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#2 BOC HEMATOLOGY
#2 BOC MLT HEMATOLOGY QUESTIONS
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| AUER RODS are most likely present in which of the following? | ACUTE MYELOCYTIC LEUKEMIA |
| The following results were obtained on a 45 year old man complaining of chills and fever: WBC:23.0X10 LAP:200 Philadelphia Chromosome:negative Toxic granulation, Dohle bodies and vacuoles | Neutrophilic leukemoid reaction |
| In an uncomplicated case of infectious mononucleosis, which of the following cells are affected? | b. lymphocytes |
| The atypical lymphocyte seen in the peripheral smear of patients with infectious mono is probably derived from which of the following? | B lymphocytes |
| Which of the following cells is the atypical lymphocyte seen on the peripheral blood smear of patients with infectious mononucleosis? | T lymphocytes |
| 155) The disease most frequently present in patients with atypical lymphocytosis and persistently negative tests is: a. toxoplasmosis b. cytomegalovirus infection c. herpes virus infection d. viral hepatitis | b. cytomegalovirus infection |
| 157) Which of the following is associated with pseudo-Pelger-Huet anomaly? a. aplastic anemia b. iron deficiency anemia c. myelogenous leukemia d. Chediak-Higashi syndrome | c. myelogenous leukemia |
| Increased numbers of basophils are often seen in: | Chronic myelocytic leukemia |
| 167) In chronic myelocytic leukemia, blood histamine concentrations tend to reflect the : a. number of platelets present b. serum uric acid concentrations c. number of basophils present d. the total number of granulocytes | c. number of basophils present |
| 168) Biochemical abnormalities characteristic of polycythemia vera include: a. increased serum B12 binding capacity b. hypouricemia c. hypohistaminemia d. decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity | a. increased serum B12 binding capacity |
| 170) 50% - 90% myeloblasts in a peripheral blood smear is typical of which of the following? a. chronic myelocytic leukemia b. myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia c. erythroleukemia d. acute myelocytic leukemia | d. acute myelocytic leukemia |
| 171) The M:E ratio in acute myelocytic leukemia is usually: a. normal b. high c. low d. variable | b. high |
| 173) Which of the following is most closely associated with chronic myelononocytic leukemia? a. Philadelphia chromosome b. DIC c. micromegakaryocytes d. lysozymuria | d. lysozymuria |
| 183) Hemorrhage in polycythemia vera is the result of: a. increased plasma viscosity b. persistent thrombocytosis c. splenic sequestration of platelets d. abnormal platelet function | d. abnormal platelet function |
| 184) A patient diagnosed with polycythemia vera 5 yrs. ago has a normal hematocrit, decreased hemoglobin, and microcytic, hypochromic red cells. What is the most probable cause for the current blood situation? a. phlebotomy b. myelofibrosis c. proleuke | a. phlebotomy |
| 185) A patient has been treated for polycythemia vera for several yrs. His blood smear now shows: Oval macrocytes Howell-Jolly bodies Hypersegmented neutrophil Large, agranular platelets the most probable cause of this blood picture is: | CHEMOTHERAPY a. iron deficiency b. alcoholism c. dietary B12 deficiency d. chemotherapy |
| 186) In infectious mono, lymphocytes tend to be: a. small with little cytoplasm b. normal c. decreased in number d. enlarged and indented by surrounding structures | d. enlarged and indented by surrounding structures |
| 187) In comparison to malignant lymphoma cells, reactive lymphs: a. have a denser nuclear chromatin b. are known to be T cells c. have more cytoplasm and more mitochondria d. are morphologically more variable throughout the smear | d. are morphologically more variable throughout the smear |
| 191) Which of the following is true of acute lymphoblastic leukemia? a. occurs most commonly in children 1 -2 yrs. old b. patient is asymptomatic c. massive accumulation of primitive lymphoid-appearing cells in bone marrow occurs d. children under 1 y | c. massive accumulation of primitive lymphoid-appearing cells in bone marrow occurs |
| 193) The most common form of childhood leukemia: a. acute lymphocytic b. acute granulocytic c. acute monocytic d. chronic granulocytic | ACUTE LYMPHOCYTIC |
| 194) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is defined as: a. malignancy of the thymus b. accumulation of prolymphocytes c. accumulation of hairy cells in the spleen d. accumulation of monoclonal B cells with a block in cell maturation | d. accumulation of monoclonal B cells with a block in cell maturation |
| 196) Which of the following is not a characteristic usually associated with hairy cell leukemia? a. pancytopenia b. mononuclear cells with ruffled edges c. splenomegaly d. increased resistance to infection | d. increased resistance to infection |
| 197) Morphologic variants of plasma cells do not include: a. flame cells b. morula cells c. grape cells d. Gaucher Cells | a.Gaucher Cells (Identification of condition with morphologic alteration in neutrophils, representing giant fused lysosomes.) |
| 202) Which of the following anomalies is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by irregularly-sized inclusions in polymorphonuclear neutrophils, abnormal giant platelets and often thrombocytopenia? | d. May-Hegglin |
| 203) Of the following, the disease most closely associated with granulocyte hyposegmentation is: a. May-Hegglin b. Pelger-Huet c. Chediak-Higashi d. Gaucher disease | PELGER-HUET anomaly |
| 204) Which of the following cell types is characteristic of Pelger-Huet anomaly: a. band form b. pince-nez form c. normal neutrophil d. myelocyte | b. Pince-nez form (Morphologic alteration of neutrophils; majority of nuclei are bilobed, rounded and dumbbell-shaped.) |
| 205) Which of the following is associated with Chediak-Higashi syndrome? a. membrane defect of lysosomes b. Dohle bodies and giant platelets c. two-lobed neutrophils d. mucopolysaccharidosis | a. membrane defect of lysosomes |
| 206) Which of the following is associated with Alder-Reilly inclusions? a. membrane defect of lysosomes b. Dohle bodies and giant platelets c. chronic myelogenous leukemia d. mucopolysaccharidosis | d. mucopolysaccharidosis |
| 207) Which of the following is associated with May-Hegglin anomaly? a. membrane defect of lysosomes b. Dohle bodies and giant platelets c. chronic myelogenous leukemia d. mucopolysaccharides | b. Dohle bodies and giant platelets |
| 208) A differential was performed on an asymptomatic patient. The differential included 60% neutrophils, 55 of which had 2 lobes and 5 had 3 lobes. There were no other abnormalities. This is consistent with which of the following anomalies? a. Pelger-Hue | a. Pelger Huet (Morphologic alteration of neutrophils- primary feature is hyposegmentation.) |
| 209) The cytoplasmic abnormality of the white blood cell of Alder-Reilly anomaly is found in the: a. endoplasmic reticulum b. lysosomes c. mitochondria d. ribosomes | b. lysosomes |
| 210) Of the following, the disease most closely associated with mucopolysaccharidosis is: a. Pelger-Huet b. Chediak-Higashi c. Gauchers disease d. Alder-Reilly | d. Alder-Reilly |
| 211) Of the following, the disease most closely associated with glucocerbrosidase deficiency is: a. Gauchers disease b. Chediak-Higashi c. Pelger- Huet d. May-Hegglin | a. Gauchers disease |
| 213) Of the following, the disease most closely associated with pale blue inclusions in granulocytes and giant platelets: a. Gauchers disease b. Alder-Reilly c. May-Hegglin d. Pelger-Huet | c. May-Hegglin |
| 217) In synovial fluid , the most characteristic microscopic finding in gout is: a. calcium pyrophosphate crystals b. cartilage debris c. monosodium urate crystals d. hemosiderin laden macrophages | c. monosodium urate crystals |
| 20) Which of the following is the formula for manual white cell count? a.(number of cells counted x dilution x 10)/number of squares counted b. (number of cells counted x dilution)/10 x number of squares counted c. number of cells counted x dilution d | a.(number of cells counted x dilution x 10)/number of squares counted (Hemacytometer calculation .) |
| 227) A mean cell hemoglobin concentration over 36 g/dL is frequently found in : a. hereditary spherocytosis b. lipemia c. active cold agglutinin disease d. all of the above | d. all of the above |
| 228) An unexplained elevation of the prothrombin time in a 72 yr. old smoker who has been diagnosed with chronic pulmonary obstructive disease is most likely due to: a. an elevated hematocrit b. a decreased hematocrit c. vitamin K deficiency d. decrea | a. an elevated hematocrit |
| 236) A patient diagnosed as having bacterial septicemia. Which of the following would best describe the expected change in his peripheral blood? a. granulocytic leukemoid reaction b. lymphocytic leukemoid reaction c. neutropenia d. eosinophilia | a. granulocytic leukemoid reaction |
| 237) The most characteristic morphologic features of atypical lymphs include: a. course nuclear chromatin and basophilic cytoplasm b. blue-grey cytoplasm, fine nuclear chromatin c. nucleoli and deep blue RNA-rich cytoplasm d. a stretched nucleus and c | a. course nuclear chromatin and basophilic cytoplasm |
| 240) In synovial fluid, the most characteristic finding in pseudogout is: a. calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals b. cartilage debris c. monosodium urate crystals d. hemosiderin-laden macrophages | a. calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals |
| 241) In synovial fluid, the most characteristic finding in traumatic arthritis is: a. monosodium urate crystals b. cartilage debris c. calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals d. hemosiderin laden macrophages | d. hemosiderin laden macrophages |
| 250) Which of the following stains in closely associated with the lysosomal enzyme in primary granules? a. peroxidase b. Sudan black B c. periodic acid-Schiff d. Prussian blue | a. peroxidase |
| 256) In flow cytometric analysis, low angle or forward scatter of a laser light beam provides information that pertains to a cell's: a. volume b. viability c. granularity d. lineage | a. volume |
| 257) In flow cytometric analysis, right angle of side scatter of a laser light beam provides information that pertains to the cell's: a. volume b. viability c. granularity d. lineage | c. granularity |
| 262) vWF antigen can be found in which of the following? a. myeloblast b. monoblast c. lymphoblast d. megakaryoblast | d. megakaryoblast |
| 263) Which of the following is characteristic of cellular changes as megakaryoblasts mature into megakaryocytes within the bone marrow? a. progressive decrease in overall cell size b. increasing basophilia of cytoplasm c. nuclear division without cytop | c. nuclear division without cytoplasmic division |
| 264) Which of the following cells contain hemosiderin? a. megakaryocyte b. osteoclast c. histiocyte d. mast cell | C. Histocyte(Macrophages) (Bone marrow and splenic macrophages contain hemosiderin; histiocyte is a collective term for macrophages.) |
| 265) Which of the following cells is the largest cell in the bone marrow? a. megakaryocyte b. histiocyte c. osteoblast d. mast cell | a. megakaryocyte |
| 266) Normal platelets have a circulating life-span of approximately: a. 5 days b. 10 days c. 20 days d. 30 days | b. 10 days (Average life span of platelets in peripheral blood is 9.5 days.) |
| 269) Platelet activity is affected by: a. calcium b. aspirin c. hyperglycemia d. hypoglycemia | b. aspirin |
| 270) Cells involved in hemostasis are: a. erythrocytes b. granulocytes c. lymphocytes d. thrombocytes | d. thrombocytes |
| 279) In polycythemia vera, the platelet count is: a. elevated b. normal c. decreased d. variable | a. elevated |
| 282) Which of the following is characteristic of platelet disorders? a. deep muscle hemorrhage b. retroperitoneal hemorrhage c. mucous membrane hemorrhages d. severely prolonged clotting times | c. mucous membrane hemorrhages |
| 283) Which of the following is characteristic of Bernard - Soulier syndrome? a. giant platelets b. normal bleeding time c. abnormal aggregation with ADP d. increased platelet count | a (Giant platelets, abnormal bleeding time, normal aggregation with ADP, decreased platelet count are characteristic of Bernard-Soulier.) |
| 287) The chamber counting method of platelet enumeration: | A a. allows direct visualization of the particles being counted b. has a high degree of precision c. has a high degree of reproducibility d. is the method of choice for the performance of 50 - 60 counts per day |
| 290) An automated platelet count indicates platelet clumping, which is confirmed by examining the smear. The technician should: | a. repeat the count on the same sample b. report the automated count c. perform a manual count **d. recollect in sodium citrate |
| 294) A bleeding time is used to evaluate the activity of: a. platelets b. prothrombin c. labile factor d. Factor VIII | a. platelets |
| 295) A patient has been taking aspirin regularly for arthritic pain. Which of the following tests is most likely to be abnormal in this patient? | a. platelet count **b. template bleeding time c. prothrombin time d. activated partial thromboplastin time |
| 297) Which of the following detects or measures platelet function? a. bleeding time b. prothrombin time c. thrombin time d. partial thromboplastin time | a. bleeding time |
| 298) Platelet aggregation is dependent in vitro on the presence of: a. calcium ions b. sodium citrate c. thrombin d. potassium | a. calcium ions |
| 305) Coagulation factors affected by warfarin (Coumadin) drugs are: a. VIII, IX, and X b. I, II, V, and VII c. II, VII, IX and X d. II, V, and VII | c. II, VII, IX and X |
| 306) Which of the following statements concerning Vitamin K is NOT true? | a. there are 2 sources of Vit. K: vegetables and bacterial b. Vit. K converts precursor molecules into functional coagulation factors c. heparin inhibits the action of Vit. K d. Vit. K is fat soluble |
| 307) Which of the following is Vitamin-K dependent? a. Factor XII b. fibrinogen c. antithrombin III d. Factor VII | d. Factor VII |
| 309) Hageman Factor (XII) is involved in each of the following reactions except: a. activation of C1 to C1 esterase b. activation of plasminogen c. activation of Factor XI d. transformation of fibrinogen to fibrin | d. transformation of fibrinogen to fibrin |
| 310) Prothrombin is: a. a protein formed by the liver in the presence of Vitamin K b. an enzyme that converts fibrinogen into fibrin threads c. the end product of the reaction between fibrinogen and thrombin d. a protein released by platelets during c | a. a protein formed by the liver in the presence of Vitamin K |
| 311) Which of the following coagulation factors is considered to be labile? a. II b. V c. VII d. X | b. V |
| 312) The most potent plasminogen activator in the contact phase of coagulation is: a. kallikrein b. streptokinase c. HMWK d. fibrinogen | a. kallikrein |
| 314) Which of the following is characteristic of Factor XII deficiency. a. negative bleeding history b. normal clotting times c. decreased risk of thrombosis d. epistaxis | a. negative bleeding history |
| 313) Which of the following factor deficiencies is associated with either no bleeding or only a minor bleeding tendency, even after trauma or surgery? a. Factor X b. Factor XII c. Factor XIII d. Factor V | b. Factor XII |
| 315) The 2 factors that differentiate liver disease from Vit. K deficiency are: a. II and VII b. IX and VII c. VIII and IX d. V and VII | d. V and VII |
| 316) Which of the following factors typically shows an increase in liver disease? a. Factor VII b. Factor VIII c. Factor IX d. Factor X | b. Factor VIII |
| 317) A patient has a normal prothrombin time and a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time using a kaolin activator. The APTT corrects to normal when the incubation time is increased. These suggest that the patient has: a. hemophilia A b. Hagema | a. hemophilia A b. Hageman Factor (XII) deficiency **c. Fletcher Factor deficiency d. Factor V deficiency |
| 320) A hemophiliac male and a normal female can produce: a. a female carrier b. a male carrier c. a male hemophiliac d. a normal female | a. a female carrier |
| 326) Plasma from a patient with lupus coagulation inhibitor can show: a. prolonged APTT and normal PT b. prolonged thrombin timer c. no change with platelet neutralization d. complete correction when incubated with normal plasma | a. prolonged APTT and normal PT |
| 332) Acute DIC is characterized by: a. hypofibrinogenemia b. thrombocytosis c. negative D-dimer d. shortened thrombin time | a. hypofibrinogenemia |
| 336) The prothrombin time test requires that the patient's citrated plasma be combined with: a. platelet lipids b. thromboplastin c. Ca++ and platelets and lipids d. Ca++ and thromboplastin | d. Ca++ and thromboplastin |
| 337) In the APTT test, the patient's plasma is mixed with: a. ADP and calcium b. tissue thromboplastin and collagen c. phospholipid and calcium d. tissue thromboplastin and calcium | c. phospholipid and calcium |
| 338) The APTT: a. tests the extrinsic coagulation pathway b. monitors Coumadin therapy c. requires tissue thromboplastin d. monitors heparin therapy | d. monitors heparin therapy |
| 340) A patient is taking 10 mg per day of coumadin. The results of which of the following lab tests will be most impacted? a. protein C level b. antithrombin III level c. Factor V Leiden mutation d. Factor VIII level | a. protein C level |
| 342) A prolonged thrombin time and a normal reptilase-R time are characteristic of : a. dysfibrinogenemia b. increased D-Dimer c. fibrin monomer-split product complexed d. therapeutic heparinization | d. therapeutic heparinization |
| 344) The best test to determine if a sample is contaminated with heparin is: a. fibrinogen b. thrombin time c. prothrombin time d. stypven time | b. thrombin time |
| 345) In the Clauss fibrinogen method, the time to clot formation in plasma is measured after the addition of: a. calcium b. thrombin c. phospholipids d. kaolin | b. thrombin b (In a Clauss fibrinogen, a standard amount of thrombin is added to diluted plasma, and the time required for clot formation is recorded.) |
| 346) If a patient presents with a prolonged APTT that does not correct upon mixing, the next test performed should be: a. Factor II b. DRVVT c. Factor VIII d. platelet count | b. DRVVT b (If the initial APTT remains prolonged in a mix, a second assay should be performed |
| 347) Excess D-Dimer indicate that clots have been: a. converted to fibrin monomers b. released into circulation c. formed and are being excessively lysed d. stimulated to activate platelets | c. formed and are being excessively lysed c (D-dimers are produced from crosslinked and stabilized fibrin clots. This clot is dissolved by plasma and d-dimers are released. Therefore, d-dimers suggest a breakdown of fibrin clots, and indicate that clots |
| 348) D-Dimers are produced from: a. cross-linked and stabilized fibrin clot b. decreased fibrinogen and platelets c. plasminogen converting to plasmin d. generation of thrombin from endothelial cells | a. cross-linked and stabilized fibrin clot |
| 350) A bedside test that can be used to monitor heparin activity is the: a. activated clotting time b. stypven time c. reptilase time d. partial thromboplastin time | a. activated clotting time (The ACT monitors high dose heparin therapy at clinics, bedside, cardiac catheterization or at a surgical suite |
| 351) Which of the following lab findings is associated with Factor VIII deficiency? a. prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time b. clot solubility in a 5 molar urea solution c. prolonged thrombin time d. prolonged prothrombin time | b. clot solubility in a 5 molar urea solution |
| 352) Heparin acts by: a. precipitating fibrinogen b. binding calcium c. activating plasma d. inhibiting thrombin | d. inhibiting thrombin d (Heparin acts by inhibiting thrombin and Factor Xa. Anticoagulants, such as sodium citrate, act by binding calcium to prevent a blood sample from clotting.) |
| 353) Low molecular weight heparin is monitored by a: a. anti-Xa assay b. APTT c. PT d. anti-IIa assay | a. anti-Xa assay a (The chromogenic anti-Xa assay is the only assay available to monitor LMWH; it may also be used to measure UFH. The APTT cannot be used to monitor low-molecular-weight heparin therapy.) |
| 354) In an automated cell counter the WBC printed result is "+++" The next step is to: a. repeat after warming the sample to 37 C b. make an appropriate dilution of the sample c. recalibrate the machine from pooled samples d. request a new sample imme | b. make an appropriate dilution of the sample b ("+++" is an indicator that the WBC count exceeds the upper reportable limit.) |
| 355) A specimen run on an automatic cell counter has a platelet count of 19 x 10^3. The first thing the tech should do is: a. report the count after the batch run is completed b. request a new specimen c. review the stained blood smear d. notify the l | c. review the stained blood smear |
| 356) The electrical resistance method of cell counting requires: a. equal-sized particles b. a conductive liquid c. 2 internal electrodes for current d. 3 apertures for counting | b. a conductive liquid |
| 359) On an electronic particle counter, if the RBC is erroneously increased, how will other parameters be affected? a. increased MCHC b. increased Hgb c. decreased MCH d. increased MCV | c. decreased MCH |
| 360) On setting up the electronic particle counter in the morning, one of the controls is slightly below the range for the MCV. Which of the following is indicated? b. adjust the MCV up slightly c. shut down the instrument d. repeat the control | d. repeat the control |
| 363) Which of the following will not cause erroneous results when using a phase optical system for enumerating platelets? a. incipient clotting b. decreased hematocrit c. Howell-Jolly bodies d. leukocyte cytoplasmic fragments | b. decreased hematocrit |
| 364) The most common cause of error when using automated cell counters is: a. contamination of the element b. inadequate mixing of the sample prior to testing c. variation in voltage of the current supply d. a calibrating error | b. inadequate mixing of the sample prior to testing |
| 376) The ideal capillary blood collection site on a newborn is: a. tip of the thumb b. ear lobe c. plantar surface of the heel d. the great toe | c. plantar surface of the heel |
| 377) When evaluating a smear for a retic count, the tech observes that the RBC's are overlapping throughout the entire slide. The most likely explanation is: | a. grease on the slide prevented even spreading b. improper proportions of blood and stain were used c. the slide was dried to quickly ***d. the drop used for the slide preparation was too large |
| 378) If a blood smear is dried too slowly, the RBCs are often: a. clumped b. crenated c. lysed d. destroyed | b. crenated |
| 379) A citrated blood specimen for coagulation studies is to be collected from a polycythemic patient. the anticoagulant should be: a. the standard volume b. reduced in volume c. changed to EDTA d. changed to oxalate | b. reduced in volume a tube with a reduced volume of anticoagulant is need when the Hct is > 55%.) |
| 380) Blood collected in EDTA undergoes which of the following changes if kept at room temp for 6 - 24 hrs. a. increased Hct and MCV b. increased ESR and MCV c. increased MCHC and MCV d. decreased reticulocyte count and Hct | a. increased Hct and MCV |
| 381) The specimen of choice for preparation of blood films for manual differential leukocyte counts is whole blood collected in: a. EDTA b. oxalate c. citrate d. heparin | a. EDTA (High-quality blood smears can be made from the EDTA tube within 2-3 hours of collecting the specimen.) |
| 382) A platelet determination was performed on an automated instrument and a very low value was obtained. The platelets appeared adequate when estimated from the stained blood film. The best explanation for this discrepancy is: | ***a. many platelets are abnormally large b. blood sample is hemolyzed c. white cell fragments are present in the blood' d. red cell fragments are present in the blood |
| 383) When platelets concentrate at the edges and feathered end of a blood smear, it is usually due to: a. abnormal proteins b. inadequate mixing of blood and anticoagulant c. hemorrhage d. poorly made wedge smear | d. poorly made wedge smear |
| 385) On a smear made directly from a finger stick, no platelets were found in the counting area. The first thing to do is: a. examine the slide for clumping b. obtain another smear c. perform a total platelet count d. request another finger stick | a. examine the slide for clumping |
| 386) The anticoagulant of choice for routine coagulation procedures is: a. sodium oxalate b. sodium citrate c. heparin d. sodium fluoride | b. sodium citrate |
| 387) A blue top tube is drawn for coagulation studies, the sample is a short draw results may be: a. falsely shortened b. correct c. unable to be obtained d. falsely prolonged | d. falsely prolonged |
| 388) The ISI in the INR represents the reagents: a. activator b. specificity c. phospholipids d. sensitivity | d. sensitivity |
| 394) On Monday a patient's Hgb determination was 11.3 g/dL and on Tuesday it measured 11.8 g/dL. The standard deviation of the method used is +/- 0.2 g/dL. Which of the following can be concluded about the Hgb values given? | a. one value probably resulted from lab error b. there is poor precision, daily quality control chars should be checked c. the second value is out of range and should be repeated ****d. there is no significant change in the patient's Hgb concentration |
| 29) A patient is admitted with a history of chronic bleeding secondary to peptic ulcer. Hematology workup reveals a severe microcytic, hypochromic anemia. Iron studies were requested. Which of the following would be expected in this case? | decreased serum iron increased TIBC decreased storage iron |
| Which of the following represents characteristic features of iron metabolism in patients with anemia of a chronic disorder? | decreased serum iron decreased transferrin saturation decreased/normal TIBC |
| 62) A 14-year-old boy is seen in the ER complaining of a sore throat swollen glands and fatigue. The CBC results are: What is the most likely diagnosis? | a. acute lymphocytic leukemia b. chronic lymphocytic leukemia c. viral hepatitis ***d. infectious mononucleosis |
| 102) The following results were obtained from a post-surgical patient receiving total parenteral nutrition: The most consistent explanation for the above data is: | a. acute surgical bleeder b. specimen on day 19 from wrong patient c. improperly mixed specimen on day 19 ***d. lipid interference on days 17 and 18 |
| 108) What is the MCH if the Hct is 20%, the RBC is 2.4 x 10^6/mL (2.4 x 10^12/L) and the Hgb is 5 g/dL (50 g/L)? a. 21 mm3 (21 fL) b. 23 mm3 (23 fL) c. 25 mm3 (25 fL) d. 84 mm3 (84 fL) | a. 21 mm3 (21 fL) |
| 109) What is the MCH if the Hct is 20%, the is 1.5 x 10^6/mL (1.5 x 10^12/L) and the Hgb is 6 g/dL (60 g/L)? a. 28 mm3 (28 fL) b. 30 mm3 (30 fL) c. 40 mm3 (40 fL) d. 75 mm3 (75 fL) | c. 40 mm3 (40 fL) |
| 111) What is the MCHC if the Hct is 20%, the RBC is 2.4 x 10^6/mL (2.4 x 10^12/L) and the Hgb is 5 g/dL (50 g/L)? a. 21% b. 25% c. 30% d. 34% | b. 25% |
| 112) What is the MCHC if the Hct is 20%, the RBC is 1.5 x 10^6/mL (1.5 x 10^12/L) and the Hgb is 6 g/dL (60 g/L)? a. 28% b. 30% c. 40% d. 75% | b. 30% |
| 114) Given the following data: Hgb: 8 g/dL (80 g/L) Hct: 28% RBC: 3.6 x 10^6/uL (3.6 x 10^12/L) The MCV is: a. 28 mm3 (28 fL) b. 35 mm3 (35 fL) c. 40 mm3 (40 fL) d. 77 mm3 (77 fL) | d. 77 mm3 (77 fL |
| 115) What is the MCV if the hematocrit is 20%, the RBC is 2.4 x 10^6/mL (2.4 x 10^12/L) and the hemoglobin is 5 g/dL (50 g/L)? a. 68 pg b. 83 pg c. 100 pg d. 120 pg | b. 83 pg |
| 116) What is the MCV if the hematocrit is 20%, the RBC is 1.5 x 10^6/mL (1.5 x 10^12/L) and the hemoglobin is 6 g/dL (60 g/L)? a. 68 pg b. 75 pg c. 115 pg d. 133 pg | d. 133 pg |
| 125) In an uncomplicated case of severe iron deficiency anemia, which of the following sets represents the typical pattern of results? | (Iron deficiency anemia laboratory features include: decreased RBC, hemoglobin, MCV, MCH, MCHC, serum iron, serum ferritin % saturation, bone marrow iron stores; and increased RDW, TIBC, FEP and serum soluble transferrin receptor levels |
| 154) Which of the following cells is the atypical lymphocyte seen on the peripheral blood smear of patients with infectious mononucleosis? a. T lymphocytes b. B lymphocytes c. monocytes d. mast cells | a. T lymphocytes |
| 180) The following results were obtained on a 55-year-old man complaining of headaches and blurred vision: These results are consistent with: | a. neutrophilic leukemoid reaction b. polycythemia vera c. chronic myelocytic leukemia ***d. leukoerythroblastosis in myelofibrosis |
| 192) A 50-year-old woman who has been receiving busulfan for three years for chronic myelogenous leukemia becomes anemic. Laboratory tests reveal: - Thrombocytopenia - Many peroxidase-negative blast cells in the peripheral blood - Bone marrow hypercell | Which of the following complications is this patient most likely to have? ***a. acute lymphocytic leukemia b. acute myelocytic leukemia c. acute myelomonocytic leukemia d. busulfan toxicity |
| 221) If a WBC count is performed on a 1:10 dilution and the number of cells counted in 8 squares is 120, the total WBC count is: a. 1,200/mL (1.2 x 10^9/L) b. 1,500/mL (1.5 x 10^9/L) c. 12,000/mL (12.0 x 10^9/L) d. 15,000 /mL (15.0 x 10^9/L) | b. 1,500/mL (1.5 x 10^9/L) |
| 222) If a WBC count is performed on a 1:100 dilution and the number of cells counted in eight squares is 50, the total WBC count is: a. 5,000/mL (5.0 x 10^9/L) b. 6,250/mL (6.25 x 10^9/L) c. 50,000/mL (50.0 x 10^9/L) d. 62,500/mL (62.5 x 10^9/L) | b. 6,250/mL (6.25 x 10^9/L) |
| 223) An automated leukocyte count is 22.5 x 10^9/mL (22.5 x 10^9/L). The differential reveals 200 normoblasts/100 leukocytes. What is the actual leukocyte count per microliter? a. 7,500/mL (7.5 x 10^9/L) b. 11,500/mL (11.5 x 10^9/L) c. 14,400/mL (14.4 | a. 7,500/mL (7.5 x 10^9/L) |
| 224) A total leukocyte count is 10.0 x 10^3/mL (10.0 x 10^9/L) and 25 NRBCs are seen per 100 leukocytes on the differential. What is the corrected leukocyte count? a. 2,000/mL (2.0 x 10^9/L) b. 8,000/mL (8.0 x 10^9/L) c. 10,000/mL (10.0 x 10^9/L) d. 1 | b. 8,000/mL (8.0 x 10^9/L) |
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