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Z. Venzor Pract fina

Physio Practice Final

QuestionAnswer
Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? Prion
Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? Transmitter
Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations. All of the above: occurrence, distribution, transmission
The normal reading or range of normal is called the: set point.
Intrinsic control: is sometimes called autoregulation.
Pathogenesis can be defined as: the course of disease development.
Negative-feedback control systems: oppose a change.
Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? all of the above: Environment , Stress, Lifestyle
Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: the body trying to maintain homeostasis. AND a negative-feedback mechanism
The term that literally means self-immunity is: autoimmunity.
The roles played by proteins can be divided into which categories? Structural and functional
When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide? Maltose
The amino group in an amino acid is: NH3+.
Sometimes referred to as animal starch, _____ is the main polysaccharide in the body. glycogen
The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called: dehydration synthesis.
The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure? Secondary
Which energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule does not contain a nucleotide? Creatine phosphate
Which of the following is not one of the major groups of organic substances in the human body? Salts
Which of the following is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids? They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end.
All of the following substances are organic except: electrolytes.
The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of _____, with _____ being the dominant component. carbohydrate and protein; protein
If one side of a DNA molecule is CTAGGCTG, the other side would be: GATCCGAC.
The type of lipoprotein associated with “bad” cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels is: LDL.
Which lipid is part of vitamin D? Steroids
Which level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids? Primary
The small water channels in the cell membrane are called: aquaporins.
A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell would be: hypertonic.
During which stage of mitosis do the centrioles move to the opposite poles of the cell? Prophase
Diffusion of particles through a membrane by means of a carrier molecule is called: facilitated diffusion.
Two solutions of different concentrations of glucose are separated by a membrane that allows both glucose and water to pass through. When dynamic equilibrium is reached, there will be: an even exchange of material across the membrane.
Extensive weight training causes the muscle cells to: hypertrophy.
A membrane carrier structure attracts a solute to a binding site, changes shape, and releases the solute on the other side of the cell membrane. This describes the process of: carrier-mediated transport.
Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as: haploid.
The physical process by which water and solute move through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure gradient exists across the membrane is the process of: filtration.
If a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were A-U-C-G-A, which of the following would be true about the nucleic acid? It contains ribose sugar.
Water will move through the cell membrane by: Water will move through the cell membrane by:
Transcription can be best described as the: synthesis of mRNA.
Phagocytosis is an example of: endocytosis.
The pairing of bases of a strand of DNA is obligatory. If a strand of DNA were composed of the base sequence of ATCG, what would be the obligatory sequence of its opposing base pairs? TAGC
Which is not true about the sodium and potassium pump? Sodium moves into the cell and potassium moves out of the cell.
Which is not a function of connective tissue? Communication
In what area of the body would you expect to find an especially thick stratum corneum? Sole of the foot
The hypodermis: connects the dermis to underlying tissues.
Which type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing heat? Brown fat
The type of tissue that contains cells called neurons is called: nervous.
A tissue is: a group of similar cells that perform a common function.
Which of the following is not a function of adipose tissue? Defends the body from microbes and injurious substances
Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? Connective
Which of the following is not a characteristic of epithelial tissue? Is important in communication and control
Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: mesenchyme.
Small cells that synthesize and secrete a specialized organic matrix are Small cells that synthesize and secrete a specialized organic matrix are
Until bone growth in length is complete, a layer of the cartilage, known as the _____, remains between the epiphysis and diaphysis. epiphyseal plate
Bones act as a reservoir for which of the following minerals? Calcium
Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone. False
During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the: pelvic outlet.
As the activity of osteoblasts increases, the: amount of calcium in bone increases. AND level of calcium in the blood decreases.
In bone growth, the medullary cavity is enlarged because of the activity of: osteoclasts.
The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the: thumb.
In bone formation, the cells that produce the organic matrix are the: osteoblasts.
An open fracture is also known as a compound fracture. True
Calcification of the organic bone matrix occurs when complex calcium salts are deposited in the matrix.
In the epiphyseal plate, the zone of hypertrophy is in the _____ layer. third
The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: in the diaphysis.
A condition that is caused by an abnormally increased roundness in the thoracic curvature is kyphosis.
Bones grow in diameter by the combined action of which two of the three bone cell types? osteoblasts and osteoclasts
The substance that attracts oxygen in the myoglobin molecule is: iron.
The opposite of eversion is: none of the above. NOT protraction, depression, nor retraction.
Which of the following statements about cardiac muscle is incorrect? Cardiac muscle requires nervous stimulation to contract.
White fibers are also called _____ fibers. fast
All of the following are true characteristics of an isometric contraction except: movement is produced.
Physiological muscle fatigue may be caused by: ALL of the above: a relative lack of ATP, high levels of lactate, AND failure of the sodium-potassium pumps.
Moving a body part away from the medial plane of the body is called: abduction.
Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in which type of muscle contraction? Isometric
Which type of muscle does not have T-tubules? Smooth
Which of the following proteins found in myofilaments contains the cross-bridges? Myosin
Which type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis? Single-unit smooth
The type of movement possible at a synovial joint depends on the: shape of the articulating surfaces of the bones.
What are the most movable joints in the body? Synovial
All of the following are noninflammatory joint disorders except: juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
Which joint allows for a unique movement called opposition? Saddle
No impulse can be sent through a neuron: during the absolute refractory period.
The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct an impulse that is how much faster than the slowest fibers in the body? Almost 300 times faster
Serotonin is an example of a(n): amine neurotransmitter.
The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct impulses up to approximately _____ meters per second. 130
For a neurotransmitter to produce an inhibitory postsynaptic potential, which of the following channels must open? Potassium and/or chloride channels
When an impulse reaches a synapse: chemical transmitters are released.
Severe depression can be caused by a deficit in certain brain synapses of: amines.
Neurotransmitters are released in a synapse and bind to: receptors on the postsynaptic neuron.
Dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are classified as: catecholamines.
Which of the following is not used by the body as a neurotransmitter? ALL are used as neurotransmitters: Nitric oxide, Acetylcholine and Carbon monoxide
A synaptic knob would be located on a(n): axon.
The neurotransmitter(s) that inhibit(s) the conduction of pain impulses is(are): enkephalins.
Which of the following is true of spatial summation? Neurotransmitters released simultaneously from several presynaptic knobs converge on one postsynaptic neuron.
Compared with the outside of the neuron, the inside has a(n) ____ charge. negative
Acetylcholine is in the same class of neurotransmitters as: NONE of the above: serotonin., histamine. or dopamine.
If the ventral nerve root of a spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose _____ related to that pathway. willed movement
Which of the following is not true? One bundle of nerve fibers (nerve roots) projects from each side of the spinal cord.
A child was frightened by a large dog. The pupils of the child’s eyes became dilated, and the heart and respiratory rates increased. These symptoms were caused by stimulation of: the sympathetic nervous system.
Normal infants will show the Babinski reflex up to the age of _____ years. 1.5-2
Which of the following statements is not true? The major function of the parasympathetic division is to serve as an “emergency” system.
Acetylcholine can stimulate _____ receptors. nicotinic
Afferent nerves or fibers are found only in the _____ nervous system. sensory AND autonomic
Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by filtration of blood in the: choroid plexuses.
The parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions always act with a cooperative influence, and through summation of the impulses, the effect can be increased. False
Tic douloureux is a painful neuralgia of the _____ nerve. trigeminal
Norepinephrine is liberated at: most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings.
A mixed nerve is one that: carries both sensory and motor fibers.
Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through the ventricles, into the central canal and _____, and is absorbed back into the blood. subarachnoid space
All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except: increased heart rate
Impulses from the _____ play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum. thalamus
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? Chemical messenger travels a short distance
The somatic senses enable us to detect sensations, including: All of the above: touch., temperature. and pain.
The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the anterior pituitary.
Which of the following is true about pain receptors? Alpha fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain.
The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is: progesterone.
Visceroceptors are located in which of the following? Internal organs
All of the following are true statements except: aspirin produces some of its effects by increasing PGE synthesis.
Which of the following statements is not true of the pineal gland? Melatonin is stimulated by the presence of sunlight.
Dynamic equilibrium depends on the functioning of the crista ampullaris
The type of cells that secrete ACTH are: corticotrophs.
The last step in the nonsteroid hormone mechanism of action is: protein kinases activate other enzymes.
protein kinases activate other enzymes. It follows the all-or-none law.
Sensory impulses ending in what part of the CNS trigger imprecise or “crude” sensation awareness? Thalamus
Which of the following is a function of glucagon? Tends to increase blood glucose concentrations
The clear and potassium-rich fluid that fills the labyrinth is endolymph.
A hematocrit of 56% would be an indication of: polycythemia.
The physiological mechanism that dissolves clots is known as fibrinolysis.
Erythrocytes begin their maturation sequence in red bone marrow from nucleated cells known as: hematopoietic stem cells.
Cardiac output is determined by stroke volume and heart rate.
_____ is used to determine the volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood. Hematocrit
All of the following are true statements except: both atria receive their blood supply from branches of the right and left coronary arteries.
Factors that affect the strength of myocardial contraction are called inotropic factors.
Neutrophils are highly mobile and phagocytic. They migrate out of blood vessels and into tissue spaces. This process is called diapedesis.
The difference between systolic pressure and diastolic pressure is called pulse pressure.
Blood pressure is measured with the aid of an apparatus known as a(n) sphygmomanometer.
The presentation of an antigen by an antigen-presenting cell activates the T cell. The cell then divides repeatedly to form a clone of identical sensitized T cells that form effector T cells and memory cells.
Which of the following is a powerful poison that acts directly on any cell and quickly kills it? lymphotoxin
The functions of the lymph nodes are defense and hematopoiesis.
Masses of lymphoid tissue located in a protective ring under the mucous membranes in the mouth and the back of the throat are called tonsils.
The primary organ of the lymphatic system is the thymus.
Bean-shaped structures located at certain intervals along the lymphatic system are lymph nodes.
Which organ has several functions, including defense, hematopoiesis, red blood cell and platelet destruction, and blood reservoir? spleen
Which antibody is synthesized by immature B cells and then inserted into their plasma membranes? immunoglobulin M
The lymphatic system serves various functions in the body. The two most important functions of this system are fluid balance and immunity.
Each cortical nodule is composed of packed lymphocytes that surround a less dense area called a germinal center.
During their residence in the thymus, pre-T cells develop into _____, cells that proliferate as rapidly as any in the body. thymocytes
Which protein interferes with the ability of viruses to cause disease? interferon
Molecules formed by the reactions of the complement cascade assemble themselves on the enemy cell’s surface, which results in cytolysis.
What is the function of the spleen? ALL of the above: tissue repair, hematopoiesis AND red blood cell and platelet destruction blood reservoir
The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles is called phagocytosis.
If a person were skiing high up in the mountains, she might feel that she is having trouble breathing (getting enough oxygen in her blood). This is because the: lower atmospheric pressure lowers the PO2 and the diffusion gradient between the blood and the atmosphere is less.
The PCO2 in alveolar air is _____ blood. less than in the systemic venous AND equal to the systemic arterial
Normal, quiet breathing is known as: eupnea.
The vital capacity is equal to the sum of the: inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume.
Which of the following is not a regulated process associated with the functioning of the respiratory system? Control of cell metabolism rate
When the pressure in the lung is greater than atmospheric pressure: expiration occurs.
Standard atmospheric pressure is _____ mm Hg. 760
Carbon dioxide is carried in three forms in the blood. Ranking them from greatest to least amount carried, the sequence would be: bicarbonate ion, carbaminohemoglobin, and dissolved in plasma.
The major form by which carbon dioxide is transported in the circulatory system is: as bicarbonate ions.
The PCO2 in the atmosphere is: less than in the alveolar air.
The substances absorbed into the lymph capillaries are: glycerol and fatty acids.
The major site for the absorption of the end products of digestion is the: small intestine.
The intestinal hormone cholecystokinin: ALL: Causes the pancreas to increase exocrine secretions high in enzyme content. Opposes the influence of gastrin on gastric parietal cells. and Stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder.
Cellulose is a residue of digestion that comes from: carbohydrates.
Rotavirus can cause what life-threatening condition in infants? Diarrhea
The hormone that stimulates the release of bicarbonate substance from the pancreas is: secretin.
Which of these is not an example of mechanical digestion? Moistening the food
The final product of carbohydrate digestion is a: monosaccharide.
Which blood vessel carries absorbed food from the GI tract to the liver? Portal vein
The purpose of peristalsis is to: propel food forward along the GI tract.
The hormone thought to be a messenger causing release of digestive enzymes from the intestinal mucosa is: vasoactive intestinal peptide.
Glucose moves from the GI tract into the circulatory system by the process of: cotransport.
Which of the following is not true of enzymes? They change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction.
Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as: amylase.
Which of the following is not one of the openings that must be blocked when food moves from the pharynx into the esophagus? Oropharynx
Cerebrospinal fluid is part of the _____ fluid. extracellular
Ketone bodies are associated with cellular metabolism of: fats.
The thirst center, which contains specialized cells called osmoreceptors, is located in the: hypothalamus.
Which of these is true about the metabolism of glucose? Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid.
The pH of the blood is maintained at approximately: 7.4.
Which of the following is(are) classified as an acid-forming food? ALL : Meat, Eggs and Poultry
A decrease in blood pH below normal tends to: stimulate increased respirations.
Which of the following would have the greatest concentration of hydrogen ions? pH 2
Edema may occur when: ALL: sodium is retained in the extracellular fluid as a result of increased aldosterone secretion or after serious renal disease such as acute glomerulonephritis. An increase in capillary blood pressure occurs. A decrease in the concentration of plasma
Which of the following ratios of base bicarbonate to carbonic acid will maintain a normal pH? 20:1
Which of the following is not considered a “transcellular fluid”? Lymph
If the pH of the blood were 7.23, it would be slightly more acidic than normal.
When comparing the volume of the various body fluids, the correct order going from highest to lowest in total volume would be: intracellular fluid, interstitial fluid, plasma.
Water normally leaves the body through _____ exits. four
Which of the following is a true statement? Arterial blood has an average pH of 7.41.
The major function of the reproductive system is propagation of the species. True
Testosterone is responsible for producing secondary sex characteristics. True
Which of the following functions is not usually associated with the uterus? Fertilization
The hormone that causes the alveoli of the mammary glands to secrete milk is: prolactin.
Which of the following is not a function of the Sertoli cells? They produce testosterone.
Which of the following is true of the essential organ in the reproductive system? ALL: It produces gametes. , It is called the testis in the male. AND It is called the gonad in both sexes.
The female reproductive system differs from the male reproductive system in that it: provides protection for the developing offspring. AND provides nutrition to the developing offspring.
What is the name of the so-called ovulating hormone? Luteinizing hormone
The opening of the urethra at the tip of the glans is called the: external urinary meatus.
Which of the following is not true of FSH? It stimulates the secretion of testosterone.
Created by: 4babies
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