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Surgical Technology

Final Exam

The xyphoid process is the ______________ of the sternum. Proximal
The gallbladder is found in the ____________ abdominal quadrant. Right Upper
The long, vertical, strap-like muscle of the abdominal wall is the Rectus abdomis
Another name for alimentary canal is the ___________ tract. Digestive
The biliary tract terminates at the ________________. Sphincter of Oddi
A Kocher-type incision is __________________. Oblique
In what position is the patient placed when a Mc Burney’s incision will be used? Supine
A diaphragmatic hernia is located __________________. In the Diaphragm
Gastrostomy is the ________________. Creation of an opening from the stomach to the skin
The term dysphagia means difficulty ___________. Swallowing
Which incisional approach is most common for appendectomy? McBurney's
An end ileostomy is created from the ________________. Terminal ileum
Removal of the gallbladder is called _______________. Cholecystectomy
The condition of gallstones is called _______________. Cholelithiasis
What is the function of a T-tube? Drain bile
Modified radical mastectomy involves removal of ____________. The breast and axillary lymph nodes
Insufflation of the abdomen is achieved with the use of ___________. Carbon dioxide
Mastectomy is the removal of the _______________. Entire mammary breast
Once the peritoneum is entered, lap sponges should be _____________. Moistened with warm saline
The uterine lining is called the ______________. Endometrium
The uterine tubes are contained within the ______ ligament. Broad
The term gravida indicates the _____________. Number of pregnancies
In which position is the patient generally placed for a D and C? Lithotomy
The phannenstiel incision is which type of incision? Lower transverse abdominal
Total abdominal hysterectomy involves the removal of which structure(s)? Uterus
The term D and C represents ____________. Dilation and Curretage
A curette is a surgical instrument used to ___________. Remove tissue by scraping
What is the most common reason for the performing of a C-section? Failure to progress
Salpingectomy is the removal of the ____________. Fallopian tube(s)
What is the best suture choice for closing an episiotomy? Chromic
What is the term used to describe conversion of a closed cavity to an open pouch? Marsupialization
Aqueous humor is found in the ______________. Posterior chamber
The ______ is an intrinsic muscle of the eye. Ciliary body
Strabismus is defined as ____________. Deviation of the position of the eye
An opacity of the crystalline lens is referred to as a(n) ____________. Cataract
What condition is characterized by excess pressure of the aqueous humor? Glaucoma
What procedure is performed to open blocked tear ducts? Dacryocystorhinostomy
Phacoemulsification is one method of _____________. Removing an opaque lens
What does the term dacryocystisis mean? Inflammation of the lacrimal sac
Why is it important to remove the powder from the gloves prior to performing or assisting with ophthalmic surgery? To prevent corneal irritation
What is the purpose of placing a traction suture prior to cataract extraction? To stabilize the globe
Mydriatics and cycloplegic drugs cause ____________. Pupil dilation
The most common suture needle used for corneal suturing is __________. Spatula micro-point
Iridectomy refers to ___________. The removal of a section of the Iris to relieve the pressure buildup that occurs in individuals with glaucoma
________ sponges are the sponges of choice in Opthalmic surgery. Weck
What is cholesteatoma? Benign cyst in the mastoid cavity
Hemorrhage from the nose is described as ____________. Epistaxis
Otosclerosis is the term used to describe _____________. Fixation of the stapes
Which tonsils are removed during an adenoidectomy? Pharyngeal
What is the most common autologous site for securing a graft for a tympanoplasty? Temporalis fascia
What structures are removed during UPPP? Tonsils, adenoids, uvula, portion of the soft palate
Tympanotomy is ________________. An incision into the tympanic membrane
What is the name of the procedure that is used to change the external appearance if the nose? Rhinoplasty
Which instrument routinely used in ear procedures to pass a prosthesis or a graft? Alligator
The name of the radical antrostomy procedure to provide adequate visualization is known as a(n) ______________. Caldwell-Luc
Epistaxis is the term given to which condition? Nosebleed
Which ossicle of the middle ear covers the oval window? Stapes
Which portion of the ear is responsible for equilibrium? Semicircular canal
Which instruments are used to remove preoperative packing for septoplasty? Speculum, Bayonet
During a tonsillectomy, which instrument can be used to put tension on tonsil during dissection? Long Allis
What can be done to treat an intranasal dural tear? Cover with fat, fascia, or muscle graft
The anterior portion of the palate is the ___________. Hard palate
The lower jaw bone is the ____________. Mandible
Which facial nerve muscle allows the closure of the mouth and extension of the chin? Masseter
The term exophthalmos us used to describe ______________. Protrusion of the eye
Which of the following best describes a Le-Fort I fracture? Alveolar process of the maxilla being horizontally separated from the base of the skull
What is the source of autogenous graft material? Patient
The term malocclusion refers to _________________. Teeth that are not in proper alignment
What type of incision is used for frontal fracture of the face? Coronal
Endoscopic viewing of a joint is called ___________. Arthroscopy
What is the most common type of mid-facial fracture? Le-Fort I
Which of the following is an action of epinephrine? Vasoconstriction
A rubber wedge placed between the upper and lower teeth of the unaffected side to maintain the patient’s mouth in an open position is called a ____________. Mouth prop
Le-Fort II and III fractures can also be referred to as _________ fractures. Frontal
Sebaceous glands secrete ___________. Sebum
A burn that destroys the epidermis, dermis, and accessory organs of the skin is a ______ burn. Full-thickness
What is a common method of determining the percentage of body surface burn? Rule of nines
What other pathology often occurs in conjunction with cheiloschisis? Palatoschisis
What medical term refers to the condition in which the digits of the hands fail to separate? Syndactyl
What medical term refers to the surgical procedure commonly known as a face-lift? Rhytidectomy
A cosmetic procedure performed on the eyelid is a(n) ____________. Blepharoplasty
Re-implantation of the digit begins with ________ attachment. Bone-to-bone
What surgical procedure is performed to remove hypertrophic breast tissue? Reduction mammoplasty
Which instrument is responsible for expanding the surface area of a skin? Mesh-grafter
Which incision is usually employed for an abdominoplasty? Lower transverse
The main reason for using mineral oil during procurement of a skin graft using a dermatome is to ______________. Minimize friction
Which type of suture is most often used to close the skin in plastic surgery to achieve a cosmetic closure? Nylon
Centralization is a technique employed to correct __________. Radial club hand
Which surgical procedure is performed to improve the cosmetic appearance of the chin by correcting micrognathia? Mentoplasty
Which instrument would a surgeon need to dissect the nasal mucosa during a cleft palate repair? Cottle elevator
The medical border of the kidneys that receives the renal blood vessels is called the ___________. Hilium
Which rare condition is indicated by an overproduction of cortisol by the cortex of the adrenal gland? Cushing disease
Which disorder is marked by multiple fluid-filled, benign cysts in the parenchyma of the kidney? Polycistic kidney disease
Which diagnostic tool involves the use of intravenous dye and radiological films to view the urological system? IVU
Which extra-peritoneal incisional option can be used to access the lower portion of the ureter? Gibson
What surgical instrument is used to remove tissue fragments from within the bladder during a transurethral resection of the prostate? Resectoscope
The procedure involving the removal of only the testes and the epididymis is called a(n) _______________. Radical orchiectomy
The term working element refers to the ____________. Resectoscope
What is the medical term for kidney stones? Nephrolithiasis
Pheochromocytoma is a tumor affecting the _____________. Cortex of the adrenal gland
The condition of undescended testes is called _____________. Cryptorchidism
A(n) _________ incision is often the choice for radical orchiectomy. Inguinal
If the pleural cavity is entered, what should the STSR anticipate? A chest tube insertion
Varicocelectomy is a procedure to repair _______________. An abnormal accumulation of fluid contained in the tunica vaginalis layer of the scrotum
If the ureters are difficult to identify when the bladder is opened, intravenous ________ may facilitate locating the orifices. Indigo carmine
Extending the foot at the ankle is referred to as _____________. Plantar flexion
A fracture at the distal end of the radius in which the smaller fragment is displaced posteriorly is called ______________. Cole's fracture
Which type of fracture is complete and results in several bony fragments? Comminuted
Bone grafts are usually taken from the _____________. Iliac crest
Which of the following could be used to take a bone graft? Drill
Which of the following is a clinical sign and symptom of carpal tunnel syndrome? Numbness of fingers
The use of screw and plate geometry to apply forces at a fracture site is called ______________. Dynamic compression
What is the correct sequence of surgical instruments for the insertion of bone screw? Drill, depth gauge, tap, screw
Which suture can be use to attach tendon to bone? Polyester
Which instrument is used to prepare the acetabulum? Reamer
On which bone is the chamfer cut performed during a total knee arthroplasty? Femur
What is the correct patient surgical position for a total hip arthroplasty? Lateral
Which procedure is performed to correct impingement syndrome? Acromioplasty
The pneumatic tourniquet is routinely inflated _____________. After exsanguination
During ACL reconstruction, which instrument might a surgeon use to remove excess bone from the femoral tunnel? Pituitary rongeur
What structure is referred to as the Pacemaker of the Heart? SA node
Which portion of the Heart is responsible for pumping blood into the pulmonary artery? Right ventricle
What medical term refers to the abnormal accumulation of air in the pleural cavity? Pneumothorax
Which surgical instrument is preferred for the removal of a foreign body in the bronchial tree of infants and children? Rigid bronchoscope
Which of the following is NOT considered a sterile procedure? Bronchoscopy
Which type of equipment assumes the role of the heart and lungs while undergoing cardiopulmonary bypass? Pump oxygenator
Which of the following protects the heart from damage during cardiopulmonary bypass? Hypothermia
Which mechanical device is designed for circulatory support after cardiac procedures? Intra-aortic balloon pump
Into which portion of the heart is the cannula placed to achieve venous cannulation for cardiopulmonary bypass? Right atrium
All of the following are false for cardiac pacemaker insertion EXCEPT that the electrodes are placed in the ____________. Right atrium
The trachea divides at the ________ into right and left bronchi. Carina
The Rastelli procedure refers to ____________. A teflon patch being used to close the ventricular septal defect. The middle pulmonary artery is transected, and a channel is placed from the right ventricular outflow to the pulmonary artery
For the posterolateral position, the operation room personnel should have which of the following available? Beanbag
It is most important that while handling the lens with light cord, the STSR should not ____________. Allow the lens with light cord to touch the drape
Which structure supplies the myocardium with oxygenated blood? Coronary arteries
Which is the longest vein in the body? Greater saphenous
Claudication is the term used to refer to ______________. Cramping
A dietrich set includes items such as _____________. Vascular clamps, dilators, and scissors
The typical suture gauge for a femoral vascular anastomosis is _______. 4-0
Which procedure includes a prep from mid-abdomen to toes with the affected leg prepped circumferentially? Aorto-femoral bypass
The surgical excision of a dilated portion of the aortic wall immediate reconstruction using synthetic graft is known as an _____________. Abdominal aortic aneurysm recession
Which statement is correct regarding the position of the patient about to undergo a carotid endertectomy? The patient should be placed in a supine position, with no further modifications needed
A Fogarty balloon catheter is used for a(n) _______________. Arterial embolectomy
Which medication is always added to injectable saline for the use of intra-arterial irrigation? Heparin
The generalized disease that involves the formation of atheroma within the lumen of an artery causing restricted blood flow is known as ______________. Arteriosclerosis obliterans
A treatment option given to patients with symptomatic artherosclerosis disease is ______________. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)
A bulldog is used in vascular surgery to ____________. Clamp a blood vessel
Which drug is used to suppress arterial vasospasm? Papaverin
The outermost part of the meninges is the ____________. Dura
A shallow groove on the brain is called a _____________. Sulcus
The cerebral hemispheres are connected by a deep bridge of nerve fibers called the ______________. Corpus callosum
A deep groove in the brain is called a ________________. Fissure
Most CSF is produced within the _______ ventricle. Lateral
The aqueduct of Sylvius (cerebral aqueduct) connects the ________ ventricles. Third and fourth
Leroy-Raney clips are used on _________________. Scalp edges
The best way to control bleeding on the cut edges of bone is with ____________. Bone wax
A ventricular shunt can be placed distally in the _______________. Atrium or the peritoneal cavity
A congenital collection of abnormal vessels of the brain that increase in size with time best describes a(n) ______________. Arteriovenous malformation
Which condition results from the obstruction of the flow of CSF, overproduction of CSF, or improper absorption of CSF? Hydrocephalus
Which condition results from a failure of the bony structures around the neural tube to close properly during embryonic development? Spina bifida
Which of the following is not a positioning aid for intracranial procedures? Wilson frame
What is the intraoperative purpose of a large bore spinal needle during spinal procedure? Proper disk level identification through X-ray
A bulky dressing is used postoperatively for a carpal tunnel syndrome to _______________. Restrict movement of the wrist
Cholangiography is a radiographic study of the ______________. Gallbladder
The term staging refers to the ______________. Degree of tumor metastasis
The display and recording of the electrical activity of skeletal muscle is called a(n) ____________. EMG
An otoscope is used for viewing the ___________. Ear
Mammography uses X-rays to locate tumors of the _____________. Breast
The escape of fluid from the pleural space is known as _____________. Pleural effusion
What term describes making an incision and dissecting through tissue layers to expose the vessel and make an incision into the vessel for the induction of a catheter? Cut down
The excision of tissue or aspiration of fluid to determine the nature of the diseases for treatment is known as a(n) ___________. Biopsy
Foreign bodies that may have legal value are often turned over to the police as evidence. It is recommended that person who turns the foreign body over to law-enforcement officers receive a(n) _________. Requisition
Handing of a small specimen to the circulator can be a challenging task. The surgical technologist may use what device to make this task easier? Telfa
Which type of biopsy involves the removal of a portion of the tissue mass or lesion for pathology study? Incisional biopsy
Tissue or fluid that is suspected of being infected may be cultured for pathogen to be identified. This is called ______________. Culture diagnosis
Created by: STGuru
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