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| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Windows Deployment Services is a software platform and technology that allows you to preform which function? | Automated network-based installations based on network-based boot and installation media |
| What role does pre-boot execution environment (PXE) play in WDS? | It's used to boot to a WDS server to insall a pre-installation environment . |
| How do you mount a Windows image using dsim.exe so that you can update it? | Offline |
| Windows PE 4.0 is based on which operating system? | Windows 8 |
| the initial configuration of WDS includes setup of what other server? | DHCP |
| Where do you place a discover image to ensure proper deployment? | On bootable media |
| Which of the following is the most efficient method of using WDS on a very large network? | Unattended installation using PXE boot |
| Which of the following describes the WDS boot.wim image file? | It loads Windows PE 4.0 on the client computer |
| What is the default port number for WSUS synchronization? | 8530 |
| WSUS allows you to automatically approve every update, but you shouldn't necessarily do that. What should you do before approving updates to be installed? | Test the updates on your own systems before approving for rollout. |
| If Windows Update fails to retrieve updates, what should you check first? | Internet Explorer proxy settings |
| Other than the default computer group, how many other groups may a computer be assigned to in WSUS? | one |
| Which of the following best describes a critical update? | It is high priority but not security related. |
| Which of the following is the best example of when you need to restart the Windows Update service? | after you make a configuration change |
| Microsoft classifies its updates into general categories. What is the definition of important updates? | They offer significant benefits, such as improved security, privacy, and reliability. |
| Microsoft classifies its updates into general categories. What is the definition of optional updates? | They include updates, drivers, or new software from Microsoft to enhance your computing experience |
| When you set a service to start automatically with delayed start, how long is the delay? | Two minutes |
| If you install SQL Server and a third-party backup service on the same system, what rule should you follow when creating service accounts? | Use separate accounts for both services. |
| Microsoft's new Event Viewer allows you to collect events from remote computers and store them locally. By what name is this collection of events known? | event subscription |
| The Reliability Monitor provides a range of numbers to help you evaluate the reliability of a computer. What is the name of this range of numbers? | Stability Index |
| To examine performance correctly, you must establish a performance baseline. When do you perform this task? | during normal usage |
| Task Manager is not a definitive performance tool because it gives you what kind of look at computer performance? | quick glance |
| Which tool allows you to best monitor resource usage on a virtual machine host and its individual virtual machines? | Hyper-V Resource Metering |
| When reading events in the Event Viewer, you need to recognize the designated levels or classifications. What is the definition for the Warning level? | An issue has occurred that can impact service or result in a more serious problem if action is not taken. |
| When reading events in the Event Viewer, you need to recognize the designated levels or classifications. What is the definition for the Critical level? | A failure has occurred from which the application or component that triggered the event cannot automatically recover. |
| What are DFS Namespace shared folders referred to in relation to the virtual folders? | Targets |
| The default namespace mode is Windows Server 2008, which supports up to 50,000 folders. How many folders does using non-Windows Server 2008 provide? | 5,000 |
| DFS Replication does not replace the need for backups because of what feature of replication? | It replicates deleted, changed, and corrupted files. |
| Which replication topology is more efficient than the default replication topology and allows you to set bandwidth, timing, and directionality to your configuration? | hub/spoke |
| What type of resolution model does DFS Replication use to resolve simultaneous-write conflicts? | last-writer wins |
| What type of special cache folder does each replication folder use to hold files ready to be replicated? | staging folder |
| Which of the following is an advantage of disabling automatic auto-recovery for DFS databases when the DFSR service stops abnormally? | You have the opportunity to fix any underlying problems and to back up the existing replicated folders before recovery begins |
| When DFS Replication and DFS Namespace are combined into a single service offering, the pair creates what type of file sharing service? | fault tolerant |
| When setting target priority on a root target for a domain-based namespace, you can override referral ordering and select the priority you want to use. What does the "First among targets of equal cost" option specify? | Users should be referred to this target before other targets of equal cost (which usually means other targets in the same site). |
| When setting target priority on a root target for a domain-based namespace, you can override referral ordering and select the priority you want to use. What does the "First among all targets" option specify? | Users should always be referred to this target if the target is available. |
| What type of service is the Windows File Server Resource Manager? | role |
| What technology did Microsoft develop to combat the storage of storage-using and potentially illegal files on corporate servers? | File Screening |
| Some exemptions might be required for certain groups to store otherwise restricted file types. What type of exemption can you set up on folders? | file screen exception |
| What FSRM feature can you use to show the state of file server volumes, quotas, and disallowed files? | Storage Reports |
| When using File System Resource Manager which group must you be a member of to enable SMTP | Administrators |
| You can generate several different reports from FSRM. One of them gives you a list of Least Recently Accessed Files. What would be the purpose of that report? | To allow you to archive unused files |
| What is the purpose of setting soft quotes? | To notify users that they have reached the quota limit |
| If you were asked to set up a shared file area for users that prevented them from saving video files or images of any kind, what would you set up on that shared folder? | Active file screen with included and excluded file groups |
| You can use FSRM to create several different types of storage reports that show the state of server volumes and anyone who exceeds the quotas or uses files that aren't allowed. What does a Least Recently Accessed Files storage report show? | a list of files that have not been accessed for a specified number of days |
| You can use FSRM to create several different types of storage reports that show the state of server volumes and anyone who exceeds the quotas or uses files that aren't allowed. What does a Quota Usage storage report show? | a list of quotas that exceed a specified percentage of the storage limit |
| An encrypted file can be converted back to its original format by a process known as what? | decryption |
| Public-key cryptography uses how many keys? | two |
| What is one purpose of using hash function encryption? | to store passwords in a non-readable format |
| EFS encryption is what type of feature that can be enabled or disabled at will, similar in effect to read-only, compression, or hidden? | attribute |
| If you're a command-line user, what command will encrypt files and folders? | cipher.exe |
| On what type of computer is BitLocker not commonly used? | servers |
| Where is the most secure location to store secure key recovery information? | in Active Directory |
| BitLocker has multiple operational modes for OS drives that define the steps involved in the boot process. Match the TPM only BitLocker mode with its correct description. | The system stores the BitLocker volume encryption key on the TPM chip and accesses it automatically when the chip has determined that the boot environment is unmodified. This unlocks the protected volume and the computer continues to boot. |
| Authentication is used for what purpose? | to verify a user's identity |
| Auditing is used for what purpose? | recording user's actions |
| Why should you avoid using basic audit policy settings and advanced audit policy settings together? | Audit policies might cause conflicts or erratic behavior |
| Where can you view audit events? | in Security logs in Event Viewer |
| By using what type of policy can you track, limit, or deny a user's ability to use removable storage devices such as USB drives in Windows Server 2012? | Removable Storage Access |
| When resetting audit settings back to basic mode, what file must you remove as part of the process? | audit.csv |
| Why are success audits as important as failure audits? | Successes allow you to track activity such as new account creation |
| The powerful auditpol.exe command-line utility is widely used in automated scripting solutions. Select the correct action for the auditpol.exe /remove /allusers command. | Remove the per-user audit policy for all users |
| The powerful auditpol.exe command-line utility is widely used in automated scripting solutions. Select the correct action for the auditpol.exe /clear command. | Delete the per-user audit policy for all users, reset or disable the system audit policy for all subcategories, and then set the audit policies settings to disable |
| The Domain Name System (DNS) works much like a phone book to associate URLs (names) with what kinds of numbers? | IP addresses |
| What type of structure does DNS have? | hierarchical distributed |
| Which of the following is an example of a second-level domain? | blah.com |
| What is another term for DNS client? | DNS Resolver |
| By using the Active Directory-integrated zone, DNS follows what kind of model? | multi-master |
| What is one advantage of subdomains? | They allow you to break up larger domains into smaller, more manageable ones |
| What is the first and most important step in installing and deploying DNS in your network? | planning the infrastructure and service requirements |
| By default, zone transfers are disabled. You can choose one of three different zone transfer methods. Which of the following describes the Only to servers listed on the Name Servers tab method? | restricts zone transfers to secondary DNS servers as defined with NS resource records |
| By default, zone transfers are disabled. You can choose one of three different zone transfer methods. Which of the following describes the Only to the following servers method? | restricts zone transfers to those servers specified in the accompanied list |
| What is another designation for an Alias? | canonical name or CNAME |
| If you have a server named server1.blah.com, want to use it as your web server, and have requests point to www.blah.com, what kind of DNS record would you create? | a CNAME record |
| Which command do you use to verify local DNS settings? | ipconfig /all |
| Which DNS record contains the serial number for the zone? | SOA record |
| You can use the dnscmd command to create zones. What other tasks can you perform with it? | delete resource records |
| Which one of the following is correct for querying a PTR record? | nslookup 192.168.1.50 |
| If you issue the command nslookup 192.168.1.50 and get no response, but then issue nslookup server1 and receive 192.168.1.50 as a response, what do you know is wrong? | The PTR record doesn't exist. |
| DNS servers contain several different types of resource records with which you need to become familiar. Select the correct definition for Host (A and AAAA) records. | maps a domain/host name to an IP address |
| DNS servers contain several different types of resource records with which you need to become familiar. Select the correct definition for Canonical Name (CNAME) records. | identifies an alias for a host name |
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