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Physiology Midterm
Physiology Midterm StudyStack Week 1 - 6
Question | Answer |
---|---|
_______ are the most complex pathogenic organisms | Tapeworms |
Secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative feedback control loop which would inhibit | uterine contractions |
Contractions of the uterus is a | positive feedback |
_______ is a state of relative constancy | Homeostasis |
Epidemiology is the study of | occurrence, distribution, transmission of disease in human populations |
Pathogenesis | the course of disease development |
The body's thermostat is located in the | hypothalamus |
Set point | normal reading or range of normal |
Autoimmunity | self immunity |
Positive feedback control system | accelerate a change |
Shivering to raise body temperature | negative feedback and maintain homeostasis |
_______, ________, and __________ add risk for developing a given disease | Environment, stress and lifestyle |
Negative feedback control loop | oppose a change |
Intercellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelop are viruses | True |
_____ is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease | Prion |
Intrinsic control | Auto regulation |
The reproductive system is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis | True |
Transmitter is a basic component in a feedback control loop | False |
Basic components of every feedback control loop are | sensor mechanism, integrating center, effector, and feedback |
Feed-forward | the concept that information my flow ahead to another process to trigger a change in anticipation of an event that will follow |
Circadian cycles | the body naturally changes some set points to different values at different times of day |
Feedback control loop | to accomplish self regulation, a high complex, and integrated communication control system or network is required |
Afferent | signal traveling toward a particular center or point of reference |
Intercellular regulation | Operates controls at the cell level, often using genes and enzymes to regulate cell funcation |
Complex processes of the body are coordinated at many levels these include | Intercellular, intrinsic, and extrinsic |
Set point | a normal reading or range |
Homeostatic control mechanism | process of maintaining or restoring homeostasis |
Negative feedback control systems oppose changes that are opposite in direction to the initial disturbance, they are | slowed or maintained in the homeostatic range |
Homeostasis | relatively constant state maintained by the body |
Impact of effector activity on sensors may be positive or negative. Therefore, homeostatic control mechanisms are categorized as | organs that are directly influenced by physiological variables or mechanisms |
Basic component of every feedback control loop | sensor mechanism, integrating center, effector, and feedback |
Local control or ________, intrinsic mechanisms often make use of chemical signals | Autoregulation |
Events that lead to an immune response to an infection or the formation of a blood clot are examples of | positive feedback |
Extrinsic control usually involves ________ and ___________ mode of regulation | nervous and endocrine |
Effectors can be described as | organs that directly influence controlled physiological variables |
Epidemiology is the study of _____, _______, or _______ of diseases in human populations | occurrence, distribution, or transmission |
Negative feedback mechanisms | minimize changes in blood glucose levels, maintain homeostasis and are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temp is higher than body temp |
Contractions of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of | positive feedback |
In base paring DNA molecules ______ is bound to _______ | Adenine - Thymine or Guanine - Cytosine |
RNA and DNA have the same pyrimidine bases but different purine bases | False |
A triglyceride is composed of a glycerol molecule and three of the same type of fatty acid | False |
ATP | is a form of energy that cells generally use |
When two amino acids are joined, a peptide bond is formed and an H+ ion is released | False |
The lipid that is often referred to as a tissue hormone is | prostaglandin |
What determines how a protein performs | shape |
Which term means "water loving" and applies to the phospholipid head | hydrophilic |
The carbon containing molecules formed by living things are often called | organic molecules |
Which of the following is a polymer of glucose that is sometimes referred to as animal starch | glycogen |
A saturated fatty acid is one in which | all available bonds of its hydrocarbon chain are filled |
A very large molecule composed of subunits of sugar, a nitrogen base, and a phosphate bond is a | nucleic acid |
Protein are polymers of | amino acids |
What term is often used to describe certain arrangements of atoms attached to the carbon core of many organic molecules | Functional group |
The most important monosaccharide is | glucose |
Any large molecule made up of many identical small molecules is called a | polymer |
Chaperone proteins assist in the proper folding of other proteins so they can have the correct functional shape | True |
All proteins have which four elements | Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen |
DNA | is a double helix strand of nucleotides |
If one side of DNA is CTAGGCTG, the other would be | GATCCGAC |
Humans can synthesize 13 or 21 amino acids, the remaining 8 which must be included in the diet, are called | essential amino acids |
The amino group in an amino acid is | NH3+ |
The type of lipoprotein associated with "bad" cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic changes in the blood vessels is | LDL |
Prostaglandins and steroids share characteristics | both have a ring structure in their molecule |
Which lipid acts as a "tissue hormone" | Prostaglandin |
The term glycoprotein, a combo of two words, tells you that the compound is | made of carbohydrate and protein with protein being the dominant component |
Thich energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecules does not contain a nucleotide | Creatine phosphate |
Carbs | substances commonly called sugars, body's primary source of energy, part of both DNA and RNA |
Unsaturated fats | will kink and bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms |
Amino acids frequently become joined by | peptide bonds |
Which lipid is part of vitamin D | steroids |
The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water, this is called | dehydration synthesis |
Peptide bonds join together molecules of | amino acids |
The element that is present in all proteins but not in carbs is | nitrogen |
Organic - lipids, carbohydrates, proteins | True |
Electrolytes are NOT organic | True |
When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide | maltose |
The type of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are | Steroids |
What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids | Degree of saturation |
The roles played by proteins can be divided into which categories | structural and functional |
The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure | secondary |
Glycogen, sometimes referred to animal starch is the main polysaccharide in the body | True |
RNA | contains ribose sugar, contains adenine, composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides |
A structural lipid found in the cell membrane is | phospholipid and steroid |
Salt is NOT one of the major groups of organic substances in the human body | True |
Proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids are major groups of organic substances in the human body | True |
Which of the following is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids | They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end |
A free radical is a function group that is temporarily unattached and is highly reactive because of | unpaired electrons |
The basic building blocks of fats are | fatty acids and glycerol |
Which level of protein structure refers to the number, kind and sequence of amino acids | Primary |
Prophase | chromosomes condense and become visible, spindle fibers emerge from the centrosomes, nuclear envelop breaks down, centrosomes move towards opposite poles |
Prometaphase | Chromosomes continue to condense, kinetochores appear at the centromeres, mitotic spindle microtubules attach to kinetochores |
Metaphase | chromosomes are lined up at the metaphase plate, each sister chromatid is attached to a spindle fiber originating from opposite poles |
Anaphase | centromeres split in two, sister chromatids (now called chromosomes) are pulled toward opposite poles, certain spindle fibers begin to elongate the cell |
Telophase | chromosomes arrive at opposite poles and begin to decondense, nuclear envelope material surrounds each set of chromosomes, the mitotic spindle breaks down, spindle fibers continue to push poles apart |
Cytokinesis | animal cells are cleavage furrow separates the daughter cells, plant cells - a cell plate, the precursor to a new cell wall separates the daughter cells |
Water pressure that develops in a solution as a result of osmosis into the solution is called | osmotic pressure |
The cell process in which microorganisms or other large particles are engulfed is called | phagocytosis |
The total number of 46 chromosomes per cell is referred to as | diploid number |
Endocytosis is an | active transport process |
Transcription and translation are two process of | protein synthesis |
The result of meiosis is 4 daughter cells that are haploid | True |
Meiotic division occurs in | primitive sex cells |
Replication of DNA occurs in which phase of interphase | S phase |
Which of the following phase is NOT correctly with its description anaphase | mitosis is complete |
In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes move to the opposite ends of the cells along spindle fibers | anaphase |
Glycolysis occurs in what part of the cell | cytoplasm |
Red blood cells are placed in a hypertonic solution | they decrease in size |
A chemical that reduces the amount of activation energy needed to a chemical reaction is a | catalyst |
Diffusion moves down a | concentrate gradient |
In the DNA molecule, a sequence of three base pairs form a | codon |
In the electron transport system, the final electron acceptor is | oxygen |
Normal mitosis results in cells that are genetically identical to the | parent cell |
If oxygen is available, the pyruvate molecules formed by glycolysis are prepared to enter the next phase of aerobic cellular respiration called the | citric acid cycle |
Nitrogen base distinguishes one nucleotide from another | true |
Meiosis is called "reduction division" because the number of chromosomes is reduced by | half |
two haploid gametes are NOT characteristics of meiosis | true |
Osmosis can be defined as the net movement of water molecules from a region of lower solute concentration to a region of | higher solute concentration |
Transcription can best be described as the | synthesis of mRNA |
RNA makes proteins by | translation |
If red blood cells containing 10% solute are placed in a solution containing 10% solute, water will move into and out of the cells at | equal rate |
Facilitated diffusion is not an active transport process, because it does no depend on cell energy | True |
A molecule or other agent that alters enzymes function by changing its shape is | allosteric effector |
Proteins that act as catalysts are called | enzymes |
Mitosis is subdivided into four phases, except karyophase | true |
Meiosis does not have chromosome number remaining at 46 | true |
Water will move through the cell membrane by | osmosis |
NaCl would move through the cell membrane | Both into and out of the cell |
Prophase is the stage of mitosis where the centrioles moves to | opposite poles of the cell |
Phases of mitosis | prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase |
Hypertonic | a saline solution that contains a higher concentrate of salt than a red blood cell |
Materials can be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through | active transport |
Transcription can be best described as the synthesis of | mRNA |
If a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were AUCGA, it contains | ribose sugar |
Filtration | water and solute move through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure gradient exist across the membrane |
Diffusion does NOT use cellular energy | True |
The site of transcription is within the nucleus, whereas the site of translation is in the | cytoplasm |
Aquaporin | small water channels in the cell membrane |
Extensive weight training cause the muscle cells to | hypertrophy |
Carrier-mediated transport | attracts a solute to a binding site, changes shape and releases the solute on the other side of the cell membrane |
RNA contains deoxyribose sugar | False |
Synonymous of the tumor is | Neoplasm |
DNA molecule is not characterized by ribose sugar | true |
Sodium and Potassium pump | three sodium ions are taken out of the cell |
Sodium and Potassium pump does not more sodium into the cell and move potassium out | True |
Genome are referred to an individuals entire set of | DNA |
ATCH | TAGC |
Endocytosis is an example of passive transport | False |
two solutions of different concentrations of glucose are separated by a membrane that allows both glucose and water to pass through. When dynamic equilibrium is reached, | there will be an even exchange of material across the membrane |
Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans, is referred to as | haploid |
Metaphase | chromosomes align themselves across the equator of the spindle fibers |
Diffusion requires | a concentration gradient |
Codon | a sequence of three bases formed |
Diffusion of particles through a membrane by means of a carrier molecule is called | facilitated diffusion |
Phagocytosis is an example of | endocytosis |
The nail body forms at the nail root, which has a matrix of proliferating cells from the stratum basales that enables the nail to grow continuously | True |
Stratum spinosum has cells that look prickly because of the ______ that join cells together | desmosomes |
Which cells of the skin act as a type of antigen presenting cell in the skin | Dendritic cells |
Lanugo is not part of a hair | true |
The hair follicle is found in the | dermis |
Stratum corneum is called the | barrier area |
The hair papilla consists of | dermal tissue |
Stratum granulosum is where _______ begins | keratinization |
Fingernail growth is the result of the mitosis of the cells in the | Stratum granulosum |
Stratum lucidum contains closely packed, clear cells that contain a gel like substance called | eleidin |
Smooth muscles that produce goose pimples when they contract, are the | arrector pili |
Keratinocytes are filled with tough, fibrous protein and account for most of the epidermal cells of the skin | true |
Apocrine sweat glands can be found in all the following | armpits, areolae of the breasts, pigmented skin around the anus |
_________ is responsible for the waxy secretion in the external ear canal | Ceruminous |
Hair | alternates between periods of growth and rest, consist of keratinized cells, and is formed from cells of the germinal matrix |
Connective tissue is most likely to form a _____ _____ as it heals | keloid scar |
Adipose tissue does NOT defend the body from microbes and injurious substances | True |
________ and _________ cells electrically insulated axons to increase the speed of conduction | Oligodendrocytes and Schwann |
Epithelial tissue has the greatest capacity to | regenerate |
Areolar tissue usually contains ______ in the greatest number | Fibroblasts |
Vitamin ____, _____, _____ is absorbed in the skin | A, D, K |
Muscle tissue does NOT have cells separate by large quantities of extracellular matrix | True |
Communication is a function of connective tissue | False |
Basement membrane is formed by the union of the | basal and reticular lamina |
Basale stratum is the only one that undergoes | mitosis |
_______ helps destroy pathogens and damaged tissue in the brain | Microglia |
________ form the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood | Astrocytes |
Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways | true |
Sole of the foot | especially thick stratum corneum |
The hypodermis connects the dermis to | underlying tissues |
Brown fat | connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing heat |
Glucosamine, Collagen, Hyaluronic acid are proteoglycans found in the matrix of | connective tissue |
Nervous tissue contains cells called | neurons |
Skeletal muscles | attach to bones, have striation, have voluntary or "willed" muscles, contain more than one nucleus per cell |
Smooth muscle does NOT have intercalated disks | True |
Connective tissue does NOT typically hold its cell together tightly by means of desmosomes | True |
Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called | mesenchyme |
Dermis | true skin |
hematopoietic tissue can be found in | bone |
a tissue is a group of similar cells that perform | a common function |
Skin does NOT synthesis vitamin E | true |
Assimilation is a function of epithelial tissue | False |
Epithelial tissue is not important in communication ad control | true |
Basement membrane is composed of molecules made by | connective and epithelial tissue |
Red and yellow bone marrow | produce red blood cells and store energy as fat |
The external portion of the bone is known as | cortical bone |
Bones grow due to activity in the | epiphyseal plates |
C5 vertebral body is NOT considered a long bone | True |
When an astronaut is in space for 2 months, the astronaut will experience bone loss at an increased rate as a person on earth | True |
Cartilage is slow to heal because it is semi-solid and flexible and it has | limited or no blood supply |
You find fibrous cartilage in | pubic symphysis and interverbal discs |
the axial skeletal structure provides framework for muscles that anchor and stabilize the appendicular bones | True |
Adipocytes | found in the yellow bone marrow, stores and releases fat and triglycerides for energy |
The skeletal system would b especially important if you were in a car accident because it | protects the internal organs |
Without red bone marrow | bones would not be able to make blood cells |
Cartilages provide flexibility and smooth surfaces for movement | true |
The _________ of an infant's skull consists of fibrous membrane | Fontenelle's |
The fontanelles | allows brain growth, the anterior fontanelle closes at about 2 years of age, the fontanelles are fibrous membranes |
Hematopoietic stem cells that are found in red bone marrow can develop into a variety of different blood cells including | red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets |
An open fracture is also known as a | compound fracture |
Epiphyses is NOT cylindrical in shape | true |
Until bone growth in length is complete, a layer of the cartilage, known as the epiphyseal plate, remains between the | epiphysis and diaphysis |
A condition that is caused by an abnormally increased roundness in the thoracic curvature is | Kyphosis |
Fontanels are unique to the fetal skull and provide additional space for molding the head space as the baby passes through the birth canal | True |
Small cells that synthesize and secrete a specialized organic matrix are | Osteoblasts |
In bone formation, the cells that produce the organic matrix are the | Osteoblasts |
Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens | True |
After the age of 50, the density of bone decreases slowly because of a shift in the | remodeling activity |
Support, protection, mineral storage, and hematopoiesis | all functions of the bone |
The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the | thumb |
Bones act as a reservoir for | calcium |
During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called | pelvic outlet |
In bone growth, the medullary cavity is enlarged because of the activity of | Osteoclasts |
Diaphysis does NOT provide a bulbous shape for attachment of muscle | True |
Normally, bone lose will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of | 35 and 40 years |
Bones grow in diameter by the combined action of which two of the three bone cell types | Osteoblasts and Osteoclasts |
Young children's bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone | False |
Calcification of the organic bone matrix occurs when complex calcium salts are deposited in the | matrix |
Hormonal production is NOT a primary function performed by bones | true |
Because of how the clavicle articulates with the scapula, all shoulder movements involve the sternoclavicular joints | True |
Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes begin to divide and secrete additional matrix | true |
An age-related skeletal disease that is characterized by loss of bone mineral density and increased bone fragility is | Osteoporosis |
A person with a fractured patella would expect discomfort in | the knee |
The primary ossification center of a long bone is located in | the diaphysis |
The ulna articulates proximally with | the humerus |
The humerus articulates proximally with the clavicle | False |
The humerus articulates proximally with | the scapula |
Blood clotting, transmission of nerve impulses and contraction of cardiac muscles are dependent on the proper amount of | calcium ions in the blood |
As the activity of osteoblasts increases, the amount of calcium in bone increases, and the level of calcium in the blood | decreases |
The shoulder joint is an example of | multiaxial, freely movable, ball and socket joint |
The joints between the articulating surfaces of the vertebral processes are classified as a | gliding joint |
According to the sliding filament theory actin moves | past myosin |
The largest and most commonly injured joint in the body is the | knee joint |
Which subtype of fibrous joints is found only in the skull | suture |
Synovial joints are | freely movable |
Exercise may cause an increase in muscle size called | hypertrophy |
Synarthrotic joints are | immovable |
Some synovial joints contain a closed pillow like structure called a | bursa |
Tendons are not among the structures that characterize | Synovial joints |
The contractile unit of a muscle cell is the | sarcomere |
The minimal level of stimulation required to cause a fiber to contract is called the | threshold stimulus |
The energy required for muscular contraction is obtained by | hydrolysis of ATP |
The muscle's ability to stretch or extend and to return to its resting length is called | extensibility |
Muscle tone is maintained by | negative feedback mechanisms |
The structure of the knee joint permits movements of | flexion and extension |
Repeated stimulation of muscle in time lessens its excitability and contractibility and may result in | fatigue |
A contraction in which muscle length remains the same but muscle tension increases called an | isometric contraction |
Which of the following is an example of a uniaxial join | elbow joint |
Gliding movement occurs between the carpal and tarsal bones and between the articular facets of | adjoining spinal vertebrae |
The four kinds of proteins that make up myofilaments are | myosin, actin, tropomyosin, and troponin |
Three phases of the twitch contraction are the | latent period, contraction phase, and relaxation phase |
Joints joined by fibrocartilage are called | symphyses |
Transverse tubule allows the electrical signals to travel along the sarcolemma and move deeper into the cell | True |
Anaerobic respiration results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule called | Lactate |
The more muscle fibers contracting at the same time, the stronger the contraction of the entire muscle. The number of muscle fibers contracting depends on how many motor units are recruited | True |
________ occurs when the foot is tilted upward, thus decreasing the ankle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg | Dorsiflexion |
Storage is NOT a function of the muscle | True |
The joint present during the growth years between the epiphyses of a long bone and its diaphysis it the | synchrondrosis |
If a structural classification is used, joints are named according to the type of connective tissue that joins the bone together | True |
An example of a hinge joint is the | interphalangeal joints |
Isometric contraction | the muscle does not shorten, it can produce work by tightening to resist a force, the tension produced by the myosin cross-bridges cannot overcome the load placed on the muscle |
Painful muscle contraction or involuntary twitches are called | cramps |
Myosin proteins are found in myofilaments and contain | cross-bridges |
Cross-bridges are also called | myosin heads |
Physiological muscle fatigue may be caused by | A relative lack of ATP, high levels of lactate, failure of the sodium potassium pumps |
Some motor units stimulate only a few dozen muscle fibers | True |
Some motor units stimulate a few thousand muscle fibers | True |
Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in | a isometric muscle contraction |
Static tension describes an | isometric contraction |
The substance that attracts oxygen in the myoglobin molecule is | iron |
Circumduction occurs when the head is dropped to the shoulder, then to the chest, to the other shoulder, and | towards the back |
Endurance training is also known as | aerobic training |
Heat production | The body temperature set point is established by the hypothalamus, shivering will increase body temperature, body temperature functions on a negative feedback mechanism |
T tubules are not part of the neuromuscular junction | True |
The lactate produced by anaerobic respiration is converted back to glucose in the | liver |
Stretching of the foot down and back and pointing the toe is called | planter flexion |
An organic phosphate, energy that can be used in muscle contraction, ADP are all end products of the breakdown of | ATP |
Muscle contractions will continue as long as the calcium ions are attached to the | Troponin |
A condyloid joint is an example of a | biaxial joint |
Thick myofilament extend the length of the | A- Band |
The ion necessary for cross-bridging is | calcium |
The rotator cuff muscles and tendons form a cufflike arrangement around | the shoulder joint |
Skeletal muscles are innervated by | somatic motor neurons |
Moving a body part away from the medial plane of the body is called | abduction |
In terms of function, Synarthrosis is considered an | immovable joint |
________ ________ functions to temporarily store calcium ions | Sarcoplasmic reticulum |
An example of pivot joints is the head of the radius articulating with the ulna | True |
Saddle joint allows for a unique movement called | opposition |
Myosin protein molecule that has heads jutting out for | cross-bridging |
_______ are the most movable joints in the body | Synovial |
The largest and most frequently injured joint is the | Knee |
Protection is not one of the major functions of muscles | True |
Kicking a football is accomplished by | knee extension |
Single - unit smooth muscle is responsible for | peristalsis |
Cardiac muscle doesn't require nervous stimulation to contract | True |
The ability of muscle cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called | irritability |
During ________ period of the twitch contraction is there a triggering of the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm | Latent |
A contraction is which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called an | isotonic contraction |
The type of movement possible at a synovial joint depends on the shape of the articulating surfaces of the bones | True |
The ball and socket joint allows for | the widest range of movement |
Symphysis joint joins the | two pubic bones together |
The chief function of the T tubules is to allow for | electrical signals to move deeper into the cell |
Tilting the foot upward, decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg is called | dorsiflexion |
Glucose can be stored in the muscle as | glycogen |