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Physiology Final
Physiology Before Final Study Stack Week 7 - 13
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Neurons are the only living cells that maintain a difference in the concentration of ions across their membranes. | False |
| The brief period during which a local area of an axon's membrane resists re-stimulation is called the __________ period. | refractory |
| The active transport mechanism in the plasma membrane that transports sodium and potassium ions in opposite directions and at different rates is the | sodium-potassium pump. |
| The difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a membrane is called the membrane potential. | True |
| The magnitude of the action potential peaks when the sodium channels close. | True |
| If the threshold potential is surpassed, the full peak of the action potential is always reached. | True |
| There are two types of synapses—the electrical synapse and the __________ synapse. | chemical |
| The tiny bulge at the end of a terminal branch of a presynaptic neuron’s axon is called a(n) | synaptic knob. |
| A neurologist is using a voltmeter to measure potential. The membrane potential of a neuron was recorded at +30 mV. This is what type of membrane potential? | Action |
| If the magnitude of the local depolarization surpasses a limit called the _____, voltage-gated Na+ channels are stimulated to open. | threshold potential |
| The action potential seems to “leap” from node to node along a myelinated fiber. This type of impulse regeneration is called __________ conduction. | saltatory |
| When a neuron is resting, the inner surface of its plasma membrane is slightly positive compared with its outer surface. | False |
| In a myelinated fiber, the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next. | True |
| The membrane potential maintained by a nonconducting neuron’s plasma membrane is called the _____ membrane potential. | resting |
| The mechanisms that produce and maintain the resting membrane potential do so by producing a | slight excess of positive ions on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. |
| In a myelinated neuron, the impulse can travel under the myelin between nodes of Ranvier. | True |
| A term commonly used as a synonym for action potential is | nerve impulse. |
| The sodium-potassium pump actively pumps three potassium ions out of the neuron and two sodium ions into the neuron. | False |
| What mechanism quickly terminates the action of a neurotransmitter once it binds to its postsynaptic receptor? | Neurotransmitter molecules are metabolized into inactive compounds. Neurotransmitter molecules are transported into nearby glial cells. Neurotransmitter molecules are transported back into synaptic knobs. All of these are correct. |
| Movement of the membrane potential away from zero (below the usual RMP) is called | hyperpolarization. |
| When neurotransmitters from synaptic knobs stimulate a postsynaptic neuron in rapid succession, their effect can add up over a brief period to produce an action potential. This is called | temporal summation. |
| The difference between sodium and potassium in the generation of action potential is that: | sodium causes depolarization of the cell membrane, and potassium causes repolarization of the cell membrane. |
| The speed of a nerve impulse depends on the neuron’s resting potential. | False |
| Which membrane receptor acts to directly change ion permeability when stimulated? | Gated-channel receptor |
| An ion channel that opens in response to a sensory stimulus is a(n) | stimulus-gated channel. |
| In depolarization the membrane potential moves toward zero, whereas in hyperpolarization the membrane potential moves away from zero. | True |
| Whether an impulse is continued through the neuron depends on the magnitude of the voltage in the axon hillock. | True |
| Which chemicals allow neurons to communicate with one another? | neurotransmitters |
| A membrane that exhibits a membrane potential is said to be | polarized. |
| A synapse can occur only between an axon and: | another axon. a cell body. a dendrite. any of the above. |
| Serotonin is an example of a(n): | amine neurotransmitter. |
| When an impulse reaches a synapse: | chemical transmitters are released. |
| Neurotransmitters are released in a synapse and bind to: | receptors on the postsynaptic neuron. |
| Within the nervous system, coding for the strength of a stimulus is accomplished through: | the frequency of nerve impulses. |
| Which of the following antidepressants acts by blocking the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO)? | Phenelzine |
| During a relative refractory period: | the action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus. |
| A synapse consists of: | a synaptic knob. a synaptic cleft. the plasma membrane of a postsynaptic neuron. all of the above. |
| Which of the following is not used by the body as a neurotransmitter? | Nitric oxide Acetylcholine Carbon monoxide All of the above are used by the body as neurotransmitters. |
| Stimulus-gated channels open in response to: | sensory stimuli. |
| The neurotransmitter(s) that inhibit(s) the conduction of pain impulses is(are): | enkephalins. |
| No impulse can be sent through a neuron: | during the absolute refractory period. |
| Which of the following statements about amino acid neurotransmitters is incorrect? | They are all inhibitory neurotransmitters. |
| A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a _____ potential. | local |
| Compared with the outside of the neuron, the inside has a(n) ____ charge | negative |
| The first event to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron is: | some of the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open |
| When current leaps across an insulating myelin sheath from node to node, the type of impulse conduction is called: | saltatory conduction. |
| Which neuron could transmit a nerve impulse the fastest? | A large-diameter neuron with myelin |
| Which is true of an action potential? | The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is positively charged. |
| Which of the following is not one of the main chemical classes of neurotransmitters? | Triglycerides |
| The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct an impulse that is how much faster than the slowest fibers in the body? | Almost 300 times faster |
| Which is true of a neuron with a resting potential? | The sodium pump has moved Na+ to the outside of the plasma membrane. |
| Dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are classified as: | catecholamines. |
| The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct impulses up to approximately _____ meters per second. | 130 |
| Which of the following is true of spatial summation? | Neurotransmitters released simultaneously from several presynaptic knobs converge on one postsynaptic neuron. |
| Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to: | initiate an action potential. |
| A synaptic knob would be located on a(n): | axon. |
| Severe depression can be caused by a deficit in certain brain synapses of: | amines |
| For a neurotransmitter to produce an inhibitory postsynaptic potential, which of the following channels must open? | Potassium and/or chloride channels |
| The only ion(s) that can diffuse across a neuron’s membrane when the neuron is at rest is (are): | potassium |
| Acetylcholine is in the same class of neurotransmitters as: | serotonin. histamine. dopamine. none of the above. |
| The reticular activating system maintains | consciousness. |
| Which region of the brain plays a part in the mechanism responsible for emotions by associating sensory impulses with feelings of pleasantness and unpleasantness? | thalamus |
| Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell? | olfactory |
| The _____ consists of several structures that lie beneath the thalamus and form the floor of the third ventricle and the lower part of its lateral walls. | hypothalamus |
| Both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are tonically active, which means they | continually conduct impulses to autonomic effectors. |
| A reflex consists of either a muscle contraction or a | glandular secretion. |
| Which of the following is NOT correct? | Sympathetic preganglionic axons pass along the dorsal root of certain spinal nerves. |
| The most numerous cerebral tracts are the | association tracts. |
| The action of acetylcholine is quickly terminated by its being hydrolyzed by the enzyme | acetylcholinesterase. |
| Which of the following is NOT an example of sympathetic stimulation? | constriction of the bronchioles |
| The cortex is capable of storing and retrieving information from both short-term and long-term | memory |
| The two main types of adrenergic receptors are | alpha and beta. |
| The set of coordinated commands that control the programmed muscle activity mediated by extrapyramidal pathways is called the | motor program. |
| The limbic system integrates | emotion. |
| Another name for the parasympathetic nervous system is the nervous system. | craniosacral |
| “Fight or flight” physiological changes include all of the following EXCEPT | constriction of respiratory airways. |
| The somatic motor system includes all the _____ motor pathways _____ the CNS. | voluntary; outside |
| A _____ is a skeletal muscle or group of muscles that receives motor axons from a given spinal nerve. | myotome |
| Tongue movement is controlled by which cranial nerve? | hypoglossal |
| The _____ nerve transmits impulses that result in sensations of equilibrium. | vestibular |
| The groove between the frontal and parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex is the | central sulcus. |
| The effect of sympathetic stimulation on the urinary bladder is | relaxation |
| Acetylcholine binds to _____ receptors. | cholinergic |
| The _____ is an extension of the great toe, with or without fanning of the other toes, in response to stimulation of the outer margin of the sole of the foot. | Babinski sign |
| Many cerebral functions have typical locations. This fact is known as | cerebral localization. |
| Axon terminals of autonomic neurons release either of two neurotransmitters, | norepinephrine and acetylcholine. |
| The second largest part of the brain, located just below the posterior portion of the cerebrum, is the | cerebellum. |
| If the center of a reflex arc is the brain, the response it mediates is called a | cranial reflex. |
| Mixed cranial nerves contain axons of | sensory and motor neurons. |
| Each skin surface area supplied by sensory fibers of a given spinal nerve is a | dermatome. |
| Normal infants will show the Babinski reflex up to the age of _____ years. | 1.5-2 |
| Most effectors of the autonomic nervous system are dually innervated by sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons. | True |
| The part of the brain that can directly influence or inhibit the release of hormones from the pituitary is the: | hypothalamus. |
| Acetylcholine can stimulate _____ receptors. | nicotinic |
| Which of the following is not associated with the oculomotor nerve? | Closing and opening of the eye (blink reflex) |
| Which of the following is a description of the principle of autonomic antagonism as it relates to the autonomic nervous system? | If sympathetic impulses tend to stimulate an effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to inhibit it. |
| Nerve impulses over the _____ nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate. | vagus |
| If the ventral nerve root of a spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose _____ related to that pathway. | willed movement |
| Nerves that innervate the floor of the pelvic cavity and some of the surrounding areas are found in the _____ plexus. | coccygeal |
| The knee jerk can be classified as a segmental reflex because: | impulses that mediate it enter and leave the same segment of the cord. |
| Impulses from the _____ play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum. | thalamus |
| Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through the ventricles, into the central canal and _____, and is absorbed back into the blood. | subarachnoid space |
| How does a dually innervated autonomic effector differ from a singly innervated autonomic effector? | A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division. |
| The vomiting reflex is mediated by the: | medulla. |
| All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except: | increased heart rate. |
| Impulses sent over which of the following tracts could result in voluntary movement, especially of the hands, fingers, feet, and toes of the opposite side? | Lateral corticospinal |
| Which is the only plexus that contains fibers from the thoracic region of the spinal cord? | Brachial |
| Norepinephrine is liberated at: | most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings. |
| Which of the following is not an example of sympathetic stimulation? | Constriction of the bronchioles |
| Which is(are) the neurotransmitter(s) in a somatic motor pathway? | Acetylcholine |
| The cerebellum acts with the _____ to produce skilled movement. | cerebrum |
| Afferent nerves or fibers are found only in the _____ nervous system. | sensory autonomic Both A and B are correct. |
| The spinal tract that is located in the side of the cord, originates in the brain, and terminates in the spinal cord is the _____ tract. | lateral corticospinal |
| Tic douloureux is a painful neuralgia of the _____ nerve. | trigeminal |
| A child was frightened by a large dog. The pupils of the child’s eyes became dilated, and the heart and respiratory rates increased. These symptoms were caused by stimulation of: | the sympathetic nervous system. |
| The part of the brain that assists in the maintenance of balance is the: | cerebellum. |
| The preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions are cholinergic. | True |
| Propranolol is an example of a: | beta blocker. drug used to treat irregular heartbeats. drug used to treat hypertension. All of the above are correct. |
| Damage to the _____ nerve could make the diaphragm unable to function. | phrenic |
| Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by filtration of blood in the: | choroid plexuses. |
| Which of the following is not true? | One bundle of nerve fibers (nerve roots) projects from each side of the spinal cord. |
| Which of the following is not true of the knee jerk reflex? | It is a flexor reflex. |
| Which of the following is a correct statement? | There are 5 lumbar nerve pairs. |
| All of the following cranial nerves are involved in proprioception except the: | vagus. |
| Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may: | do all of the above. |
| The cerebellum performs all of the following functions except: | controls cardiac function. |
| Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus? | Regulation of motor activity |
| Somatic motor and autonomic pathways share all of the following characteristics except: | number of neurons between central nervous system (CNS) and effector. |
| Which of the following statements is not true? | The major function of the parasympathetic division is to serve as an “emergency” system. |
| Audition is a function of the _____ lobe | temporal |
| Which is not true of the dorsal nerve root? | It is also called the posterior root. It includes the spinal ganglion. It includes sensory fibers. All of the above are true. |
| If the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose _____ related to that pathway. | sensory perception |
| A mixed nerve is one that: | carries both sensory and motor fibers. |
| The parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions always act with a cooperative influence, and through summation of the impulses, the effect can be increased. | False |
| Sympathetic responses generally have widespread effects on the body because: | preganglionic fibers synapse with several postsynaptic fibers. |
| A small molecule binds to a G protein, preventing its activation. What direct effect will this have on signaling that involves cAMP? | Adenylyl cyclase will not be activated. |
| Which hormone is released by the pituitary to stimulate the thyroid gland? | thyrotropin |
| Which hormone produced by the adrenal glands is responsible for mobilization of energy stores? | Cortisol |
| What should you avoid doing in the middle of your sleep cycle that would lower melatonin? | turning on the lights |
| What goes wrong in the function of insulin in type 2 diabetes? | the cells don't respond to insulin like they should |
| Which ear structures are responsible for the amplification and transfer of sound from the external ear to the inner ear? | The ossicles |
| Based on the animation, where do frequencies—from high to low pitches—cause activity in the hair cells within the cochlear duct? | between the base and the apex of the cochlea |
| Specialized cells in the retina called ganglion cells convert the light rays into ________________. | electrical signals |
| If movement of a visual stimulus is leftward in one eye and rightward in the opposite eye, the brain interprets this as movement toward (or away) from the face along the midline. Which eye is visualizing leftward stimulus? | right eye |
| When the right cornea senses a tactile stimulus, what happens to the left eye? | blinks |
| The last step in the nonsteroid hormone mechanism of action is: | protein kinases activate other enzymes. |
| The somatic senses enable us to detect sensations, including: | touch. temperature. pain. all of the above. |
| The immediate effect of a steroid hormone on a cell is the: | transcription of RNA. |
| Clearness or sharpness of visual perception is known as: | visual acuity |
| Visceroceptors are located in which of the following? | Internal organs |
| The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are the: | Ruffini corpuscles. |
| All of the following are true statements except: | aspirin produces some of its effects by increasing PGE synthesis. |
| The sequence of auditory ossicles in the middle ear starting at the tympanic membrane and ending at the oval window is: | malleus, incus, and stapes. |
| Which of the following is not true of a receptor potential? | It follows the all-or-none law. |
| Sensory impulses ending in what part of the CNS trigger imprecise or “crude” sensation awareness? | Thalamus |
| When a small amount of one hormone allows a second hormone to have its full effect, the phenomenon is called: | permissiveness |
| When you are looking at a large green field, which cones would be sending the green wavelength to the brain? | M |
| Which of the following is true about pain receptors? | Alpha fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain. |
| If you slammed your finger in a car door, it would stimulate _____ pain fibers. | acute |
| All of the following are nonsteroid hormones except: | cortisol. |
| The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the: | anterior pituitary |
| Which of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? | Chemical messenger travels a short distance. |
| In comparison with the nervous system, the regulatory effects of the endocrine system are: | slow to appear but long-lasting. |
| Accommodation for near vision necessitates | an increase in the curvature of the lens. constriction of the pupils. convergence of the two eyes. all of the above. |
| Which of the following is a function of glucagon? | Tends to increase blood glucose concentrations |
| Which is not true of the hormone somatostatin? | It stimulates the secretion of insulin. |
| The type of cells that secrete ACTH are: | corticotrophs. |
| Dynamic equilibrium depends on the functioning of the | crista ampullaris. |
| The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is: | progesterone. |
| One of the few hormones that functions on a positive-feedback loop is: | oxytocin. |
| The olfactory tract carries impulses associated with: | smell. |
| The clear and potassium-rich fluid that fills the labyrinth is | endolymph. |
| Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the _____ membrane can stimulate nerve impulse condition. | tectorial |
| Which of the following statements is not true of the pineal gland? | Melatonin is stimulated by the presence of sunlight. |
| The two-point discrimination test can be used to measure: | the sensitivity of the skin in various parts of the body. |
| Fluid shift is when... | thenbody's fluids move between the fluid compartments. |
| The second step of hemostasis occurs when additional coagulation factors beyond factor VII respond in a cascade to form fibrin strands. Fibrin stands strengthen what? | platelet plug |
| Pulmonary circulation is the portion of the circulatory system which carries ____________ blood away from the right ventricle, to the lungs, and returns ____________blood to the left atrium and ventricle of the heart. | deoxygenated; oxygenated |
| In an electrocardiogram the T wave represents | repolrization of the ventricles. |
| What causes the ventricles to contract? | The inpulse to the Perkinje Fiber |
| Veins from our digestive organs send blood to the Hepatic Portal Vein in order for | nutrients and toxins can be extracted from digested contents.. |
| The foramen ovale allows blood to move from the right atrium to the left atrium | bypassing pulmonary circulation. |
| The greatest pressure drop is in the ____________ which has muscle fibers that expand and contract change diameters. | arterioles |
| The amount of water that moves into the blood from the interstitial fluid depends on the concentration of | plasma protein. |
| The process of red cells are production in the marrow of certain bones is referred to as | Erythropoiesis |
| Inhibition of sympathetic vasoconstrictor impulses is considered a major mechanism of | vasodilation |
| Which of the following is(are) involved in determining a person’s total blood volume? | Age Body type Sex All of the above |
| Blood viscosity stems mainly from the red blood cells but also partly from the _____ in blood. | protein molecules present |
| The term blood type refers to the type of blood cell | antigen. |
| Factors that affect the strength of myocardial contraction are called | inotropic factors. |
| Starling’s law of the heart states that, within limits, the longer, or more stretched, the heart fibers are at the beginning of the contraction, the | stronger the contraction. |
| The term used to describe the collection of mechanisms that influence the circulation of blood is: | hemodynamics. |
| What is the functional significance of large areas of cardiac muscle being electrically coupled to form a single functional syncytium? | Because they form a syncytium, muscle cells can pass an action potential along a large area of the heart wall, stimulating contraction in each muscle fiber of the syncytium. |
| Blood volume per kilogram of body weight varies inversely with: | body fat |
| The mechanisms of which three hormones work together to regulate blood volume? | aldosterone, ANH, and ADH |
| The difference between systolic pressure and diastolic pressure is called | pulse pressure. |
| The localized pressure gradient needed to maintain blood flow in a tissue is called | perfusion pressure. |
| Which of the following is not true of ventricles? | They are the pumping chambers of the heart. The myocardium of the ventricles is thicker than that of the atria. The myocardium of the left ventricle is thicker than that of the right ventricle. All of the above are true of the ventricles. |
| The physiological mechanism that dissolves clots is known as | fibrinolysis. |
| Blood pressure is measured with the aid of an apparatus known as a(n) | sphygmomanometer. |
| A glycoprotein hormone that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissues is | erythropoietin. |
| Which two factors promote the return of venous blood to the heart? | blood-pumping action of respirations and skeletal muscle contractions |
| Cardiac output is determined by | stroke volume and heart rate. |
| The heart begins beating in the fetus at about what stage of development? | After about 4 weeks |
| Which are the two baroreceptors that are located near the heart? | aortic baroreceptors and carotid baroreceptors |
| Neutrophils are highly mobile and phagocytic. They migrate out of blood vessels and into tissue spaces. This process is called | diapedesis. |
| _____, a natural constituent of blood, acts as an antithrombin and prevents clots from forming in vessels. | Heparin |
| A hematocrit of 56% would be an indication of: | polycythemia. |
| _____ is used to determine the volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood. | Hematocrit |
| A decrease in the amount of white blood cells is called | leukopenia. |
| All of the following are true statements except: | both atria receive their blood supply from branches of the right and left coronary arteries. |
| All of the following are components critical to coagulation except | none of the above; all of these components are critical to coagulation. |
| Erythrocytes begin their maturation sequence in red bone marrow from nucleated cells known as: | hematopoietic stem cells. |
| In the extrinsic pathway of stage 1 of the clotting mechanism, chemicals released from damaged tissues trigger the cascade of events that ultimately result in the formation of | prothrombin activator. |
| The vagus is said to act as a “brake” on the heart. This situation is called | vagal inhibition. |
| Lymph is filtered by the | lymph nodes |
| The lymphatic organs produce | lymphocytes |
| The purpose of the lymphatic system is to | fight against infection |
| Fluid that is clear, watery and contains protein molecules, salts, and other substances is called | intercellular fluid |
| The lymphatic system is made up of lymphatic vessels where lymph flows in only one direction towards | the heart |
| Antigen presenting macrophage interact with | a T-helper cell that recognizes the same antigen |
| The T cell is considered | the communicator |
| Millions of B cells release millions of | antibodies |
| Which protein interferes with the ability of viruses to cause disease? | interferon |
| Antibodies are proteins of the family called | immunoglobulins. |
| Lymphatics in the villi of the small intestines are called | lacteals. |
| Which antibody is synthesized by immature B cells and then inserted into their plasma membranes? | immunoglobulin M |
| The _____ postulates that when an antigen enters the body, it selects the clone whose cells are committed to synthesizing its specific antibody and stimulates these cells to proliferate and to thereby produce more antibodies. | clonal selection theory |
| Pyrogen molecules trigger the fever response by promoting the production of | prostaglandins. |
| The internal environment of the human body is protected by the _____, which is(are) referred to as the first line of defense. | skin |
| Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an | antigen’s epitopes fit into and bind to an antigen molecule’s antigen-binding site. |
| Masses of lymphoid tissue located in a protective ring under the mucous membranes in the mouth and the back of the throat are called | tonsils |
| Lymphocytes that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses are known as | natural killer cells. |
| Chemotaxis is the process by which a cell navigates toward the source of the chemotactic factor by way of | detecting and then moving toward higher concentrations of the factor. |
| Which of the following is a powerful poison that acts directly on any cell and quickly kills it? | lymphotoxin |
| Bean-shaped structures located at certain intervals along the lymphatic system are | lymph nodes. |
| Each cortical nodule is composed of packed lymphocytes that surround a less dense area called a | germinal center. |
| The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles is called | phagocytosis. |
| The functions of the lymph nodes are | defense and hematopoiesis. |
| Which of these substances operate(s) immune mechanisms? | sebum mucus enzymes hydrochloric acid in gastric mucosa all of the above |
| Activities that result in central movement or flow of lymph are called | lymphokinetic activities. |
| During their residence in the thymus, pre-T cells develop into _____, cells that proliferate as rapidly as any in the body. | thymocytes |
| Because T cells attack pathogens more directly, T-cell immune mechanisms are classified as _____ immunity. | cell-mediated |
| Adaptive immunity, part of the body’s third line of defense, is orchestrated by two different classes of a type of white blood cell called the | lymphocyte |
| The lymphatic system serves various functions in the body. The two most important functions of this system are | fluid balance and immunity. |
| _____ refers to a phenomenon in which the genetic characteristics common to a particular kind of organism provide defense against certain pathogens. | Species resistance |
| The body’s defense mechanisms can be organized into one of two major categories of immune mechanisms; these are | innate and adaptive immunity. |
| The primary organ of the lymphatic system is the | thymus. |
| The movement of phagocytes from blood vessels to an inflammation site is called | diapedesis. |
| Which organ has several functions, including defense, hematopoiesis, red blood cell and platelet destruction, and blood reservoir? | spleen |
| The presentation of an antigen by an antigen-presenting cell activates the T cell. The cell then divides repeatedly to form a clone of identical sensitized T cells that form | effector T cells and memory cells. |
| Molecules formed by the reactions of the complement cascade assemble themselves on the enemy cell’s surface, which results in | cytolysis. |
| What is the function of the spleen? | tissue repair hematopoiesis red blood cell and platelet destruction blood reservoir all of the above |
| The sensors that provide feedback information to the medullary rhythmicity area are the | central chemoreceptors and peripheral chemoreceptors. |
| The ability of the lungs and thorax to stretch is referred to as | compliance. |
| The compound formed when carbon dioxide combines with hemoglobin is | carbaminohemoglobin. |
| A right shift of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve due to increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide is also known as | the Bohr effect. |
| The basic rhythm of the respiratory cycle of inspiration and expiration seems to be generated by the | medullary rhythmicity area. |
| The forced expiratory volume test can determine the presence of respiratory obstruction by measuring the | volume of air expired per second during forced expiration. |
| The apparatus used to measure the volume of air exchanged in breathing is called a(n) | spirometer. |
| An obstructive lung disorder that is characterized by recurring spasms of the smooth muscles in the wall of the bronchial air passages is | asthma. |
| In what form does oxygen travel in the blood? | dissolved oxygen in the plasma associated with hemoglobin both a and b |
| Pressure gradients are established by changes in the | thoracic cavity. |
| The amount of oxygen that diffuses into blood each minute depends on which factor? | xygen pressure gradient between alveolar air and incoming pulmonary blood total functional surface area of the respiratory membrane respiratory minute volume alveolar ventilation all of the above |
| The mechanism that produces pulmonary ventilation is one that establishes a gas pressure gradient between the | atmosphere and the alveolar air. |
| Which term refers to the volume of inspired air that actually reaches, or “ventilates,” the alveoli? | alveolar ventilation |
| The volume of air exhaled normally after a typical inspiration is called _____ volume. | tidal |
| The exact amount of oxygen in blood depends mainly on the amount of | hemoglobin. |
| Which structural feature facilitates oxygen diffusion from the alveolar air into the blood in lung capillaries? | All of these are correct. |
| Oxygen enters blood from alveolar air because the partial pressure of alveolar air is | greater than the partial pressure of incoming blood. |
| Spirometry is used to measure all of the following EXCEPT: | Total lung capacity |
| _____ law states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure. | Boyle’s |
| According to the law of partial pressures, the partial pressure of gas in a mixture of gases is | directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and to the total pressure of the mixture. |
| The exit of the bicarbonate ion from the red blood cell is balanced by the inward transport of another negative ion, chloride. This countertransport of negative ions is often called the _____ shift. | chloride |
| An increase in carbon dioxide in the blood causes | a drop in pH in the blood. |
| The _____ represents the largest volume of air an individual can move in and out of the lungs. | vital capacity |
| What variations exist in the body to temporarily store or carry oxygen? | neuroglobin myoglobin fetal hemoglobin all of the above |
| Hyperpnea means a(n) | increase in breathing. |
| More than two-thirds of the carbon dioxide carried by blood is carried in the form of | bicarbonate ions. |
| When carbon dioxide dissolves in water, some of the carbon dioxide molecules associate with water to form | carbonic acid. |
| During inspiration, as the size of the thorax increases, the | intrapleural and alveolar pressures decrease. |
| Which oxygen-binding protein helps move oxygen out of the blood and into muscle cells? | myoglobin |
| During the respiratory cycle, intrapleural pressure is always less than alveolar pressure. This difference is called | transpulmonary pressure. |
| About 98.5% of the oxygen carried by systemic arterial blood is attached to: | hemoglobin. |
| Boyle’s law states that the volume of a gas varies _____ with pressure at a _____ temperature. | inversely; constant |
| The major form by which carbon dioxide is transported in the circulatory system is: | as bicarbonate ions. |
| If the tidal volume of a given individual is 500 ml, then the anatomical dead space is approximately _____ ml. | 150 |
| Which type of breathing is characterized by repeated sequences of deep gasps and apnea, and is usually seen in people with increased intracranial pressure? | Biot’s breathing |
| Which of the following would have the greatest accelerating effect on the dissociation of oxygen from hemoglobin? | Decreased PO2 and increased PCO2 |
| Carbon dioxide is carried in three forms in the blood. Ranking them from greatest to least amount carried, the sequence would be: | bicarbonate ion, carbaminohemoglobin, and dissolved in plasma. |
| Which of the following is not a means of transporting oxygen in the blood? | Combined with the bicarbonate ion (HCO3–) |
| Excessive fluid in the pleural cavity would be most likely to cause: | decreased vital capacity. |
| One hundred milliliters of arterial blood contains approximately what volume percent of oxygen? | 20% |
| If a person were skiing high up in the mountains, she might feel that she is having trouble breathing (getting enough oxygen in her blood). This is because the: | lower atmospheric pressure lowers the PO2 and the diffusion gradient between the blood and the atmosphere is less. |
| The symbol HbNCOOH– is used for: | carbaminohemoglobin. |
| The PCO2 in alveolar air is _____ blood. | less than in the systemic venous equal to the systemic arterial Both A and C are correct. |
| The PCO2 in the atmosphere is: | less than in the alveolar air. |
| The approximate partial pressure of oxygen at standard atmospheric pressure is about _____ mm Hg. | 160 |
| When the pressure in the lung is greater than atmospheric pressure: | expiration occurs. |
| Standard atmospheric pressure is _____ mm Hg. | 760 |
| During inspiration, the expansion of the lungs causes: | a decrease in alveolar pressure |
| Which muscles are used for forced expiration? | Abdominal muscles and internal intercostals |
| A drop in the body’s production of carbonic anhydrase would hinder the formation of: | carbonic acid. |
| The vital capacity is equal to the sum of the: | inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume. |
| Which of the following is not a regulated process associated with the functioning of the respiratory system? | Control of cell metabolism rate |
| Normal, quiet breathing is known as: | eupnea. |
| A type of breathing characterized by gradually increasing tidal volume for several breaths followed by several breaths with gradually decreasing tidal volume is: | Cheyne-Stokes respiration. |
| Vital capacity is defined as the: | maximum volume of air that can be moved into and out of the lungs during forced respiration. |
| By the time the blood leaves the lung capillaries to return to the heart, what percentage of the blood’s hemoglobin has united with oxygen? | 97% |
| Which of the following helps determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute? | All of the above help determine the amount of oxygen that diffuses into the blood each minute. |
| The term used to describe the volume of air exchanged during normal inspiration and expiration is: | tidal volume. |
| Dalton law states that the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture of gases is _____ to the total pressure of the mixture. | directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and |
| Which of the following constitutes total lung volume? | Residual volume and vital capacity |
| The ejection of bile from the gallbladder is controlled by which hormones? | CCK and secretin |
| _____ is the passage of substances through the intestinal mucosa into the blood or lymph. | Absorption |
| The chemical process in which a compound unites with water and then splits into simpler compounds is called | hydrolysis. |
| Peristalsis is regulated in part by the intrinsic stretch reflexes. It is also thought to be stimulated by the hormone | cholecystokinin (CCK) |
| The process of deglutition includes all of the following except the _____ stage. | laryngeal |
| The final step in lipid transport by the intestines is the formation of | chylomicrons. |
| Saliva contains the enzyme | amylase. |
| Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by hydrochloric acid, which is produced by the _____ of the gastric glands. | parietal cells |
| Stimulation of gastric juice secretion occurs in all of the following phases except the _____ phase. | digestive |
| Because fats are insoluble in water, they must be | emulsified. |
| CCK is an intestinal hormone that | all of the above |
| The act of expelling feces is called | defecation. |
| The wave-like ripple of the muscle layer of the GI tract is called | peristalsis. |
| Chemical digestion requires the secretion of _____ into the lumen of the GI tract. | digestive enzymes and bile |
| During which stage of swallowing is there a risk of food entering respiratory pathways? | Oropharyngeal |
| What percentage of this blood flow comes from the hepatic portal system? | 80% |
| Fats and other nutrients in the duodenum stimulate the intestinal mucosa to release a hormone called | gastric inhibitory peptide. |
| The process of swallowing is known as: | deglutition |
| The intestinal hormone cholecystokinin: | does all of the above. |
| The major site for the absorption of the end products of digestion is the: | small intestine. |
| Glucose moves from the GI tract into the circulatory system by the process of: | cotransport. |
| Rotavirus can cause what life-threatening condition in infants? | Diarrhea |
| Which of the following is not one of the openings that must be blocked when food moves from the pharynx into the esophagus? | Oropharynx |
| Which of the following is a disaccharide? | Sucrose |
| When classified according to the kind of chemical reactions catalyzed, digestive enzymes are referred to as _____ enzymes. | hydrolyzing |
| Hydrolysis refers to: | using water to split larger compounds into smaller ones. |
| Which of the processes of mechanical digestion involves the esophagus? | Deglutition Peristalsis Both A and B |
| The enzyme pepsin begins the digestion of: | protein. |
| Which phase(s) of gastric secretion is(are) stimulated by the sight, taste, and smell of food? | Cephalic phase |
| Which step of deglutition is under voluntary control? | Oral stage |
| The hormone that inhibits gastric muscle, slowing passage of food into the duodenum, is called: | gastric inhibitory peptide. |
| Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as: | amylase. |
| Cellulose is a residue of digestion that comes from: | carbohydrates. |
| Bicarbonates are useful in the GI tract to: | neutralize hydrochloric acid |
| The substances absorbed into the lymph capillaries are: | glycerol and fatty acids. |
| The purpose of peristalsis is to: | propel food forward along the GI tract. |
| The hormone that stimulates the release of bicarbonate substance from the pancreas is: | secretin. |
| Which blood vessel carries absorbed food from the GI tract to the liver? | Portal vein |
| The sodium cotransport or coupled transport acts to transport sodium ions and glucose molecules _____ the GI lumen. | passively out of |
| The hormone thought to be a messenger causing release of digestive enzymes from the intestinal mucosa is: | vasoactive intestinal peptide. |
| The final product of carbohydrate digestion is a: | monosaccharide. |
| The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is: | cholecystokinin. |
| Which of these is not an example of mechanical digestion? | Moistening the food |
| Which of the following is not true of enzymes? | They change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction. |
| The process of fat emulsification consists of: | breaking fats into small droplets. |
| An end product of fat digestion is: | glycerol. |
| The enterogastric reflex causes: | inhibition of gastric peristalsis |
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