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Beth Take
Physiology Week 7-13
Question | Answer |
---|---|
The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct impulses up to approximately _____ meters per second. | 130 |
Which is true of a neuron with a resting potential? | The sodium pump has moved Na+ to the outside of the plasma membrane |
Within the nervous system, coding for the strength of a stimulus is accomplished through: | The frequency of nerve impulses |
Severe depression can be caused by a deficit in certain brain synapses of: | Amines |
During a relative refractory period: | The action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus |
Serotonin is an example of a(n): | Amine neurotransmitter |
What is true of an action potential? | The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is positively charged |
A synapse consists of: | A synaptic knob. A synaptic cleft. The plasma membrane of a postsynaptic neuron. |
Which of the following statements about amino acid neurotransmitters is incorrect? | They are all inhibitory neurotransmitters |
For a neurotransmitter to produce an inhibitory postsynaptic potential, which of the following channels must open? | Potassium and/or chloride channels |
The neurotransmitter(s) that inhibit(s) the conduction of pain impulses is(are): | Enkephalins |
Neurotransmitters are released in a synapse and bind to: | Receptors on the postsynaptic neuron |
When an impulse reaches a synapse: | Chemical transmitters are released |
What antidepressants acts by blocking the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO)? | Phenelzine |
Compared with the outside of the neuron, the inside has a(n) ____ charge. | Negative |
When current leaps across an insulating myelin sheath from node to node, the type of impulse conduction is called: | Saltatory conduction |
Dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are classified as: | Catecholamines |
No impulse can be sent through a neuron: | During the absolute refractory period |
The main chemical classes of neurotransmitters are: | Amines Amino acids Neuropeptides |
What neuron could transmit a nerve impulse the fastest? | A large-diameter neuron with myelin |
Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to: | Initiate an action potential |
The first event to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron is: | Some of the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open |
What is used by the body as a neurotransmitter? | Nitric oxide Acetylcholine Carbon monoxide |
A synaptic knob would be located on a(n): | Axonn |
Stimulus-gated channels open in response to: | Sensory stimuli |
The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct an impulse that is how much faster than the slowest fibers in the body? | Almost 300 times faster |
A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a _____ potential. | Local/Graded |
Acetylcholine is in the same class of neurotransmitters as: | Ester of choline and acetic acid |
The only ion that can diffuse across a neuron’s membrane when the neuron is at rest is: | Potassium |
Spatial summation releases: | Neurotransmitters released simultaneously from several presynaptic knobs converge on one postsynaptic neuron |
T/F: The parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions always act with a cooperative influence, and through summation of the impulses, the effect can be increased. | False |
Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through the ventricles, into the central canal, and ___, and is absorbed back into the blood. | Subarachnoid space |
How does a dually innervated autonomic effector differ from a singly innervated autonomic effector? | A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division. |
How many nerve pairs are there? | 8 cervical nerve pairs. 12 thoracic nerve pairs. 5 lumbar nerve pairs. |
If the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose _____ related to that pathway. | Sensory perception |
Audition is a function of the _____ lobe. | Temporal |
The part of the brain that can directly influence or inhibit the release of hormones from the pituitary is the: | Hypothalamus |
Which is(are) the neurotransmitter(s) in a somatic motor pathway? | Acetylcholine |
Parasympathetic stimulation: | Contraction of the urinary bladder. Relaxation of the sphincters of the digestive tract. Increased salivation. |
The part of the brain that assists in the maintenance of balance is the: | Cerebellum |
Functions of the hypothalamus: | Production of hormones. “Go between” of the psyche and the soma. Appetite center. |
Afferent nerves or fibers are found only in the _____ nervous system. | Sensory and Autonomic |
A child was frightened by a large dog. The pupils of the child’s eyes became dilated, and the heart and respiratory rates increased. These symptoms were caused by stimulation of: | The sympathetic nervous system |
The vomiting reflex is mediated by the: | Medulla |
Tic douloureux is a painful neuralgia of the _____ nerve. | Trigeminal |
Norepinephrine is liberated at: | Most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings. |
Impulses from the _____ play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum. | Thalamus |
T/F: The preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions are cholinergic. | True |
The knee jerk can be classified as a segmental reflex because: | Impulses that mediate it enter and leave the same segment of the cord |
T/F: Most effectors of the autonomic nervous system are dually innervated by sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons. | True |
Sympathetic responses generally have widespread effects on the body because: | Preganglionic fibers synapse with several postsynaptic fibers |
Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may: | Synapse with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron. Send ascending and/or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to synapse with postganglionic neurons in other chain ganglia. Pass through one or more ganglia without synapsing. |
Knee jerk reflex: | It is an ipsilateral reflex. It is a spinal cord reflex. It does not have to involve the brain. |
A mixed nerve is one that: | Carries both sensory and motor fibers. |
Cranial nerves that are involved in proprioception are: | Hypoglossal. Accessory. Abducens. |
Cranial nerves that are not involved in proprioception are: | Vagus |
Sympathetic stimulation is: | Decreased secretion of the pancreas. Constriction of the urinary sphincters. Dilation of skeletal muscle blood vessels. |
Structure of the spinal cord: | The spinal cord does not completely fill the spinal cavity. The spinal cord extends from the foramen magnum to the first lumbar vertebra. The spinal cord has anterior and posterior grooves that almost divide the cord into symmetrical halves. |
Propranolol is an example of a: | Beta blocker. Drug used to treat irregular heartbeats. Drug used to treat hypertension. |
Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by filtration of blood in the: | Choroid plexuses |
Damage to the _____ nerve could make the diaphragm unable to function. | Phrenic |
The Parasympathetic division is: | The parasympathetic division is the dominant controller of most autonomic effectors most of the time. |
The Parasympathetic division is: | Under quiet, non-stressful conditions, more impulses reach autonomic effectors by cholinergic parasympathetic fibers than by adrenergic sympathetic fibers. |
The Parasympathetic division is: | Parasympathetic stimulation causes an increase in the secretion of pancreatic juice and insulin. |
Impulses sent over which of the following tracts could result in voluntary movement, especially of the hands, fingers, feet, and toes of the opposite side? | Lateral corticospinal |
Nerves that innervate the floor of the pelvic cavity and some of the surrounding areas are found in the _____ plexus. | Coccygeal |
What is a description of the principle of autonomic antagonism as it relates to the autonomic nervous system? | If sympathetic impulses tend to stimulate an effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to inhibit it |
Somatic motor and autonomic pathways share these characteristics: | Direction of information flow. Location of peripheral fibers. Acetylcholine. |
The dorsal nerve root: | It is also called the posterior root. It includes the spinal ganglion. It includes sensory fibers. |
If the ventral nerve root of a spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose _____ related to that pathway. | Willed movement |
Nerve impulses over the _____ nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate. | Vagus |
The cerebellum performs the functions: | Coordinates control of muscle action. Helps control posture. Controls skeletal muscles to maintain balance. |
What is the only plexus that contains fibers from the thoracic region of the spinal cord? | Brachial |
Normal infants will show the Babinski reflex up to the age of _____ years. | 1.5-2 |
The spinal tract that is located in the side of the cord, originates in the brain, and terminates in the spinal cord is the _____ tract. | Lateral corticospinal |
The functions of the oculomotor nerve are: | Movement of external eye muscles. Movement of intrinsic eye muscles. Proprioception of eye muscles. |
Acetylcholine can stimulate _____ receptors. | Nicotinic |
The cerebellum acts with the _____ to produce skilled movement. | Cerebrum |
When you are looking at a large green field, which cones would be sending the green wavelength to the brain? | M cones |
In comparison with the nervous system, the regulatory effects of the endocrine system are: | Slow to appear but long-lasting. |
Nonsteroid hormones are: | Oxytocin. Calcitonin. Glucagon. |
The somatic senses enable us to detect sensations, including: | Touch. Temperature. Pain. |
The types of cells that secrete ACTH are: | Corticotrophs |
Visceroceptors are located in: | Internal organs |
When a small amount of one hormone allows a second hormone to have its full effect, the phenomenon is called: | Permissiveness |
What are hormones somatostatin? | It is produced by the delta cells of the pancreas. It inhibits the secretion of glucagon. |
The characteristics of the endocrine system are: | Effector tissues include virtually all tissues. Receptors are located on the plasma membrane or within the target cell. |
Accommodation for near vision necessitates: | An increase in the curvature of the lens. Constriction of the pupils. Convergence of the two eyes. |
The last step in the nonsteroid hormone mechanism of action is: | Protein kinases activate other enzymes |
Dynamic equilibrium depends on the functioning of the: | Crista ampullaris |
The clear and potassium-rich fluid that fills the labyrinth is: | Endolymph |
The olfactory tract carries impulses associated with: | Smell |
What do Alpha fibers do in Pain receptors? | Alpha fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain. |
Clearness or sharpness of visual perception is known as: | Visual acuity |
One of the few hormones that functions on a positive-feedback loop is: | Oxytocin |
What is a receptor potential? | It is a graded response. It occurs when an adequate stimulus acts on a receptor. It can stimulate an action potential in the axon of a sensory neuron. |
The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the: | Anterior pituitary |
What is the function of glucagon? | Tends to increase blood glucose concentrations |
The immediate effect of a steroid hormone on a cell is the: | Transcription of RNA |
The two-point discrimination test can be used to measure: | The sensitivity of the skin in various parts of the body |
If you slammed your finger in a car door, it would stimulate _____ pain fibers. | Acute |
What is the pineal gland? | It is located on the dorsal aspect of the diencephalon. It produces melatonin. |
What are prostaglandins? | There are at least 16 different prostaglandins. The first prostaglandin was identified in semen. PGFs have been used to induce labor and accelerate the delivery of a baby. |
The sequence of auditory ossicles in the middle ear starting at the tympanic membrane and ending at the oval window is: | Malleus, Incus, and Stapes. |
Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the _____ membrane can stimulate nerve impulse condition. | Tectorial |
The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is: | Progesterone |
Sensory impulses ending in what part of the CNS trigger imprecise or “crude” sensation awareness? | Thalamus |
The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are the: | Ruffini corpuscles |
T/F: Both atria receive their blood supply from branches of the right and left coronary arteries. | False |
The mechanisms of which three hormones work together to regulate blood volume? | Aldosterone, ANH, and ADH. |
_____, a natural constituent of blood, acts as an antithrombin and prevents clots from forming in vessels. | Heparin |
Erythrocytes begin their maturation sequence in red bone marrow from nucleated cells known as: | Hematopoietic stem cells |
What are the two baroreceptors that are located near the heart? | Aortic baroreceptors and Carotid baroreceptors. |
The physiological mechanism that dissolves clots is known as: | Fibrinolysis |
Starling’s law of the heart states that, within limits, the longer, or more stretched, the heart fibers are at the beginning of the contraction, the: | Stronger the contraction |
Components critical to coagulation are: | Prothrombin. Thrombin. Fibrinogen. Fibrin. |
The term blood type refers to the type of blood cell: | Antigen |
The vagus is said to act as a “brake” on the heart. This situation is called: | Vagal inhibition |
The localized pressure gradient needed to maintain blood flow in a tissue is called: | Perfusion pressure |
What is involved in determining a person’s total blood volume? | Age. Body type. Gender. |
Blood volume per kilogram of body weight varies inversely with: | Body fat |
A glycoprotein hormone that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissues is: | Erythropoietin |
A decrease in the amount of white blood cells is called: | Leukopenia |
What two factors promote the return of venous blood to the heart? | Blood-pumping action of respirations and Skeletal muscle contractions. |
What is the functional significance of large areas of cardiac muscle being electrically coupled to form a single functional syncytium? | Because they form a syncytium, muscle cells can pass an action potential along a large area of the heart wall, stimulating contraction in each muscle fiber of the syncytium. |
Somethings Ventricles do: | They are the pumping chambers of the heart. The myocardium of the ventricles is thicker than that of the atria. The myocardium of the left ventricle is thicker than that of the right ventricle. |
The heart begins beating in the fetus at about what stage of development? | After about 4 weeks |
The term used to describe the collection of mechanisms that influence the circulation of blood is: | Hemodynamics |
Blood pressure is measured with the aid of an apparatus known as a(n): | Sphygmomanometer |
Cardiac output is determined by: | Stroke volume and Heart rate. |
Inhibition of sympathetic vasoconstrictor impulses is considered a major mechanism of: | Vasodilation |
The difference between systolic pressure and diastolic pressure is called: | Pulse pressure |
In the extrinsic pathway of stage 1 of the clotting mechanism, chemicals released from damaged tissues trigger the cascade of events that ultimately result in the formation of: | Prothrombin activator. |
Neutrophils are highly mobile and phagocytic. They migrate out of blood vessels and into tissue spaces. This process is called: | Diapedesis |
Blood viscosity stems mainly from the red blood cells but also partly from the _____ in blood. | Protein molecules present |
A hematocrit of 56% would be an indication of: | Polycythemia |
_____ is used to determine the volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood. | Hematocrit |
Factors that affect the strength of myocardial contraction are called: | Inotropic factors |
Adaptive immunity, part of the body’s third line of defense, is orchestrated by two different classes of a type of white blood cell called the: | Lymphocyte |
Lymphatics in the villi of the small intestines are called: | Lacteals |
The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles is called: | Phagocytosis |
Because T cells attack pathogens more directly, T-cell immune mechanisms are classified as _____ immunity. | Cell-mediated |
The _____ postulates that when an antigen enters the body, it selects the clone whose cells are committed to synthesizing its specific antibody and stimulates these cells to proliferate and to thereby produce more antibodies. | Clonal selection theory |
Bean-shaped structures located at certain intervals along the lymphatic system are: | Lymph nodes |
The movement of phagocytes from blood vessels to an inflammation site is called: | Diapedesis |
Each cortical nodule is composed of packed lymphocytes that surround a less dense area called a: | Germinal center |
Which antibody is synthesized by immature B cells and then inserted into their plasma membranes? | Immunoglobulin M (IgM) |
Pyrogen molecules trigger the fever response by promoting the production of: | Prostaglandins |
Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an: | Antigen’s epitopes fit into and bind to an antigen molecule’s antigen-binding site. |
Which of the following is a powerful poison that acts directly on any cell and quickly kills it? | Lymphotoxin |
Which of these substances operate(s) immune mechanisms? | Sebum. Mucus. Enzymes. Hydrochloric acid in gastric mucosa. |
Chemotaxis is the process by which a cell navigates toward the source of the chemotactic factor by way of: | Detecting and then moving toward higher concentrations of the factor. |
What is the function of the spleen? | Tissue repair. Hematopoiesis. Red blood cell and Platelet destruction. Blood reservoir. |
Molecules formed by the reactions of the complement cascade assemble themselves on the enemy cell’s surface, which results in: | Cytolysis |
What protein interferes with the ability of viruses to cause disease? | Interferon |
Activities that result in central movement or flow of lymph are called: | Lymphokinetic activities |
The primary organ of the lymphatic system is the: | Thymus |
Antibodies are proteins of the family called: | Immunoglobulins |
During their residence in the thymus, pre-T cells develop into _____, cells that proliferate as rapidly as any in the body. | Thymocytes |
_____ refers to a phenomenon in which the genetic characteristics common to a particular kind of organism provide defense against certain pathogens. | Species resistance |
Masses of lymphoid tissue located in a protective ring under the mucous membranes in the mouth and the back of the throat are called: | Tonsils |
The functions of the lymph nodes are: | Defense and Hematopoiesis |
The internal environment of the human body is protected by the _____, which is(are) referred to as the first line of defense. | Skin |
Which organ has several functions, including defense, hematopoiesis, red blood cell and platelet destruction, and blood reservoir? | Spleen |
The body’s defense mechanisms can be organized into one of two major categories of immune mechanisms; these are: | Innate and Adaptive immunity |
Lymphocytes that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses are known as: | Natural killer cells (NK) |
The presentation of an antigen by an antigen-presenting cell activates the T cell. The cell then divides repeatedly to form a clone of identical sensitized T cells that form: | Effector T cells and Memory cells |
The lymphatic system serves various functions in the body. The two most important functions of this system are: | Fluid balance and Immunity |
The term used to describe the volume of air exchanged during normal inspiration and expiration is: | Tidal volume (TV) |
The symbol HbNCOOH– is used for: | Carbaminohemoglobin |
Regulated processes associated with the functioning of the respiratory system: | Transport of gases. Gas exchange in lungs and tissue. Pulmonary ventilation. |
Normal, quiet breathing is known as: | Eupnea |
A drop in the body’s production of carbonic anhydrase would hinder the formation of: | Carbonic acid |
About 98.5% of the oxygen carried by systemic arterial blood is attached to: | Hemoglobin |
What constitutes total lung volume? | Residual volume and vital capacity |
One hundred milliliters of arterial blood contains approximately what volume percent of oxygen? | 20% |
What would have the greatest accelerating effect on the dissociation of oxygen from hemoglobin? | Decreased PO2 and increased PCO2 |
Carbon dioxide is carried in three forms in the blood. Ranking them from greatest to least amount carried, the sequence would be: | Bicarbonate ion, carbaminohemoglobin, and dissolved in plasma |
If a person were skiing high up in the mountains, she might feel that she is having trouble breathing (getting enough oxygen in her blood). This is because the: | Lower atmospheric pressure lowers the PO2 and the diffusion gradient between the blood and the atmosphere is less. |
Boyle’s law states that the volume of a gas varies _____ with pressure at a _____ temperature. | Inversely; Constant |
Means of transporting oxygen in the blood: | As oxyhemoglobin. Dissolved in the plasma |
Dalton law states that the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture of gases is _____ to the total pressure of the mixture. | Directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and |
Standard atmospheric pressure is _____ mm Hg. | 760 |
The PCO2 in alveolar air is _____ blood. | Less than in the systemic venous Equal to the systemic arterial |
Excessive fluid in the pleural cavity would be most likely to cause: | Decreased vital capacity |
A type of breathing characterized by gradually increasing tidal volume for several breaths followed by several breaths with gradually decreasing tidal volume is: | Cheyne-Stokes respiration |
The major form by which carbon dioxide is transported in the circulatory system is: | As bicarbonate ions |
When the pressure in the lung is greater than atmospheric pressure: | Expiration occurs |
The approximate partial pressure of oxygen at standard atmospheric pressure is about _____ mm Hg. | 160 |
What type of breathing is characterized by repeated sequences of deep gasps and apnea, and is usually seen in people with increased intracranial pressure? | Biot’s breathing |
By the time the blood leaves the lung capillaries to return to the heart, what percentage of the blood’s hemoglobin has united with oxygen? | 97% |
The vital capacity is equal to the sum of the: | Inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume |
What helps determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute? | The total functional surface area of the respiratory membrane. Alveolar ventilation. The oxygen pressure gradient between alveolar air and incoming pulmonary blood. |
The PCO2 in the atmosphere is: | Less than in the alveolar air |
What muscles are used for forced expiration? | Abdominal muscles and internal intercostals |
If the tidal volume of a given individual is 500 ml, then the anatomical dead space is approximately _____ ml. | 150 |
Vital capacity is defined as the: | Maximum volume of air that can be moved into and out of the lungs during forced respiration. |
During inspiration, the expansion of the lungs causes: | A decrease in alveolar pressure |
Cellulose is a residue of digestion that comes from: | Carbohydrates |
Which of the following is a disaccharide: Glucose. Starch. Sucrose. Or Glycogen? | Sucrose |
Rotavirus can cause what life-threatening condition in infants? | Diarrhea |
The enterogastric reflex causes: | Inhibition of gastric peristalsis |
T/F: Moistening the food is an example of mechanical digestion. | False |
What step of deglutition is under voluntary control? | Oral stage |
What phase of gastric secretion is stimulated by the sight, taste, and smell of food? | Cephalic phase |
The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is: | Cholecystokinin |
Which of the processes of mechanical digestion involves the esophagus? | Deglutition Peristalsis |
The sodium cotransport or coupled transport acts to transport sodium ions and glucose molecules _____ the GI lumen. | Passively out of |
The hormone that inhibits gastric muscle, slowing passage of food into the duodenum, is called: | Gastric inhibitory peptide |
Glucose moves from the GI tract into the circulatory system by the process of: | Cotransport |
Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as: | Amylase |
The purpose of peristalsis is to: | Propel food forward along the GI tract |
The enzyme pepsin begins the digestion of: | Protein |
When classified according to the kind of chemical reactions catalyzed, digestive enzymes are referred to as _____ enzymes. | Hydrolyzing |
The hormone thought to be a messenger causing release of digestive enzymes from the intestinal mucosa is: | Vasoactive intestinal peptide |
Which of the openings doesn’t have to be blocked when food moves from the pharynx into the esophagus? | Oropharynx |
The process of fat emulsification consists of: | Breaking fats into small droplets |
Bicarbonates are useful in the GI tract to: | Neutralize hydrochloric acid |
The final product of carbohydrate digestion is a: | Monosaccharide |
The intestinal hormone cholecystokinin: | Causes the pancreas to increase exocrine secretions high in enzyme content. Opposes the influence of gastrin on gastric parietal cells. Stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder. |
The major site for the absorption of the end products of digestion is the: | Small intestine |
What blood vessel carries absorbed food from the GI tract to the liver? | Portal vein |
The substances absorbed into the lymph capillaries are: | Glycerol and fatty acids |
An end product of fat digestion is: | Glycerol |
The hormone that stimulates the release of bicarbonate substance from the pancreas is: | Secretin |
The process of swallowing is known as: | Deglutition |
Hydrolysis refers to: | Using water to split larger compounds into smaller ones |
T/F: Enzymes change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction. | False |