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Physiology

Set 1

QuestionAnswer
A molecule or other agent that alters enzyme function by changing its shape is called a(n) allosteric effector.
If oxygen is available, the pyruvate molecules formed by glycolysis are prepared to enter the next phase of aerobic cellular respiration, called the citric acid cycle.
Replication of DNA occurs in which phase of interphase? S phase
RNA makes proteins by translation.
Red blood cells are placed in an unknown solution. After 45 minutes, the cells are examined and determined to have decreased in size. The unknown solution is hypertonic.
The total number of 46 chromosomes per cell is referred to as _________ number. diploid
Osmosis can be defined as the net movement of water molecules from a region of lower solute concentration to a region of higher solute concentration.
Facilitated diffusion is not an active transport process because it does not depend on cell energy.
Transcription can best be described as the synthesis of mRNA
The result of meiosis is four daughter cells that are haploid
The cell process in which microorganisms or other large particles are engulfed is called phagocytosis.
Glycolysis occurs in what part of the cell? cytoplasm
Which of the following phases is NOT correctly matched with its description? anaphase – mitosis is complete
A chemical that reduces the amount of activation energy needed to start a chemical reaction is a(n) catalyst.
If red blood cells containing 10% solute are placed in a solution containing 10% solute, what will happen? Water will move into and out of the cells at equal rates
In the DNA molecule, a sequence of three base pairs forms a(n) codon.
The two processes of protein synthesis are transcription and translation.
In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes move to the opposite ends of the cells along the spindle fibers? anaphase
Meiotic division occurs in primitive sex cells.
Water pressure that develops in a solution as a result of osmosis into that solution is called _____ pressure. osmotic
Diffusion can be defined as the net movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
The component that distinguishes one nucleotide from another is the nitrogen base.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of meiosis? two haploid gametes
Normal mitosis results in cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.
Diffusion moves down a concentration gradient.
Meiosis is called “reduction division” because the number of chromosomes is reduced by half.
What is an example of active transport process? endocytosis
Proteins that act as catalysts are called enzymes.
In the electron transport system, the final electron acceptor is oxygen.
Mitosis is subdivided into four phases, including all of the following except karyophase.
Phagocytosis is an example of: endocytosis.
Extensive weight training causes the muscle cells to: hypertrophy.
When the chromosomes align themselves across the equator of the spindle fibers, it is characteristic of which phase of mitosis? Metaphase
The small water channels in the cell membrane are called aquaporins.
Diffusion requires: a concentration gradient.
A sequence of three bases forms a(n): codon.
True or False: The site of transcription is within the nucleus, whereas the site of translation is in the cytoplasm. True
A DNA molecule does not have: ribose sugar.
The physical process by which water and solute move through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure gradient exists across the membrane is the process of: filtration
Materials can be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through active transport
An individual’s entire set of DNA can be referred to as a: genome.
NaCl would move through the cell membrane in which direction? Both into and out of the cell
Water will move through the cell membrane by: osmosis.
A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell would be: hypertonic.
Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as: haploid.
During which stage of mitosis do the centrioles move to the opposite poles of the cell? Prophase
The correct order of the phases of mitosis is: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.
Two solutions of different concentrations of glucose are separated by a membrane that allows both glucose and water to pass through. When dynamic equilibrium is reached, there will be: an even exchange of material across the membrane.
A membrane carrier structure attracts a solute to a binding site, changes shape, and releases the solute on the other side of the cell membrane. This describes the process of: channel-mediated transport.
Diffusion of particles through a membrane by means of a carrier molecule is called: facilitated diffusion.
Transcription can be best described as the: synthesis of mRNA.
If a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were A-U-C-G-A, which of the following would be true about the nucleic acid? It contains ribose sugar.
Which of the following terms is synonymous with tumor? Neoplasm
The pairing of bases of a strand of DNA is obligatory. If a strand of DNA were composed of the base sequence of ATCG, what would be the obligatory sequence of its opposing base pairs? TAGC
Which skin layer contains closely packed, clear cells that contain a gel-like substance called eleidin? Stratum lucidum
Smooth muscles that produce goose pimples when they contract are the _____ muscles. arrector pili
Fingernail growth is the result of the mitosis of the cells in the stratum: germinativum.
Which skin layer is called the barrier area? Stratum corneum
The hair follicle is found in the: dermis.
In which skin layer does the process of keratinization begin? Stratum granulosum
The waxy secretion in the external ear canal is: ceruminous.
Which cells of the skin act as a type of antigen-presenting cell in the skin? Dendritic cells
Apocrine sweat glands can be found in all of the following areas except the: soles of the feet.
Which skin layer has cells that look prickly because of the desmosomes that join the cells together? Stratum spinosum
The nail body forms at the nail root, which has a matrix of proliferating cells from the _____________ that enables the nail to grow continuously. stratum basale
Which cells of the skin are filled with a tough, fibrous protein and account for most of the epidermal cells of the skin? Keratinocytes
The hair papilla consists of _____ tissue. dermal
Which of the following is not a characteristic of skeletal muscles? Having one nucleus per cell
What is not a proteoglycan found in the matrix of connective tissue? Collagen
What epithelial functions is a primary activity of glandular epithelium? Secretion
In what area of the body would you expect to find an especially thick stratum corneum? Sole of the foot
Which is not a function of epithelial tissue? Absorption, secretion, Assimilation, Protection Assimilation
Which of the following vitamins is(are) absorbed through the skin? Vitamin A, Vitamin D, Vitamin K, All of the above All of the above
Which type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing heat? Brown fat
The type of tissue that contains cells called neurons is called nervous.
Which cells help destroy pathogens and damaged tissue in the brain? Microglia
Which cells electrically insulate axons to increase the speed of conduction? Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells
A tissue is: a group of similar cells that perform a common function
Which cells form the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood? Astrocytes
Basement membrane is composed of molecules made by _____ tissue connective and epithelial
What is not a function of the skin? Synthesis of vitamin E
What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina? Basement membrane
Areolar tissue usually contains which types of cells in the greatest number? Fibroblasts
What is not a function of adipose tissue? Defends the body from microbes and injurious substances
Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? Connective
true or false Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways. True
The hypodermis: connects the dermis to underlying tissues.
Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: mesenchyme
Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the: bones.
What is not a characteristic of smooth muscles? Having intercalated disks
Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate? Epithelial
Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the stratum basale
Why is cartilage slow to heal? because it is semi-solid and flexible and because it does not have a blood supply
Why are osteocytes spread out in bone tissue? Formation of osteoid spreads out the osteoblasts that formed the ossification centers
Which of the following bones is (are) formed by intramembranous ossification? the flat bones of the cranium
Bones grow in length due to activity in the ________. epiphyseal plate
Bones grow in diameter due to bone formation ________ In the endosteum or periosteum
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of zones in the epiphyseal plate? calcification, maturation, proliferation, reserved
In endochondral ossification, what happens to the chondrocytes? They die in the calcified matrix that surrounds them and form the medullary cavity.
Adipocytes, found in the yellow bone marrow, stores and releases ____________________________ for energy. fat and triglycerides
Which function of the skeletal system would be especially important if you were in a car accident? protection of internal organs
Without red bone marrow, bones would not be able to ________. make blood cells
Which of the following provide flexibility and smooth surfaces for movement? Cartilages
The fontenelles of an infant's skull consists of fibrous membrane
True or false Hematopoietic stem cells that are found in red bone marrow can develop into a variety of different blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. True
In bone formation, the cells that produce the organic matrix are the: osteoblasts.
Bones grow in diameter by the combined action of which two of the three bone cell types? osteoblasts and osteoclasts
As the activity of osteoblasts increases, the: amount of calcium in bone increases. and level of calcium in the blood decreases
Until bone growth in length is complete, a layer of the cartilage, known as the _____, remains between the epiphysis and diaphysis. epiphyseal plate
The humerus articulates proximally with the scapula.
Calcification of the organic bone matrix occurs when complex calcium salts are deposited in the matrix.
The primary ossification center of a long bone is located: in the diaphysis.
True or false Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens. True
Small cells that synthesize and secrete a specialized organic matrix are osteoblasts.
Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _____ years. 35 and 40
During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the: pelvic outlet.
The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the: thumb.
In intramembranous ossification, the process of appositional growth refers to the: addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the epiphyses? Cylindrical in shape
Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes begin to divide and secrete additional matrix.
Hematopoiesis is carried out in the: red bone marrow
In the epiphyseal plate, the zone of hypertrophy is in the _____ layer. third
Blood calcium levels involve secretion of which two hormones? parathyroid and calcitonin
true or false Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone. false
An age-related skeletal disease that is characterized by loss of bone mineral density and increased bone fragility is osteoporosis.
The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are: endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus.
Synarthrotic joints are immovable.
Repeated stimulation of muscle in time lessens its excitability and contractibility and may result in fatigue.
The more muscle fibers contracting at the same time, the stronger the contraction of the entire muscle. The number of muscle fibers contracting depends on how many motor units are recruited.
_____ occurs when the foot is tilted upward, thus decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg. Dorsiflexion
Exercise may cause an increase in muscle size called hypertrophy
Anaerobic respiration results in the formation of an incompletely catabolized molecule called lactate
Muscle tone is maintained by negative feedback mechanisms.
The structure of the knee joint permits movements of flexion and extension.
The four kinds of protein that make up myofilaments are myosin, actin, tropomyosin, and troponin.
According to the sliding filament theory actin moves past myosin
The energy required for muscular contraction is obtained by hydrolysis of ATP.
The contractile unit of a muscle cell is the sarcomere.
Synovial joints are freely movable.
Some synovial joints contain a closed pillow-like structure called a(n) bursa.
What is an example of a uniaxial joint? elbow joint
Which structure allows the electrical signals to travel along the sarcolemma and move deeper into the cell? transverse tubule
Which type of movement occurs between the carpal and tarsal bones and between the articular facets of adjoining spinal vertebrae? gliding
Three phases of the twitch contraction are the latent period, contraction phase, and relaxation phase.
The largest and most commonly injured joint in the body is the _____ joint. knee
Which subtype of fibrous joints is found only in the skull? suture
If a structural classification is used, joints are named according to the type of _____ tissue that joins the bones together. connective
Which of the following is not among the structures that characterize synovial joints? tendons
The minimal level of stimulation required to cause a fiber to contract is called the threshold stimulus.
The muscle’s ability to stretch or extend and to return to its resting length is called extensibility.
Joints joined by fibrocartilage are called symphyses.
A contraction in which muscle length remains the same but muscle tension increases is called an isometric contraction.
The shoulder joint is an example of a _____ joint. multiaxial, freely movable, ball and socket
The joints between the articulating surfaces of the vertebral processes are classified as what type of joint? gliding
The joint present during the growth years between the epiphyses of a long bone and its diaphysis is the synchrondrosis.
Which type of muscle does not have T-tubules? Smooth
The opposite of dorsiflexion is: plantar flexion.
The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to: replenish energy supply.
Which of the following is not a part of the neuromuscular junction? T-tubules
What are the most movable joints in the body? Synovial
After it is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the calcium combines with which protein? Troponin
Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in which type of muscle contraction? Isometric
Which of the following proteins found in myofilaments contains the cross-bridges? Myosin
The type of movement that occurs when the head is dropped to the shoulder, then to the chest, to the other shoulder, and toward the back is: circumduction.
Tilting the foot upward, decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg, is called: dorsiflexion.
The largest and most frequently injured joint is the: knee.
The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is: myosin.
An example of a pivot joint is(are) the: head of the radius articulating with the ulna.
Which joint allows for the widest range of movement? Ball and socket
Physiological muscle fatigue may be caused by: a relative lack of ATP, high levels of lactate, failure of the sodium-potassium pumps.
The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is that: the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sacs.
Which structure functions to temporarily store calcium ions? Sarcoplasmic reticulum
The type of movement possible at a synovial joint depends on the: shape of the articulating surfaces of the bones.
A gliding joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. multiaxial
An example of a hinge joint is(are) the: interphalangeal joints.
Aerobic respiration: produces the maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule.
Muscle contractions will continue as long as: the calcium ions are attached to the troponin.
Skeletal muscles are innervated by: somatic motor neurons.
Moving a part of the body forward is: protraction.
The ion necessary for cross-bridging is: calcium.
In terms of function, which is considered an immovable joint? Synarthrosis
Moving a body part away from the medial plane of the body is called: abduction.
Cross-bridges are also called: myosin heads
Which of the following terms describes an isometric contraction? Static tension
Glucose can be stored in the muscle as: glycogen
The substance that attracts oxygen in the myoglobin molecule is iron.
White fibers are also called _____ fibers. fast
Which joint allows for a unique movement called opposition? Saddle
The chief function of the T-tubules is to: allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell.
Painful muscle contractions or involuntary twitches are called: cramps.
A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length changes is called a(n) _____ contraction. isotonic
A condyloid joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. biaxial
Created by: jr090697