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SCI221_Final Exam

Study Guide 1

QuestionAnswer
Positive-feedback control systems: accelerate a change.
Negative-feedback mechanisms: All of the above are correct: -minimize changes in blood glucose levels. - maintain homeostasis. -are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature.
Pathogenesis can be defined as: the course of disease development.
Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations. All of the above are correct: -occurrence -distribution -transmission
Homeostasis can best be described as: a state of relative constancy.
Intrinsic control: is sometimes called autoregulation.
Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? Prion
Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? All of the above: -Environment -Stress -Lifestyle
Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? Transmitter
Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: both A and C: -the body trying to maintain homeostasis -a negative-feedback mechanism.
What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids? Degree of saturation
The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of _____, with _____ being the dominant component. carbohydrate and protein; protein
Which level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids? Primary
The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure? Secondary
Amino acids frequently become joined by: peptide bonds
Which of the following is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids? They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end.
The basic building blocks of fats are: fatty acids and glycerol
Which lipid is part of vitamin D? Steroids
Unsaturated fats: will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms.
If one side of a DNA molecule is CTAGGCTG, the other side would be: GATCCGAC
Which of the following is not true of carbohydrates? All of the above are true of carbohydrates: -They include substances commonly called sugars. -They are the body’s primary source of energy. -They are a part of both DNA and RNA.
A _____ is a functional group that is temporarily unattached and is highly reactive because of unpaired electrons. free radical
Which lipid acts as a “tissue hormone”? Prostaglandin
Sometimes referred to as animal starch, _____ is the main polysaccharide in the body. glycogen
DNA: is a double-helix strand of nucleotides
Phagocytosis is an example of: endocytosis.
The physical process by which water and solute move through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure gradient exists across the membrane is the process of: filtration
An individual’s entire set of DNA can be referred to as a: genome
When the chromosomes align themselves across the equator of the spindle fibers, it is characteristic of which phase of mitosis? Metaphase
NaCl would move through the cell membrane in which direction? Both into and out of the cell
Which of the following terms is synonymous with tumor? Neoplasm
Transcription can be best described as the: synthesis of mRNA.
All of the following are examples of passive transport except: endocytosis
A membrane carrier structure attracts a solute to a binding site, changes shape, and releases the solute on the other side of the cell membrane. This describes the process of: carrier-mediated transport
A sequence of three bases forms a(n): codon
Which is true about the sodium and potassium pump? Three sodium ions are taken out of the cell.
Which of the following is not true of diffusion? Uses cellular energy
Which of the following is not true of RNA? It contains deoxyribose sugar
A DNA molecule is characterized by all of the following except: ribose sugar
Which is not true about the sodium and potassium pump? Sodium moves into the cell and potassium moves out of the cell.
Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the stratum: basale
Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the: bones
Which of the following epithelial functions is a primary activity of glandular epithelium? Secretion
Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate? Epithelial
Which of the following is not a function of adipose tissue? Defends the body from microbes and injurious substances
Which of the following is not a characteristic of smooth muscles? Having intercalated disks
A tissue is: a group of similar cells that perform a common function.
The area referred to as true skin is the: dermis
In what area of the body would you expect to find an especially thick stratum corneum? Sole of the foot
Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: mesenchyme
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the epiphyses? Cylindrical in shape
Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone False
The ulna articulates proximally with the: humerus
Bones act as a reservoir for which of the following minerals? Calcium
A person with a fractured patella would expect discomfort in the: knee
After the age of 50, the density of bone: decreases slowly because of a shift in the remodeling activity
One similarity between the structures of the foot and hand is the equivalent degrees of movement of both the thumb and the big toe. False
The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the: Thumb
As the activity of osteoblasts increases, the: Both B and C occur: -amount of calcium in bone increases. -level of calcium in the blood decreases
In the epiphyseal plate, the zone of hypertrophy is in the _____ layer. third
In intramembranous ossification, the process of appositional growth refers to the: addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones.
During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the: pelvic outlet
Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens. True
The humerus articulates proximally with the scapula
Small cells that synthesize and secrete a specialized organic matrix are osteoblast
Which type of muscle does not have T-tubules Smooth
The opposite of dorsiflexion is: plantar flexion
Cross-bridges are also called: myosin heads
Which joint allows for the most movement? ball and socket
A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called a(n) _____ contraction. isotonic
White fibers are also called _____ fibers. fast
Kicking a football is accomplished by knee: extension
The ion necessary for cross-bridging is: calcium
Which of the following is not an end-product of the breakdown of ATP? All of the above are end-products of the breakdown of ATP: -An inorganic phosphate -Energy that can be used in muscle contraction -ADP
Which structure functions to temporarily store calcium ions? Sarcoplasmic reticulum
The substance that attracts oxygen in the myoglobin molecule is: iron
The strength of a muscle contraction is influenced by the: All of the above are correct: -amount of load. -initial length of muscle fibers. -recruitment of motor units.
In the structure called a triad, the T-tubule is sandwiched between: sacs of sarcoplasmic reticulum
Which of the following is not a part of the neuromuscular junction? T-tubules
All of the following are true characteristics of an isometric contraction except movement is produced
The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct an impulse that is how much faster than the slowest fibers in the body? Almost 300 times faster
Which is true of an action potential? The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is positively charged.
Which neuron could transmit a nerve impulse the fastest? A large-diameter neuron with myelin
Acetylcholine is in the same class of neurotransmitters as: none of the above: -serotonin. -histamine. -dopamine.
Within the nervous system, coding for the strength of a stimulus is accomplished through: the frequency of nerve impulses
A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a _____ potential. local
The neurotransmitter(s) that inhibit(s) the conduction of pain impulses is(are): enkephalins.
A synaptic knob would be located on a(n): axon
Which of the following antidepressants acts by blocking the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO)? Phenelzine
Which of the following is true of spatial summation? Neurotransmitters released simultaneously from several presynaptic knobs converge on one postsynaptic neuron.
Which of the following statements about amino acid neurotransmitters is incorrect? They are all inhibitory neurotransmitters
A synapse consists of: all of the above: -a synaptic knob. -a synaptic cleft. -the plasma membrane of a postsynaptic neuron
Stimulus-gated channels open in response to: sensory stimuli
No impulse can be sent through a neuron: during the absolute refractory period
The first event to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron is: some of the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open
Which of the following is not an example of sympathetic stimulation? Constriction of the bronchioles
Which of the following is not associated with the oculomotor nerve? Closing and opening of the eye (blink reflex)
Which of the following is not true? One bundle of nerve fibers (nerve roots) projects from each side of the spinal cord.
Which of the following statements is not true? The major function of the parasympathetic division is to serve as an “emergency” system
Nerve impulses over the _____ nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate. vagus
Acetylcholine can stimulate _____ receptors. nicotinic
Audition is a function of the _____ lobe. temporal
Norepinephrine is liberated at: most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings.
Which is not true of the dorsal nerve root? All of the above are true: -It is also called the posterior root. -It includes the spinal ganglion. -It includes sensory fibers.
Most effectors of the autonomic nervous system are dually innervated by sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons. True
The cerebellum acts with the _____ to produce skilled movement. cerebrum
Which of the following is a description of the principle of autonomic antagonism as it relates to the autonomic nervous system? If sympathetic impulses tend to stimulate an effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to inhibit it.
Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may: do all of the above
The cerebellum performs all of the following functions except controls cardiac function
All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except: increased heart rate
Which of the following is not true of a receptor potential? It follows the all-or-none law.
Which is not true of the hormone somatostatin It stimulates the secretion of insulin.
The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the: anterior pituitary
When a small amount of one hormone allows a second hormone to have its full effect, the phenomenon is called: permissiveness
Which of the following statements is not true of the pineal gland? Melatonin is stimulated by the presence of sunlight
The somatic senses enable us to detect sensations, including: all of the above: temperature, pain, touch
Dynamic equilibrium depends on the functioning of the crista ampullaris
Which of the following is a function of glucagon? Tends to increase blood glucose concentrations
Sensory impulses ending in what part of the CNS trigger imprecise or “crude” sensation awareness? Thalamus
All of the following are nonsteroid hormones except cortisol
Which of the following is true about pain receptors? Alpha fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain.
The last step in the nonsteroid hormone mechanism of action is: protein kinases activate other enzymes.
The type of cells that secrete ACTH are: corticotrophs
Visceroceptors are located in which of the following? Internal organs
Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the _____ membrane can stimulate nerve impulse condition. tectorial
Which are the two baroreceptors that are located near the heart? aortic baroreceptors and carotid baroreceptors
Starling’s law of the heart states that, within limits, the longer, or more stretched, the heart fibers are at the beginning of the contraction, the stronger the contraction.
The difference between systolic pressure and diastolic pressure is called puse pressure
Factors that affect the strength of myocardial contraction are called inotropic factors.
A glycoprotein hormone that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissues is erythropoietin
The vagus is said to act as a “brake” on the heart. This situation is called vagal inhibition.
The term used to describe the collection of mechanisms that influence the circulation of blood is: hemodynamics
All of the following are components critical to coagulation except none of the above; all of these components are critical to coagulation.
Blood viscosity stems mainly from the red blood cells but also partly from the _____ in blood. protein molecules present
_____, a natural constituent of blood, acts as an antithrombin and prevents clots from forming in vessels. Heparin
Bean-shaped structures located at certain intervals along the lymphatic system are lymph nodes
Lymphocytes that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses are known as natural killer cells.
The lymphatic system serves various functions in the body. The two most important functions of this system are fluid balance and immunity
Activities that result in central movement or flow of lymph are called lymphokinetic activities
The _____ postulates that when an antigen enters the body, it selects the clone whose cells are committed to synthesizing its specific antibody and stimulates these cells to proliferate and to thereby produce more antibodies clonal selection theory
Masses of lymphoid tissue located in a protective ring under the mucous membranes in the mouth and the back of the throat are called tonsils
Which organ has several functions, including defense, hematopoiesis, red blood cell and platelet destruction, and blood reservoir? spleen
The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles is called phagocytosis.
The internal environment of the human body is protected by the _____, which is(are) referred to as the first line of defense. skin
The body’s defense mechanisms can be organized into one of two major categories of immune mechanisms; these are innate and adaptive immunity
The presentation of an antigen by an antigen-presenting cell activates the T cell. The cell then divides repeatedly to form a clone of identical sensitized T cells that form effector T-cells and memory cells
Which of these substances operate(s) immune mechanisms? all of the above
Which of the following is a powerful poison that acts directly on any cell and quickly kills it? lymphotoxin
The movement of phagocytes from blood vessels to an inflammation site is called diapedesis
Antibodies are proteins of the family called immunogobulins
The approximate partial pressure of oxygen at standard atmospheric pressure is about _____ mm Hg. 160
If the tidal volume of a given individual is 500 ml, then the anatomical dead space is approximately _____ ml. 150
The PCO2 in the atmosphere is: less than in the alveolar air
During inspiration, the expansion of the lungs causes: a decrease in alveolar pressure.
If a person were skiing high up in the mountains, she might feel that she is having trouble breathing (getting enough oxygen in her blood). This is because the: lower atmospheric pressure lowers the PO2 and the diffusion gradient between the blood and the atmosphere is less.
Vital capacity is defined as the: maximum volume of air that can be moved into and out of the lungs during forced respiration.
Which of the following is not a regulated process associated with the functioning of the respiratory system? Control of cell metabolism rate
Normal, quiet breathing is known as: eupnea
Standard atmospheric pressure is _____ mm Hg. 760
The term used to describe the volume of air exchanged during normal inspiration and expiration is: tidal volume
Hydrolysis refers to: using water to split larger compounds into smaller ones.
The enterogastric reflex causes: inhibition of gastric peristalsis.
The purpose of peristalsis is to: propel food forward along the GI tract.
Rotavirus can cause what life-threatening condition in infants? Diarrhea
The enzyme pepsin begins the digestion of: protein
An end product of fat digestion is: glycerol
The major site for the absorption of the end products of digestion is the: small intestine
The hormone thought to be a messenger causing release of digestive enzymes from the intestinal mucosa is: vasoactive intestinal peptide
The substances absorbed into the lymph capillaries are: glycerol and fatty acids
Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as: amylase
Which of the processes of mechanical digestion involves the esophagus? Both A & B -Deglutition -Peristalsis
The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is: cholecystokinin
Which phase(s) of gastric secretion is(are) stimulated by the sight, taste, and smell of food? Cephalic phase
Which of the following is not one of the openings that must be blocked when food moves from the pharynx into the esophagus? Oropharynx
The sodium cotransport or coupled transport acts to transport sodium ions and glucose molecules _____ the GI lumen. passively out of
Which of the following ratios of base bicarbonate to carbonic acid will maintain a normal pH? 20:1
Which of the following pairs are almost identical when compared chemically? Plasma and interstitial fluid
When comparing the volume of the various body fluids, the correct order going from highest to lowest in total volume would be: intracellular fluid, interstitial fluid, plasma
Which of the following is not a method used for parenteral administration? By mouth
What is the most abundant cation in extracellular fluid? Sodium
Which of the following is true of total body water? Overweight people have lower water content per kilogram of body weight than slender people
A decrease in blood pH below normal tends to: stimulate increased respirations
When the adrenal cortex is stimulated to increase its secretion of aldosterone, the first thing that happens is a(n): increase in the kidney tubule reabsorption of sodium
Which of the following body fluid compartments has the same volume (percentage of body weight) in the infant, the adult male, and the adult female? Plasma
Which of the following is not one of the seven basic solutions used for parenteral therapy? Liquid protein
For the body to maintain an acid-base balance, which of the following is (are) necessary? All of the above: -Buffering -Respirations -Urine secretion
If the pH of the blood were 7.23, it would be slightly more acidic than normal
Cerebrospinal fluid is part of the _____ fluid. extracellular
Ketone bodies are associated with cellular metabolism of: fats
Which of these is true about the metabolism of glucose? Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid
Which of the following is not a function of the ovary? It produces follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Which of the following cells contain 46 chromosomes? Primary spermatocytes
Which statement is the best explanation of “immune infertility”? Antigen-antibody reaction in males causes destruction of sperm, resulting in infertility
What reproductive duct is divided into the head, body, and tail? Epididymis
Which of the following is not a function of the Sertoli cells? They produce testosterone
The hormone that causes the follicle to rupture and the egg to be expelled is: luteinizing hormone (LH)
The phase of the menstrual cycle that occurs between the expulsion of the ovum from the ovary and the onset of menses is the _____ phase luteal
The gland that secretes an alkaline substance that constitutes about 30% of the seminal fluid is the: prostate gland
Which of the following is not true of FSH? It stimulates the secretion of testosterone
The opening of the urethra at the tip of the glans is called the: external urinary meatus
Created by: dwnsfaith
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