised dot. 2024-T raised double dash. 5056-T raised cross. |
| What alloy is identified by the following rivet codes: A, AD, D, DD, B? | A is 1100 aluminum. AD is 2117-T aluminum alloy. D is 2017-T aluminum alloy. DD is 2024-T aluminum alloy. B is 5056-T aluminum alloy. |
| What are the two most commonly used rivet heads? | MS20470/ AN470 universal head and MS20426/ AN426 100° countersunk head. |
| What is meant by an icebox rivet? | A rivet made of 2017 or 2024 aluminum alloy. These rivets are heat-treated and quenched, then stored in a sub-freezing ice box until they are ready to be used. The cold storage delays the hardening of the rivet. |
| What is another name for precipitation heat treatment? | Artificial aging. |
| Describe the method of precipitation heat treating of an aluminum alloy. | The metal is heated, quenched, then re-heated to a lower temperature. It is held at this temperature for a specified time, then removed from the oven and allowed to cool in still air. This increases the strength and hardness of the metal. |
| Describe the method of solution heat treatment of an aluminum alloy. | The metal is hardened by heating it in a furnace to a specified temperature and immediately quenching it in water. It is soft when it is removed from the quench, but as it ages it regains its hardness. |
| How is steel nitrided? | The steel is heated in a retort in which there is an atmosphere of ammonia (a compound of nitrogen and hydrogen). Aluminum alloy in the steel combines with the nitrogen to form an extremely hard aluminum nitride on the surface of the steel. |
| What are two methods of case hardening? | Carburizing and nitriding |
| What is meant by case hardening? | The surface of the metal is hardened by the infusion of carbon or aluminum nitride. The interior of the metal remains strong and tough. |
| What is meant by tempering steel? | The steel is first hardened; then some of the hardness is removed to relieve some of the internal stresses and brittleness. |
| How is steel hardened? | It is heated to its critical temperature and quenched in water, brine, or oil. |
| How is steel annealed? | It is heated to just above its upper critical temperature until it reaches a uniform temperature throughout, then it is allowed to cool very slowly in the oven. |
| Why is a piece of steel tempered after it has been hardened? | When steel is hardened, it becomes brittle. Tempering removes some of this brittleness. |
| Explain the way a steel structure is normalized after it has been welded. | Heat the steel structure to a temperature above its critical temperature and allow it to cool in still air. |
| What is meant by normalizing a piece of steel after it has been welded or machined? | Normalizing removes stresses that are locked into the material by welding or machining. |
| Why is it important that a piece of aluminum alloy be quenched immediately after it is removed from the heat-treating oven? | Immediate quenching reduces the likelihood of intergranular corrosion. |
| What is the principle of eddy current inspection? | A current is induced into the metal being tested by a test probe. The amount of induced current is determined by the conductivity, mass, and permeability of the material, and the presence of any faults or voids. |
| Why is it important that all engine parts which have been inspected by the magnetic particle method be completely demagnetized? | If the parts are not completely demagnetized, they will attract steel particles that are produced by engine wear and will cause damage to bearing surfaces. |
| Why is it necessary to magnetize a part both circularly and longitudinally when inspecting a steel part by the magnetic particle method? | To detect faults that extend across as well as lengthwise within the part. |
| Explain the procedure to use when performing a magnetic particle inspection of a part. | Thoroughly clean the part, magnetize it as directed by the appropriate service manual, flow the indicating medium over the surface, and inspect it under a "black" light. When the inspection is complete, thoroughly demagnetize the part. |
| Why is it important that all parts be thoroughly cleaned before they are inspected by the dye penetrant method? | Any grease or dirt in a fault will keep the penetrant from seeping into the fault. |
| How does filiform corrosion usually appear on an aircraft structure? | As thread-like lines of puffiness under a film of polyurethane or other dense finish system topcoats. |
| How much pressure is used to proof-test a flexible hose assembly? | This varies with the hose, but it is generally about two times the recommended operating pressure for the hose. |
| What should be done to the end of a tube that is to be flared? | The cut end should be de-burred & polished to remove any sharp edges that could cause the tubing to crack. |
| Of what material should rigid fluid lines be made that carry high-pressure (3,000 psi or greater) hydraulic fluid? | Annealed or 1/4-hard corrosion-resistant steel. |
| What kind of rigid tubing can be flared with a double flare? | 5052-0 and 6061-T aluminum alloy tubing in sizes from 1/8-inch to 3/8-inch OD. |
| What damage can be caused by overtightening an MS flareless fitting? | Overtightening drives the cutting edge of the sleeve deep into the tube and weakens it. |
| Of what material are most low-pressure rigid fluid lines made? | 1100-1/2 hard or 3003-1/2 hard aluminum alloy tubing. |
| Where must a record be kept of the current empty weight and the current center of gravity of an aircraft? | In the aircraft flight manual or weight and balance records required by 14 CFR §23.1583. |
| What is meant by permanent ballast for an aircraft? | Weight that is permanently installed in an aircraft to bring the empty weight center of gravity into allowable limits. |
| What is a loading envelope? | The enclosed area on a graph of an airplane's loaded weight and CG location. If lines drawn from the weight and CG cross within this envelope the airplane is properly loaded. |
| What is meant by the mean aerodynamic chord (MAC)? | The chord of an imaginary airfoil that has the same aerodynamic characteristics as the actual airfoil. |
| Why is the empty weight center of gravity range not given in the Type Certificate Data Sheets for some aircraft? | The empty weight center of gravity (EWCG) range is given only for aircraft that cannot be legally loaded in such a way that their loaded center of gravity will fall outside of the allowable limits. |
| What is the significance of the empty weight center of gravity range of an aircraft? | If the empty weight center of gravity falls within the EWCG range, the aircraft cannot be legally loaded in such a way that its loaded center of gravity will fall outside of the allowable loaded CG range. Not all aircraft have an EWCG range. |
| What is meant by a moment index? | A moment divided by a constant such as 10, 100, or 1,000. |
| Describe the way you would find the empty weight and empty weight center of gravity of an airplane if there are no weight and balance records available. | The aircraft is weighed, and the empty weight center of gravity is computed. These values are recorded in new weight and balance records started for the aircraft. |
| What is meant by the maximum zero fuel weight of an aircraft? | The maximum permissible weight of a loaded aircraft (passengers, crew, cargo, etc.), less its fuel. |
| What is meant by minimum fuel as is used in the computation of aircraft weight and balance? | No more fuel than the quantity necessary for one-half hour of operation at rated maximum continuous power. It is the maximum amount of fuel used in weight and balance computations when low fuel may adversely affect the most critical balance conditions. |
| What must be done to find the empty weight of an aircraft if it has been weighed with fuel in its tanks? | The weight of the fuel and its moment must be subtracted from the weight and moment of the aircraft as it was weighed. |
| What equipment must be installed in an aircraft when it is weighed to find its empty weight center of gravity? | All the equipment listed in the Aircraft Equipment List as "required equipment" or as equipment that is permanently installed. |
| Why are the distances of all the items installed in an aircraft measured from the datum when computing weight and balance? | This makes it possible to find the point about which the aircraft would balance (the center of gravity). |
| Why is it necessary to consider the category under which an aircraft is licensed when computing its weight and balance? | Different categories under which an aircraft can be licensed have different maximum gross weights and different center of gravity ranges. |
| What are the four steps in making a sketch? | •Block in the space and basic shape used for the sketch. •Add details to the basic block. •Darken lines that are to show up as visible lines in the finished sketch. •Add dimensions and any other information that will make the sketch more usable. |
| What is the purpose of a sketch of a repair? | It shows a specific bit of information and includes the minimum amount of detail needed to manufacture the part. |
| What is a block diagram? | A drawing that shows the various functions of a system by a series of blocks. These blocks do not include any detail, but instead indicate what happens in each block. |
| What is an installation drawing? | A drawing that shows the location of the parts and assemblies on the complete aircraft. |
| What information is given in the title block of an aircraft drawing? | •The name and address of the company who made the part •The name of the part •The number of the part (the drawing number). •The scale of the drawing •The name of the draftsman •The name of the engineer approving the part |
| How is it possible to know when a nickel-cadmium battery is fully charged? | Completely discharge the battery and give it a constant-current charge to 140% of its ampere-hour capacity. |
| How may thermal runaway be prevented? | By carefully monitoring the temperature of the middle cells and controlling the charging current to prevent an excess of current flowing into the battery. |
| What is meant by power factor in an AC circuit? | The ratio of true power to apparent power. It is also the ratio of circuit resistance to circuit impedance. |
| In what units is reactive power expressed? | In volt-amps reactive (VAR), or kilovolt-amps reactive (KVAR). |
| What is meant by reactive power in an AC circuit? | The power consumed in the inductive and capacitive reactances in an AC circuit. Reactive power is also called wattless power. |
| What is meant by inductance? | The ability to store electrical energy in electromagnetic fields. An induced voltage which is opposite in direction to the applied voltage. |
| Define the following terms as they pertain to aircraft maintenance: •Inspect, •Check, •Troubleshoot, •Service, •Repair, •Overhaul | •Inspect-visually/tactilly examine •Check-verify proper operation •Troubleshoot-analyze & identify faults •Service-ensure continued operation •Repair-correct a defective condition •Overhaul-disassemble, inspect, repair as needed, check |
| What is the function of the ventilating air in a combustion heater? | Ventilating air transports the heat from the heater into the cabin and prevents combustion gases from entering the cabin if the combustion chamber develops a crack. |
| Describe the operating principle of a pressure-demand oxygen system. | Demand systems allow oxygen to flow from the cylinder to the regulator and then to the mask only when the user inhales. Pressure-demand systems provide oxygen to the mask at higher than atmospheric pressure (CPAP) when used at extremely high altitudes |
| What methods are used to attach a deicer boot to the leading edges of the wing and tail surfaces? | adhesives, fairing strips and screws, or a combination of both. |
| Why do some pneumatic deicer boot systems have an electrically operated timer? | To automatically cycle the boots, provide the proper rest time, and then recycle the boots. |
| What are the effects of arcing on an electrically heated windshield? | Localized overheating and damage to the windshield. |
| Name at least three types of self-plugging mechanical lock rivets. | •CherryMAX@, •CherryLOCK®, •OLYMPIC-LOK@, •HuckLok@ rivets. |
| Name several methods for forming sheet metal. | •Bending/Folding, •Bumping, •Crimping, •Stretching, •Shrinking |
| How is the service life of a discharge cartridge calculated? | From the date stamped on the cartridge by the manufacturer. |
| How is a Freon (fire extinguisher) container checked for proper pressure? | A chart must be used to determine the maximum and minimum gauge pressure readings based on the ambient temperature. |
| Why do airplanes with bleed air anti-icing of the wing leading edge have an anti-ice overheat light(s)? | To indicate an over-temperature condition, usually as the result of a break in the bleed air ducts. |
| What systems are commonly used to activate the landing gear warning systems? | The throttles (thrust levers) and the wing flaps. |
| How does a takeoff configuration warning differ from a landing gear warning? | Takeoff warnings are usually an intermittent horns while landing gear warnings are steady. |
| Under what conditions will a landing gear aural warning sound? | When the throttle is retarded and the landing gear is not down and locked. |
| Name at least two conditions that would activate a takeoff configuration warning system in a jet transport aircraft. | Incorrect leading or trailing edge flap position, stabilizer position, or speed brake not stowed. The manufacturer may establish other conditions. |
| What devices are used to provide warnings for a retractable landing gear system? | A horn or other aural device, and a red warning light or lights. |
| What is the significance of an anti-skid warning? | The system is off or has failed. |
| How is a pilot alerted that an anti-skid system has automatically returned to a manual brake system? | By a warning light |
| What unit in an anti-skid system generates the anti-skid warning signal? | The control unit |
| What is the approximate speed of sound at sea level on a standard day? | 661 Knots or 340 meters per second. |
| Where would you look to find approved information for work on an aircraft electrical system? | In the manufacturer's maintenance manual or other instructions for continued airworthiness. |
| An owner desires to use a progressive inspection program. To whom does the owner apply for authorization? | To the FAA Flight Standards District Office having jurisdiction over the area/ the local FSDO where the owner is located. |
| Who is authorized to supervise a progressive inspection? | •Certificated A&P mechanics who hold an Inspection Authorization, •Certified repair stations, •The aircraft manufacturer |
| What types of operations require that aircraft operating under Part 91 must undergo 100-hour inspections? | Aircraft operated for compensation or hire, or used for flight instruction when provided by the flight instructor. |
| What are the sensing elements (inputs) of an autopilot system? | •Attitude, •Directional, •Turning gyros, •Altitude sensor |
| Name the basic components of an autopilot system. | •Gyros, •servos, •a controller, •an amplifier or computer |
| How would you determine if the batteries in an ELT are due for recharge or replacement? | By looking for an expiration date for recharge or replacement on the battery and/ or in the aircraft maintenance records. |
| Describe one method of monitoring the signal output during an ELT test? | Tune a communications receiver to 121.5 MHz. |
| What information does the glideslope beam provide? | Vertical guidance to enable the aircraft to maintain the correct descent angle. |
| At what interval must an ATC transponder system be certified? | Every 24 calendar months. |
| Name the components of a typical airborne VOR navigation system. | •receiver, •antennas, •frequency selector (tuner), •visual display indicator. |
| What frequency range is used by most modern voice communications systems? | The VHF (Very High Frequency) band (118.0 to 136.975 MHz). |
| What are the basic components of a radio communication system? | •microphone, •transmitter, •transmitting and receiving antennas, •receiver, •speaker or headphones |
| What is the reason for "swinging" a compass and how is it accomplished? | To compensate for deviations caused by magnetic fields in the aircraft, done by adjusting the compensating magnets. |
| What is the meaning of a yellow arc on an aircraft instrument? | A caution or limited flight operations range. |
| What references should be consulted to determine the proper range markings for aircraft instruments? | •The aircraft maintenance manual, •Aircraft Flight Manual, •Type Certificate Data Sheets, •Aircraft Specifications |
| What quantity is accurately measured by a capacitance-type fuel quantity indicating system? | The mass of the fuel. |
| After components in a pitot-static system have been replaced, what tests or inspections are required? | The static system leak test specified by FAR 91.411. |
| What are the items that should be considered during inspection of a magnetic compass? | 1. The fluid must be clear. 2. The housing must be full with no bubbles. 3. The card must be legible and the lubber line intact. 4. The compass should be properly calibrated. |
| What is the signal source in an electrical resistance-type temperature indicating system? | A temperature bulb or sensing element. |
| Name several of the indication errors that may be found in altimeters. | •Friction, •Installation, •Scale errors, •Hysteresis (lag) |
| Name several types of brake actuating systems. | •Independent master cylinders, •boosted brakes, •power-controlled brakes |
| Name several sources of pneumatic power. | •Storage bottles, •Engine bleed air, •Engine-driven compressors, •Vane-type pumps. |
| What types of components or systems are pneumatically operated in some aircraft? | •Landing gear, •Brakes, •Flaps, Other mechanical actuators. |
| Describe the purpose of a pressure regulator. | Pressure regulators manage the output of the pump to maintain system pressure. They allow the pump to be unloaded so it turns without significant resistance. |
| Describe the purpose of a pressure relief valve. | Pressure relief valves limit the maximum pressure produced by the pump, thereby preventing failures of the system components. |
| What is a balance trim tab? | It is an auxiliary control designed to create aerodynamic forces to assist in moving a control surface. The tab is positioned by a control rod connected to the fixed surface on the same side as the horn on the tab. |
| What is a spring tab? | It is an auxiliary control designed to aid the movement of a primary control at high speeds when control forces become too high. |
| When performing an inspection required by FAR Part 91, what rotorcraft systems must be inspected in accordance with the manufacturer's maintenance manual or instructions for continued airworthiness? | •The drive shafts or similar systems, •The main rotor transmission gearbox for obvious defects, •The main rotor and center section, •The auxiliary rotor on helicopters |
| What regulation authorizes a certificated mechanic who holds an Inspection Authorization to approve or disapprove a major repair or alteration? | 14 CFR Part 65.95. |
| What kinds of publications are used by aircraft manufacturers to notify owners of design defects and product improvements? | •Service Bulletins, •Service Letters, •Service Instructions. |
| What is the purpose of Alodine? | Alodine® is a chemical process that deposits a protective film on aluminum alloys. This film improves corrosion resistance and paint adhesion. |
| What are the visible signs of filliform corrosion? | Blistered paint surfaces or worm or thread -like tracks or patterns under the paint. |
| Name at least one cause of filliform corrosion. | •Improper or incomplete curing of a wash primer prior to painting, •Failure to completely wash off acidic surface contamination. |
| Discuss the general precautions that should be observed when washing an airplane. | Avoid or protect areas, which may be damaged or contaminated,such as: •Pitot & static ports, •hinges, •sealed areas, •bearings |
| How does the category of an aircraft affect its loaded weight? | Aircraft certificated in more than one category, such as Normal and Aerobatic, may have two different maximum gross weights and different useful loads. |
| 14 CFR Part 27 | Airworthiness Standards Normal Category Rotorcraft |
| 14 CFR Part 29 | Airworthiness Standards Transport Category Rotorcraft |
| 14 CFR Part 135 | OPERATING REQUIREMENTS: COMMUTER AND ON DEMAND OPERATIONS AND RULES GOVERNING PERSONS ON BOARD SUCH AIRCRAFT |
| Describe a DC powered tank level indicator. | A float in the tank manipulates a ratiometer (variable resistor). DC power goes through two inductors, one connected to the ratiometer, other through a reference resistor. Differences in inductors influence magnet in dial. |
| Describe the ADF system: antenna(s), radio frequency, display. | Automatic Direction Finder, uses a directional loop antenna & a nondirectional sense antenna, operates in the low-medium-freq AM bands, is a double lined pointer on the RMI showing relative bearing to tuned in NDB. |
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