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Physiology
Set 1
Question | Answer |
---|---|
A molecule or other agent that alters enzyme function by changing its shape is called a(n) | allosteric effector. |
If oxygen is available, the pyruvate molecules formed by glycolysis are prepared to enter the next phase of aerobic cellular respiration, called the | citric acid cycle. |
Replication of DNA occurs in which phase of interphase? | S phase |
RNA makes proteins by | translation. |
Red blood cells are placed in an unknown solution. After 45 minutes, the cells are examined and determined to have decreased in size. The unknown solution is | hypertonic. |
The total number of 46 chromosomes per cell is referred to as _________ number. | diploid |
Osmosis can be defined as | the net movement of water molecules from a region of lower solute concentration to a region of higher solute concentration. |
Facilitated diffusion is not an active transport process because it | does not depend on cell energy. |
Transcription can best be described as the | synthesis of mRNA |
The result of meiosis is | four daughter cells that are haploid |
The cell process in which microorganisms or other large particles are engulfed is called | phagocytosis. |
Glycolysis occurs in what part of the cell? | cytoplasm |
Which of the following phases is NOT correctly matched with its description? | anaphase – mitosis is complete |
A chemical that reduces the amount of activation energy needed to start a chemical reaction is a(n) | catalyst. |
If red blood cells containing 10% solute are placed in a solution containing 10% solute, what will happen? | Water will move into and out of the cells at equal rates |
In the DNA molecule, a sequence of three base pairs forms a(n) | codon. |
The two processes of protein synthesis are | transcription and translation. |
In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes move to the opposite ends of the cells along the spindle fibers? | anaphase |
Meiotic division occurs in | primitive sex cells. |
Water pressure that develops in a solution as a result of osmosis into that solution is called _____ pressure. | osmotic |
Diffusion can be defined as | the net movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration. |
The component that distinguishes one nucleotide from another is the | nitrogen base. |
Which of the following is not a characteristic of meiosis? | two haploid gametes |
Normal mitosis results in | cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell. |
Diffusion moves | down a concentration gradient. |
Meiosis is called “reduction division” because | the number of chromosomes is reduced by half. |
What is an example of active transport process? | endocytosis |
Proteins that act as catalysts are called | enzymes. |
In the electron transport system, the final electron acceptor is | oxygen. |
Mitosis is subdivided into four phases, including all of the following except | karyophase. |
Phagocytosis is an example of: | endocytosis. |
Extensive weight training causes the muscle cells to: | hypertrophy. |
When the chromosomes align themselves across the equator of the spindle fibers, it is characteristic of which phase of mitosis? | Metaphase |
The small water channels in the cell membrane are called | aquaporins. |
Diffusion requires: | a concentration gradient. |
A sequence of three bases forms a(n): | codon. |
True or False: The site of transcription is within the nucleus, whereas the site of translation is in the cytoplasm. | True |
A DNA molecule does not have: | ribose sugar. |
The physical process by which water and solute move through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure gradient exists across the membrane is the process of: | filtration |
Materials can be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through | active transport |
An individual’s entire set of DNA can be referred to as a: | genome. |
NaCl would move through the cell membrane in which direction? | Both into and out of the cell |
Water will move through the cell membrane by: | osmosis. |
A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell would be: | hypertonic. |
Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as: | haploid. |
During which stage of mitosis do the centrioles move to the opposite poles of the cell? | Prophase |
The correct order of the phases of mitosis is: | prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase. |
Two solutions of different concentrations of glucose are separated by a membrane that allows both glucose and water to pass through. When dynamic equilibrium is reached, there will be: | an even exchange of material across the membrane. |
A membrane carrier structure attracts a solute to a binding site, changes shape, and releases the solute on the other side of the cell membrane. This describes the process of: | channel-mediated transport. |
Diffusion of particles through a membrane by means of a carrier molecule is called: | facilitated diffusion. |
Transcription can be best described as the: | synthesis of mRNA. |
If a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were A-U-C-G-A, which of the following would be true about the nucleic acid? | It contains ribose sugar. |
Which of the following terms is synonymous with tumor? | Neoplasm |
The pairing of bases of a strand of DNA is obligatory. If a strand of DNA were composed of the base sequence of ATCG, what would be the obligatory sequence of its opposing base pairs? | TAGC |
Which skin layer contains closely packed, clear cells that contain a gel-like substance called eleidin? | Stratum lucidum |
Smooth muscles that produce goose pimples when they contract are the _____ muscles. | arrector pili |
Fingernail growth is the result of the mitosis of the cells in the stratum: | germinativum. |
Which skin layer is called the barrier area? | Stratum corneum |
The hair follicle is found in the: | dermis. |
In which skin layer does the process of keratinization begin? | Stratum granulosum |
The waxy secretion in the external ear canal is: | ceruminous. |
Which cells of the skin act as a type of antigen-presenting cell in the skin? | Dendritic cells |
Apocrine sweat glands can be found in all of the following areas except the: | soles of the feet. |
Which skin layer has cells that look prickly because of the desmosomes that join the cells together? | Stratum spinosum |
The nail body forms at the nail root, which has a matrix of proliferating cells from the _____________ that enables the nail to grow continuously. | stratum basale |
Which cells of the skin are filled with a tough, fibrous protein and account for most of the epidermal cells of the skin? | Keratinocytes |
The hair papilla consists of _____ tissue. | dermal |
Which of the following is not a characteristic of skeletal muscles? | Having one nucleus per cell |
What is not a proteoglycan found in the matrix of connective tissue? | Collagen |
What epithelial functions is a primary activity of glandular epithelium? | Secretion |
In what area of the body would you expect to find an especially thick stratum corneum? | Sole of the foot |
Which is not a function of epithelial tissue? Absorption, secretion, Assimilation, Protection | Assimilation |
Which of the following vitamins is(are) absorbed through the skin? Vitamin A, Vitamin D, Vitamin K, All of the above | All of the above |
Which type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing heat? | Brown fat |
The type of tissue that contains cells called neurons is called | nervous. |
Which cells help destroy pathogens and damaged tissue in the brain? | Microglia |
Which cells electrically insulate axons to increase the speed of conduction? | Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells |
A tissue is: | a group of similar cells that perform a common function |
Which cells form the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood? | Astrocytes |
Basement membrane is composed of molecules made by _____ tissue | connective and epithelial |
What is not a function of the skin? | Synthesis of vitamin E |
What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina? | Basement membrane |
Areolar tissue usually contains which types of cells in the greatest number? | Fibroblasts |
What is not a function of adipose tissue? | Defends the body from microbes and injurious substances |
Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? | Connective |
true or false Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways. | True |
The hypodermis: | connects the dermis to underlying tissues. |
Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: | mesenchyme |
Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the: | bones. |
What is not a characteristic of smooth muscles? | Having intercalated disks |
Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate? | Epithelial |
Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the stratum | basale |
Why is cartilage slow to heal? | because it is semi-solid and flexible and because it does not have a blood supply |
Why are osteocytes spread out in bone tissue? | Formation of osteoid spreads out the osteoblasts that formed the ossification centers |
Which of the following bones is (are) formed by intramembranous ossification? | the flat bones of the cranium |
Bones grow in length due to activity in the ________. | epiphyseal plate |
Bones grow in diameter due to bone formation ________ | In the endosteum or periosteum |
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of zones in the epiphyseal plate? | calcification, maturation, proliferation, reserved |
In endochondral ossification, what happens to the chondrocytes? | They die in the calcified matrix that surrounds them and form the medullary cavity. |
Adipocytes, found in the yellow bone marrow, stores and releases ____________________________ for energy. | fat and triglycerides |
Which function of the skeletal system would be especially important if you were in a car accident? | protection of internal organs |
Without red bone marrow, bones would not be able to ________. | make blood cells |
Which of the following provide flexibility and smooth surfaces for movement? | Cartilages |
The fontenelles of an infant's skull consists of | fibrous membrane |
True or false Hematopoietic stem cells that are found in red bone marrow can develop into a variety of different blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. | True |
In bone formation, the cells that produce the organic matrix are the: | osteoblasts. |
Bones grow in diameter by the combined action of which two of the three bone cell types? | osteoblasts and osteoclasts |
As the activity of osteoblasts increases, the: | amount of calcium in bone increases. and level of calcium in the blood decreases |
Until bone growth in length is complete, a layer of the cartilage, known as the _____, remains between the epiphysis and diaphysis. | epiphyseal plate |
The humerus articulates proximally with the | scapula. |
Calcification of the organic bone matrix occurs when | complex calcium salts are deposited in the matrix. |
The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: | in the diaphysis. |
True or false Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens. | True |
Small cells that synthesize and secrete a specialized organic matrix are | osteoblasts. |
Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _____ years. | 35 and 40 |
During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the: | pelvic outlet. |
The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the: | thumb. |
In intramembranous ossification, the process of appositional growth refers to the: | addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones. |
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the epiphyses? | Cylindrical in shape |
Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes begin to divide and secrete | additional matrix. |
Hematopoiesis is carried out in the: | red bone marrow |
In the epiphyseal plate, the zone of hypertrophy is in the _____ layer. | third |
Blood calcium levels involve secretion of which two hormones? | parathyroid and calcitonin |
true or false Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone. | false |
An age-related skeletal disease that is characterized by loss of bone mineral density and increased bone fragility is | osteoporosis. |
The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are: | endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus. |
Synarthrotic joints are | immovable. |
Repeated stimulation of muscle in time lessens its excitability and contractibility and may result in | fatigue. |
The more muscle fibers contracting at the same time, the stronger the contraction of the entire muscle. The number of muscle fibers contracting depends on how many motor units are | recruited. |
_____ occurs when the foot is tilted upward, thus decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg. | Dorsiflexion |
Exercise may cause an increase in muscle size called | hypertrophy |
Anaerobic respiration results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule called | lactate |
Muscle tone is maintained by | negative feedback mechanisms. |
The structure of the knee joint permits movements of | flexion and extension. |
The four kinds of protein that make up myofilaments are myosin, actin, | tropomyosin, and troponin. |
According to the sliding filament theory | actin moves past myosin |
The energy required for muscular contraction is obtained by hydrolysis of | ATP. |
The contractile unit of a muscle cell is the | sarcomere. |
Synovial joints are | freely movable. |
Some synovial joints contain a closed pillow-like structure called a(n) | bursa. |
What is an example of a uniaxial joint? | elbow joint |
Which structure allows the electrical signals to travel along the sarcolemma and move deeper into the cell? | transverse tubule |
Which type of movement occurs between the carpal and tarsal bones and between the articular facets of adjoining spinal vertebrae? | gliding |
Three phases of the twitch contraction are the | latent period, contraction phase, and relaxation phase. |
The largest and most commonly injured joint in the body is the _____ joint. | knee |
Which subtype of fibrous joints is found only in the skull? | suture |
If a structural classification is used, joints are named according to the type of _____ tissue that joins the bones together. | connective |
Which of the following is not among the structures that characterize synovial joints? | tendons |
The minimal level of stimulation required to cause a fiber to contract is called the | threshold stimulus. |
The muscle’s ability to stretch or extend and to return to its resting length is called | extensibility. |
Joints joined by fibrocartilage are called | symphyses. |
A contraction in which muscle length remains the same but muscle tension increases is called an | isometric contraction. |
The shoulder joint is an example of a _____ joint. | multiaxial, freely movable, ball and socket |
The joints between the articulating surfaces of the vertebral processes are classified as what type of joint? | gliding |
The joint present during the growth years between the epiphyses of a long bone and its diaphysis is the | synchrondrosis. |
Which type of muscle does not have T-tubules? | Smooth |
The opposite of dorsiflexion is: | plantar flexion. |
The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to: | replenish energy supply. |
Which of the following is not a part of the neuromuscular junction? | T-tubules |
What are the most movable joints in the body? | Synovial |
After it is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the calcium combines with which protein? | Troponin |
Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in which type of muscle contraction? | Isometric |
Which of the following proteins found in myofilaments contains the cross-bridges? | Myosin |
The type of movement that occurs when the head is dropped to the shoulder, then to the chest, to the other shoulder, and toward the back is: | circumduction. |
Tilting the foot upward, decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg, is called: | dorsiflexion. |
The largest and most frequently injured joint is the: | knee. |
The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is: | myosin. |
An example of a pivot joint is(are) the: | head of the radius articulating with the ulna. |
Which joint allows for the widest range of movement? | Ball and socket |
Physiological muscle fatigue may be caused by: | a relative lack of ATP, high levels of lactate, failure of the sodium-potassium pumps. |
The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is that: | the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sacs. |
Which structure functions to temporarily store calcium ions? | Sarcoplasmic reticulum |
The type of movement possible at a synovial joint depends on the: | shape of the articulating surfaces of the bones. |
A gliding joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. | multiaxial |
An example of a hinge joint is(are) the: | interphalangeal joints. |
Aerobic respiration: | produces the maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule. |
Muscle contractions will continue as long as: | the calcium ions are attached to the troponin. |
Skeletal muscles are innervated by: | somatic motor neurons. |
Moving a part of the body forward is: | protraction. |
The ion necessary for cross-bridging is: | calcium. |
In terms of function, which is considered an immovable joint? | Synarthrosis |
Moving a body part away from the medial plane of the body is called: | abduction. |
Cross-bridges are also called: | myosin heads |
Which of the following terms describes an isometric contraction? | Static tension |
Glucose can be stored in the muscle as: | glycogen |
The substance that attracts oxygen in the myoglobin molecule is | iron. |
White fibers are also called _____ fibers. | fast |
Which joint allows for a unique movement called opposition? | Saddle |
The chief function of the T-tubules is to: | allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell. |
Painful muscle contractions or involuntary twitches are called: | cramps. |
A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called a(n) _____ contraction. | isotonic |
A condyloid joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. | biaxial |