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Question	Answer
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808224_dynA.jpg	Receptor-hormone complex
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808224_dynB.jpg	Receptor-hormone complex
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808224_dynC.jpg	>>Receptor-hormone complex
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808225_dynA.jpg	Hormonal
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808225_dynB.jpg	Hormonal
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808225_dynC.jpg	>>Hormonal
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808226_dynA.jpg	Hypophyseal portal veins
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808226_dynB.jpg	Hypophyseal portal veins
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808226_dynC.jpg	>>Hypophyseal portal veins
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808226_dynD.jpg	Hypophyseal portal veins
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808226_dynE.jpg	Hypophyseal portal veins
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808227_dynA.jpg	Iodine is attached to tyrosine in colloid
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808227_dynB.jpg	Iodine is attached to tyrosine in colloid
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808227_dynC.jpg	>>Iodine is attached to tyrosine in colloid
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808227_dynD.jpg	Iodine is attached to tyrosine in colloid
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808227_dynE.jpg	>>Thyroglobulin colloid is combined with lysosome
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808227_dynF.jpg	Iodine is attached to tyrosine in colloid
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808228_dynA.jpg	Cortex
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808228_dynB.jpg	>>Cortex
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808228_dynC.jpg	Cortex
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808228_dynD.jpg	>>Zona fasciculata
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808228_dynE.jpg	Cortex
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808228_dynF.jpg	Zona fasciculata
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808229_dynA.jpg	Blood glucose levels rise
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808229_dynB.jpg	Blood glucose levels rise
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808229_dynC.jpg	Blood glucose levels rise
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808229_dynD.jpg	Glucagon
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808229_dynE.jpg	Blood glucose levels rise
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808229_dynF.jpg	>>Blood glucose levels rise
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig161A.jpg	>>Produces hormones and is considered a neuroendocrine organ.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig161B.jpg	>>Storehouse for the hormones produced by the hypothalamus of the brain.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig161C.jpg	>>Produce steroid hormones and glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig161D.jpg	>>Produces the hormones that promote the development of the female secondary sexual characteristics at puberty.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig161E.jpg	>>Produces the hormones that direct the production of the secondary male sex characteristics.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig162A.jpg	>>Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH).
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig162B.jpg	>>Prolactin-releasing hormone (PRH).
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig162C.jpg	>>Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig162D.jpg	>>Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH).
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig162E.jpg	>>Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH).
Which of the following is a steroid hormone?	>>Testosterone
Which of the following is NOT a major endocrine organ, but produces hormones in addition to its major function?	Pituitary
Acromegaly is a condition resulting from the over-secretion of	thyroid hormones.
Hormonal action is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT	selectivity for specific protein receptors.
Steroid hormones influence cellular activities by	changing the permeability of the cell membrane.
Sympathetic nerve stimuli are responsible for the release of	aldosterone.
The action of hormones on living cells does NOT include	control of the secretory functions of the cell.
The adrenal gland produces the following hormones EXCEPT	cortisone.
The chemical classification of hormones does NOT include	amino acid-based hormones.
The growth-promoting functions of GH do NOT include	>>increasing the rate of glucose uptake.
The hypothalamus DIRECTLY controls the secretions of the	mammary gland.
The metabolic rate of most body tissues is controlled directly by	>>TH.
The secretion of parathyroid hormone is a good example of	neural stimuli.
The stimulus for producing insulin is	low glycogen concentration.
The transcription of new messenger RNA is a function of	catecholamines.
What is the life span of most hormones?	>>0 - 30 minutes
Which hormone is NOT secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?	GH
Which of the following elements is required for the synthesis of thyroid hormone?	>>Iodine
Which of the following organs do NOT have a known endocrine function?	Stomach
The general function of parathyroid hormones is	regulation of blood levels of glucose.
The hypophyseal portal system transports releasing and inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus to the	ovaries.
Which of the following hormones is produced by the posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis) and causes uterine contractions during childbirth?	Growth hormone
Adrenal hormones that help control the balance of minerals and water in the blood are	mineralocorticoids produced by the adrenal medulla.
A hormone produced by the pancreas that decreases blood sugar levels is	thyroid hormone.
Which of the following signals would affect local cells by releasing chemicals into the extracellular fluid?	Neural
Which of the following is the property in which a hormone can NOT exhibit its full effect without another hormone?	Synergism
Which of the following is NOT a true hormone, but rather a trophic substance?	Aldosterone
Which of the following organs is considered a neuroendocrine organ?	the adrenal gland
Eicosanoids are not true hormones because they	>>they act locally, not on distal organs like true hormones.
All of the following apply to water soluble hormones except that	they are coupled with one or more intracellular messengers.
Which of the following hormones could enter the cell?	>>thyroxine
How do protein kinases affect enzymes?	They increase the secretion of an enzyme.
The " hormone response element" is located on the cell	membrane.
The binding of a hormone to its "hormone response element" would lead to the	direct activation of enzymes in the cell.
Water-soluble hormones exhibit the shortest	molecule.
The normal endocrine controls can be directly over-ridden by the _________ system.	circulatory
POMC is a prohormone for	insulin.
Insulin-like growth factors stimulate the uptake of	calcium.
Excess growth hormone would cause all the following except	>>suppression of cancer.
Hypersecretion of ADH can occur in all of the following situations except	>>damage to the pineal gland.
Which of the following organs is not affected by thyroxin?	kidney
Iodination of thyroid hormones is mediated by	lysosomes in the cell.
A congenital condition that includes mental retardation, short disproportional body size and a thick tongue and neck is due to	deficiency of thymosin.
Osteitis fibrosa cystica is due to	>>an increase in the parathyroid hormone.
Insulin enhances the membrane transport of glucose in all of the following except the	>>brain.
Which of the following hormones would suppress insulin release?	thyroxine
All of the following statements about melatonin are true except:	It is derived from serotonin.
Resistin, an insulin antagonist, is a hormone produced by the	>>adipose tissue.
Which of the following hormones is not a peptide?	gastrin
Which of the following hormones does the skin produce?	erythropoietin
Somatostatin is considered paracrine because it acts on	>>acts locally on cells other than those that secrete it.
Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of	aldosterone
Normal development of the immune response is due in part to hormones produced by the	adrenal medulla
Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through intracellular	ions
Which of the following is not a category of endocrine gland stimulus?	>>enzyme
Chemical substances secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids that regulate the metabolic function of other cells in the body are called	enzymes
The hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract	connects the hypophysis to the pituitary gland
Tropic hormones	>>include ACTH and TSH
Growth hormone	is also called somatostatin
Oxytocin	>>release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
ADH	increases urine production
Thyroid hormone exerts its influence by	>>entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei
Gonadocorticoid(s)	synthesized by the adrenal medulla are primarily androgens
Sometimes prolonged excessive exposure to high hormone concentrations causes a phenomenon known as	diabetes mellitus
Which of the following is not a change that may be caused by hormonal stimulus?	a change in membrane potential
The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on	the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the circulatory path
Several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary gland is through the	hepatic portal system
The neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland because	it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal release
Insulin, a small (51-amino-acid) protein, is synthesized by the beta cells of the pancreas. This hormone is released	in excessive amounts in obese people
Steroid hormones exert their action by	>>entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene
The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by	synthesizing more of the hormone than is actually needed
Hormones often cause a cell to elicit multiple responses; this is because	there are thousands of receptors on the cell membrane
Cells that respond to peptide hormones usually do so through a sequence of biochemical reactions involving receptor and kinase activation. In order for cells to respond, it is necessary for first and second messengers to communicate. This is possible beca	peptide hormones always enter the cell membrane and elicit a response without assistance from other messengers
Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to	insulin, because insulin is a small peptide
When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight -or-flight response, a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome is	estrogen
One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the following describes this mechanism?	the rapid oxidation of carbohydrates
The major targets of growth hormone are	the blood vessels
The parathyroid glands maintain adequate levels of blood calcium. This is accomplished through	blocking the action of growth hormone
Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP?	>>the heart
Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to	testosterone
Leptin is secreted by	lymphocytes
The most important regulator of electrolyte concentrations in extracellular fluids is	insulin
Which of the following is not a steroid-based hormone?	estrogen
Which of the following does not act as a second messenger in second-messenger systems of hormone action?	cyclic AMP
Select the correct statement about the structure or function of chemical messengers.	Prostaglandins are biologically active peptides.
Which of the following would be associated with the action of steroids on cells?	extracellular receptors with a specificity for only a single amino acid sequence on the hormone
Cellular responses to hormones that initiate second -messenger systems include	>>possible activation of several different second -messenger systems
Regulating hormones from the hypothalamus	enter venous circulation and travel to the heart, which pumps the hormone -containing blood to the pituitary
ACTH	is secreted by the posterior pituitary
Which of the following is true about calcium homeostasis?	Increased calcitonin levels will cause increased blood calcium levels.
Aldosterone	is secreted by the neurohypophysis
The only amine hormone to act like a steroid is	>>TH
Which organ does not have hormone production?	heart
In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as	the cell's sensitivity reaction
Eicosanoids do not include	paracrines
A man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain this problem.	FSH stimulates estrogen secretion by ovarian cells; therefore it is not synthesized by males.
Which of the following organs is affected by thyroid hormone in adults?	>>liver
Thyroxine is a peptide hormone, but its mechanism is different from other peptide hormones. Which of the following statements is true concerning this difference?	It causes positive feedback.
Factors that inhibit TSH release do not include	growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GHIH)
Glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress. They accomplish this by	>>increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure
What ion is sometimes used as a second messenger of amino acid -base hormones?	Iron
Adenohypophysis	ADH
Neurohypophysis	>>ADH
Thyroid gland	ADH
Adrenal gland	ADH
Pineal gland	ADH
FSH	>>Stimulates development of the follicle in the ovaries
GH	Stimulates development of the follicle in the ovaries
ACTH	Stimulates development of the follicle in the ovaries
TSH	Stimulates development of the follicle in the ovaries
ADH	Stimulates development of the follicle in the ovaries
Insulin	Decrease in body metabolism
ADH	Decrease in body metabolism
Aldosterone	Decrease in body metabolism
Thyroxine	>>Decrease in body metabolism
Parathyroid hormone	Decrease in body metabolism
Thyroid stimulating hormone	Increases contractions of uterine smooth muscle
Growth hormone	Increases contractions of uterine smooth muscle
Oxytocin	>>Increases contractions of uterine smooth muscle
Adrenocorticotropic hormone	Increases contractions of uterine smooth muscle
Follicle-stimulating hormone	Increases contractions of uterine smooth muscle
TSH	Released from posterior pituitary; causes kidneys to conserve water
FSH	Released from posterior pituitary; causes kidneys to conserve water
LH	Released from posterior pituitary; causes kidneys to conserve water
Oxytocin	Released from posterior pituitary; causes kidneys to conserve water
ADH	>>Released from posterior pituitary; causes kidneys to conserve water
Prolactin	Raises blood Ca2+ levels
Oxytocin	Raises blood Ca2+ levels
Thyroxine	Raises blood Ca2+ levels
Calcitonin	Raises blood Ca2+ levels
Parathyroid hormone	>>Raises blood Ca2+ levels
Calcitonin	Adrenal cortex
Parathyroid hormone	Adrenal cortex
Adrenocorticotropic Hormones	Adrenal cortex
Glucocorticoids	>>Adrenal cortex
Epinephrine	Adrenal cortex
Pineal gland	>>Melatonin
Testes	Melatonin
Thymus	Melatonin
Heart	Melatonin
Placenta	Melatonin
Melatonin	Associated with sexual maturity in males; needed for normal sperm production
Testosterone	>>Associated with sexual maturity in males; needed for normal sperm production
Thymosin	Associated with sexual maturity in males; needed for normal sperm production
Atrial natriuretic peptide	Associated with sexual maturity in males; needed for normal sperm production
HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)	Associated with sexual maturity in males; needed for normal sperm production
Adipose tissue	Erythropoietin
Skin	Erythropoietin
Kidney	>>Erythropoietin
Duodenum of small intestine	Erythropoietin
Stomach	Erythropoietin
Leptin	Stimulates the stomach to release hydrochloric acid
Cholecalciferol	Stimulates the stomach to release hydrochloric acid
Erythropoietin	Stimulates the stomach to release hydrochloric acid
Cholecystokinin	Stimulates the stomach to release hydrochloric acid
Gastrin	>>Stimulates the stomach to release hydrochloric acid
Glucagon	>>Pancreas
TSH	Pancreas
Thyroxine	Pancreas
Renin	Pancreas
ADH	Pancreas
Glucagon	>>Increases the blood sugar level by stimulating the liver
TSH	Increases the blood sugar level by stimulating the liver
Thyroxine	Increases the blood sugar level by stimulating the liver
Erythropoietin	Increases the blood sugar level by stimulating the liver
ADH	Increases the blood sugar level by stimulating the liver
FSH & LH	Gonadocorticoids
Cortisol	Gonadocorticoids
Androgens	>>Gonadocorticoids
Aldosterone	Gonadocorticoids
Gonadotropins	Increase blood levels of glucose, fatty acids and amino acids during stress
Glucocorticoids	>>Increase blood levels of glucose, fatty acids and amino acids during stress
Androgens	Increase blood levels of glucose, fatty acids and amino acids during stress
Mineralocorticoids	Increase blood levels of glucose, fatty acids and amino acids during stress
Posterior pituitary	Aldosterone
Anterior pituitary	Aldosterone
Pancreas	Aldosterone
Adrenal cortex	>>Aldosterone
Adrenal medulla	Aldosterone
Antidiuretic hormone	>>Causes kidneys to conserve water
Growth hormone	Causes kidneys to conserve water
Insulin	Causes kidneys to conserve water
Aldosterone	Causes kidneys to conserve water
Epinephrine	Causes kidneys to conserve water
Lowered levels of Ca2+ in the blood. (is Restored By)	Aldosterone
Too much Ca2+ in the blood (is Restored By)	Aldosterone
Elevated levels of blood sugar (is Restored By)	Aldosterone
Decreased levels of blood sugar (hypoglycemia) (is Restored By)	Aldosterone
Excessive loss of Na+ in extracellular fluids (is Restored By)	>>Aldosterone
The end of a nine month pregnancy (is Restored By)	Adrenal cortex
Loss of Na+ from profuse sweating (is Restored By)	>>Adrenal cortex
High blood sugar due to eating too many sweets (is Restored By)	Adrenal cortex
Drop in blood levels of Ca2+ due to extreme inactivity (is Restored By)	Adrenal cortex
Delayed or stunted growth (is Restored By)	Adrenal cortex
Gigantism	Oversecretion of catecholamines
Diabetes mellitus	Oversecretion of catecholamines
Sympathetic nervous system overactivity	>>Oversecretion of catecholamines
Grave''s disease	Oversecretion of catecholamines
Diabetes insipidus	Oversecretion of catecholamines
Zona reticularis	Mineralocorticoids
Zona glomerulosa	>>Mineralocorticoids
Zona fasciculata	Mineralocorticoids
Beta cells	Mineralocorticoids
Alpha cells	Mineralocorticoids
Humoral	Axons cause hormone release
Neural	>>Axons cause hormone release
Hormonal	Axons cause hormone release
An autoimmune problem involving the thyroid gland.	Pituitary dwarfism
Hyposecretion of growth hormone.	>>Pituitary dwarfism
Hyposecretion of the pancreas.	Pituitary dwarfism
Hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex.	Pituitary dwarfism
Hypersecretion of growth hormone.	Pituitary dwarfism
Hyposecretion of the thyroid in adults.	Cretinism
Hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex.	Cretinism
Hypersecretion of growth hormone.	Cretinism
Hyposecretion of the thyroid in infants.	>>Cretinism
The size and shape of a pea; produces hormones that stimulate other endocrine glands.	Parathyroid
The gland that controls the fight-or-flight reaction.	Parathyroid
Produces hormones that regulate glucose levels in the body.	Parathyroid
Produces a hormone that controls blood levels of calcium and potassium by their removal from bone tissue.	>>Parathyroid
Produces the body's major metabolic hormones.	Parathyroid
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808333_dynA.jpg	Erythrocytes
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808333_dynB.jpg	Erythrocytes
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808333_dynC.jpg	Erythrocytes
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808333_dynD.jpg	>>Erythrocytes
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808334_dynA.jpg	Monocytes
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808334_dynB.jpg	Monocytes
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808334_dynC.jpg	>>Monocytes
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808334_dynD.jpg	Monocytes
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808334_dynE.jpg	Monocytes
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808335_dynA.jpg	Reticulocyte
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808335_dynB.jpg	Reticulocyte
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808335_dynC.jpg	Reticulocyte
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808335_dynD.jpg	Reticulocyte
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808335_dynE.jpg	>>Reticulocyte
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808336_dynA.jpg	>>Monocyte
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808336_dynB.jpg	Monocyte
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808336_dynC.jpg	Monocyte
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808336_dynD.jpg	Monocyte
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808337_dynA.jpg	Fibrin
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808337_dynB.jpg	Fibrin
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808337_dynC.jpg	Fibrin
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808337_dynD.jpg	Fibrin
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808337_dynE.jpg	>>Fibrin
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808337_dynF.jpg	Platelet plug formation
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig171A.jpg	>>Main bacteria killer during acute infections.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig171A.jpg	>>Most common white blood cell found in whole blood.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig171A.jpg	>>Neutrophil.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig171B.jpg	>>Becomes a macrophage.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig171B.jpg	>>Monocyte.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig171C.jpg	>>Eosinophil.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig171C.jpg	>>Kills parasitic worms.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig171D.jpg	>>Lymphocyte.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig171D.jpg	>>Mounts an immune response by direct cell attack or via antibodies.
A healthy adult male individual contains about ___ liters of blood.	1-2
A major plasma protein that maintains the blood osmotic pressure is	globulin.
Blood group O	>>is a universal donor because they can give blood to all other groups.
Diapedesis refers to	the secretion of chemicals that trigger the inflammatory process.
During the life cycle of red blood cells,	RBCs have life span of about 70 -80 days.
Granulocytes do NOT include	eosinophils.
Mature red blood cells in the circulating blood are filled with	smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
Pernicious anemia may result from	abnormal production of hemoglobin due to genetic defect.
Renal dialysis patients usually suffer from anemia because	the failed kidney destroys large number of RBCs.
The final step in clot formation is	the release of chemical by platelets.
The most numerous leukocyte is the	eosinophil.
The terms biconcave and anucleated apply to	thrombocytes.
When red blood cells transport respiratory gases	both oxygen and carbon dioxide combine to the globin portion.
Which leukocyte contains histamine in its granules?	Monocytes
Which of the following is a protective function of blood?	Transporting hormones from endocrine organs to target tissues
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of blood?	Its temperature is slightly higher than the body's temperature.
Which of the following statements about platelets is INCORRECT?	Platelets contain serotonin, ADP, calcium and PDGF.
Which property do white blood cells have in common?	>>WBC are nucleated and have a protective function.
Which statement is NOT a factor in stimulating the production of erythropoietin by the kidneys?	>>Living by the sea coast
Individuals with malaria have a better chance of surviving if they have the following type of anemia.	Athlete's anemia
Which of the following types of white blood cells kills parasitic worms; destroys antibody complexes; and inactivates some inflammatory chemicals of allergy?	Lymphocytes
Which of the following is a function of neutrophils?	Seal small tears in blood vessels
Which of the following is a function of erythrocytes?	Release histamine
Which of the following is a function of basophils?	>>Release histamine during allergic reaction
Which of the following would NOT normally be found in circulating blood?	Neutrophil
Which of the following is a function of lymphocytes?	Carry oxygen
Which of the following is a function of fibrinogen?	Transport blood gases
The percentage of total volume used to determine the number of erythrocytes in a blood sample is referred to as the	>>hematocrit.
The buffy coat that appears after a sample of blood has been centrifuged contains	serum.
Which of the following statements about whole blood is incorrect?	It accounts for about 8% of the body weight.
The RBC biconcave shape is maintained by a protein known as	hemoglobin.
Which of the following plasma proteins are not produced by the liver?	beta globulins
Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on making RBCs very efficient oxygen transporters?	>>They generate ATP by anaerobic mechanisms and do not consume any of the oxygen they carry.
All of the following would occur if hemoglobin was free in the plasma rather than being contained in the erythrocyte except that the	viscosity of blood would increase.
Another term for reduced hemoglobin is	carbaminohemoglobin.
The first step in formation of a mature RBC from a hemocytoblast is the	proerythroblast differentiated into a reticulocyte.
Which of the following substances does not contain iron?	ferritin
____________ is an illustration of iron deficiency seen in individuals who have expanded their blood by increased activity.	>>Athlete's anemia
The process of actively metabolizing oxygen to produce bleach and hydrogen exhibited by polymorphs to kill bacteria is known as	>>respiratory burst.
In addition to basophils, _____________ found in connective tissue can release histamine when they bind to IgE antibodies.	macrophages
Which of the following leukocytes is the largest?	basophils
The diagnostic feature of infectious mononucleosis is	an increase in the size of a monocyte.
Which of the following substances is responsible for limiting a platelet plug to the immediate area of damage?	serotonin
Factor XIII is known as the	>>fibrin stabilizing factor.
Erythroblastosis fetalis is due to	>>Rh incompatibility between an Rh-negative mother and her Rh-positive baby during pregnancy.
Which of the following plasma expanders would be associated with the least complications.	>>Ringer's solution
Which of the following has the most affinity for oxygen?	Hemoglobin A
Prefluorinated hydrocarbon chains can be used instead of	antibodies.
85% of Americans carry the ______ Rh agglutinogen on their RBCs.	C
Preformed antibodies to the ABO blood group antigens first appear in a	fetus.
Which antibodies would be found in the serum of a person with AB blood?	Both anti-B and anti-A antibodies.
______ is a pivotal molecule associated with the external surfaces of aggregated platelets and is involved in the intrinsic and extrinsic mechanisms of blood clotting.	PGI2
What is the average normal pH of blood?	8.4
The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is	hemoglobin A
Together, leukocytes and platelets comprise approximately	percent of total blood volume.
Which blood type is called the universal donor?	A
Which of the following is a regulatory function of blood?	delivery of oxygen to body cells
Which of the following is a protective function of blood?	prevention of blood loss
Which of the following is not a phase of erythropoiesis?	>>production of ribosomes
Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?	>>hypoxia of EPO-producing cells
As red blood cells age	ATP production increases
An individual who is blood type AB negative	>>can receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen
The most abundant plasma protein is	globulin
When neither anti-A nor anti-B clots on a blood plate, the blood is type	A
Select the correct statement regarding blood cell formation.	The main sites of blood cell production in adults are the spleen and the liver.
Blood volume restorers include all of the following except	dextran
James has a hemoglobin measurement of 16 g/100 ml blood. This is	above normal
Which of these is not a normal plasma protein?	fibrinogen
All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except	high hematocrit
No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in	>>monocytes
Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis?	vascular spasm
Which of the following are not currently known red blood cell antigens?	>>Carson
Place the following in correct developmental sequence: 1. reticulocyte 2. proerythroblast 3. normoblast 4. late erythroblast	1, 2, 3, 4
A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B 12 and large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of	aplastic anemia
The slowest step in the clotting process is	>>formation of prothrombin activator
Thromboembolic disorders	result in uncontrolled bleeding
Which of the following is not a cause of bleeding disorders?	thrombocytopenia, a condition of decreased circulating platelets
Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?	>>They are nucleated.
Which of the following is true about blood plasma?	It is the same as serum but without the clotting proteins.
Platelets	>>stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break
Select the correct statement regarding age-related blood disorders.	>>They include anemias and thromboembolic disorders.
Which sequence is correct for the following events? 1. fibrinogen to fibrin 2. clot retraction 3. formation of thromboplastin 4.	prothrombin to thrombin
Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean?	>>There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.
Which of the following is a precursor of a basophil?	megakaryoblast
Sickling of red blood cells can be produced in those with sickle-cell anemia by	travel at high altitude
All of the following conditions impair coagulation except	>>vascular spasm
When can erythroblastosis fetalis not possibly happen in the child of an Rh negative mother?	if the child is type O positive
Complications of aplastic anemia generally do not include	>>increase of leukocytes as a result of erythrocyte loss
Blood is a	colloid
What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?	>>Kidney
The shelf life of whole collected blood at 4° C is about	days.
Differentiate into macrophages	Basophils
Form a temporary plug at the site of bleeding	Basophils
Increase in number significantly during bacterial infections	Basophils
Play a critical role in immunity	Basophils
Contain the anticoagulant heparin granules	>>Basophils
Have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies	Blood group AB
Have both antigens A and B	>>Blood group AB
Have only anti-A antibody	Blood group AB
Have the antigen A	Blood group AB
Distribution	Preventing infection
Regulation	Preventing infection
Protection	>>Preventing infection
Water	Involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
Albumin	Involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
Globulins	>>Involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
Non-protein nitrogenous substances	Involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
Electrolytes	Involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response
Porphyria	>>Caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of non-functional hemoglobin molecules
Hemorrhagic anemias	Caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of non-functional hemoglobin molecules
Aplastic anemia	Caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of non-functional hemoglobin molecules
Iron-deficiency anemia	Caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of non-functional hemoglobin molecules
Sickle-cell anemia	Caused by defective synthesis of heme groups and production of non-functional hemoglobin molecules
Neutrophils	>>The most numerous of white blood cells; stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains
Eosinophils	The most numerous of white blood cells; stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains
Basophils	The most numerous of white blood cells; stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains
Agranulocytes	The most numerous of white blood cells; stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains
Platelets	The most numerous of white blood cells; stain pale lilac since the very fine granules take up both acid and basic stains
Von Willebrand factor (VWF)	Catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
Tissue factor (TFIII) or tissue thromboplastin	Catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
Prothrombin	Catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
Thrombin	>>Catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
Serum	Catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin strands
Buffy coat	The liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else.
Hematocrit	The liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else.
Plasma	>>The liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else.
Nucleus has two lobes; contains granules of lysosomal enzymes; functions in attacking parasitic worms.	Basophil
Nucleus is multilobed; functions as a phagocyte; contains fine indistinct granules.	Basophil
Transports CO2 and oxygen.	Basophil
Contains a U- or an S-shaped nucleus; granules stain very dark; releases histamine and heparin.	>>Basophil
Largest of the WBCs; crucial in defense against viruses; associated with chronic infections.	Basophil
The major contributor to plasma osmotic pressure.	Fibrinogen
Thrombin catalyzes the activation of these molecules present in plasma.	>>Fibrinogen
Forms the structural framework of a blood clot.	>>Fibrinogen
Makes up most of plasma protein.	Fibrinogen
Transport proteins that bind to lipids and fat-soluble vitamins.	>>Beta globulins
Floating intravascular clot.	Beta globulins
Any decrease in oxygen-carrying ability of the blood.	Beta globulins
Coagulation.	Beta globulins
Polymorphonuclear leukocyte.	Hemoglobin
White blood cell with dark-staining nucleus.	Hemoglobin
Protein capable of changing shape and color in the presence of O2.	>>Hemoglobin
Adverse reaction of donor blood cells with recipient plasma.	Hemoglobin
Lacking in hemophilia type A.	Hemoglobin
Constitutes 90% of plasma volume.	Spectrin
Plasma and formed elements.	Spectrin
Liquid portion of the blood.	Spectrin
A fibrous protein that gives shape to an RBC plasma membrane.	>>Spectrin
A clot that develops in an unbroken blood vessel.	Spectrin
Stem cell from which all formed elements arise.	Erythropoietin
Interferes with blood-clotting ability.	Erythropoietin
A hormone-stimulating erythropoiesis.	>>Erythropoietin
Found in basophils.	Erythropoietin
Deficient erythrocyte production due to lack of intrinsic factor and failure to absorb vitamin B12.	Erythropoietin
Released from platelets.	Erythropoietin
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808422_dynA.jpg	Endocardium
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808422_dynB.jpg	Endocardium
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808422_dynC.jpg	Endocardium
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808422_dynD.jpg	Pericardial cavity
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808422_dynE.jpg	Endocardium
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808422_dynF.jpg	>>Endocardium
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808423_dynA.jpg	Great cardiac vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808423_dynB.jpg	>>Great cardiac vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808423_dynC.jpg	Right coronary artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808423_dynD.jpg	Great cardiac vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808423_dynE.jpg	Great cardiac vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808423_dynF.jpg	Great cardiac vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808424_dynA.jpg	>>Pulmonary arteries
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808424_dynB.jpg	Pulmonary arteries
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808424_dynC.jpg	Pulmonary arteries
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808424_dynD.jpg	Pulmonary arteries
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808425_dynA.jpg	Anterior interventricular artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808425_dynB.jpg	Anterior interventricular artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808425_dynC.jpg	Anterior interventricular artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808425_dynD.jpg	Anterior interventricular artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808425_dynE.jpg	Anterior interventricular artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808425_dynF.jpg	>>Anterior interventricular artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808426_dynA.jpg	Purkinje fibers
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808426_dynB.jpg	Purkinje fibers
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808426_dynC.jpg	Purkinje fibers
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808426_dynD.jpg	Purkinje fibers
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808426_dynE.jpg	>>Purkinje fibers
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808427_dynA.jpg	>>Atrial depolarization
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808427_dynB.jpg	Atrial depolarization
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808427_dynC.jpg	Atrial depolarization
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808428_dynA.jpg	Atrial contraction
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808428_dynB.jpg	>>Atrial contraction
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808428_dynC.jpg	Atrial contraction
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808428_dynD.jpg	Atrial contraction
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808428_dynE.jpg	Atrial contraction
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig181A.jpg	>>SA node.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig181B.jpg	>>AV node.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig181C.jpg	>>AV bundle.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig181D.jpg	>>Bundle branches.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig181E.jpg	>>Purkinje fibers.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig182A.jpg	>>Atrial depolarization.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig182D.jpg	>>Point after which pressure begins to rise in the aorta.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig182E.jpg	>>Point that represents the "dup" sound made by the heart.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig182E.jpg	>>Ventricular repolarization.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig183A.jpg	>>Normal sinus rhythm.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig183B.jpg	>>Junctional rhythm.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig183C.jpg	>>Second-degree heart block.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig183D.jpg	>>Ventricular fibrillation.
Cardiac Output is	the amount of blood pumped out of the heart during every ventricular contraction.
Choose the correct sequence of current flow through the heart wall.	AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches
During pulmonary circulation blood leaves the	>>right ventricle and moves to the lungs.
During systemic circulation, blood leaves the	>>left ventricle and goes directly to the aorta.
During the spike of an action potential in a cardiac muscle cell	K+ channels open to let K+ move into the cell.
Identify the correct sequence of blood flow through the chambers of the heart.	Left ventricle, left atrium, lungs, right ventricle, right atrium
The absolute refractory period refers to the time during which	the muscle cell is ready to respond to any stimulus.
The cardiac cycle includes all of the following events EXCEPT	the movement of impulse from the SA node to all regions of the heart wall.
The coronary arteries arise from the	pulmonary trunk.
The endocardium is composed of	stratified squamous epithelium.
The inferior vena cava brings blood from the lower regions of the body and empties into the	Aorta.
The inner lining of the fibrous pericardium is formed by the	diaphragm.
The interventricular septum forms a dividing wall between the	right atrium and right ventricle.
The P-wave is a measure of	ventricular depolarization.
The pacemaker of the heart is the	the bundle branches.
The tricuspid valve is located between the	>>right atrium and right ventricle.
When the mitral valve closes, it prevents the backflow of blood from the	left atrium into the left ventricle.
Which is the correct sequence of layers in the heart wall, starting with the outer layer?	Myocardium, pericardium, endocardium
Which of the following statements is NOT true about the shape, position and location of the heart?	The heart is shaped like a cone with the base facing the right shoulder.
Which statement about the extrinsic innervation of the heart is NOT true?	>>Sympathetic impulses travel through the vagus nerve.
The vessels that carry oxygen to the myocardial cells are called	>>coronary arteries.
The cells of the myocardium behave as a single coordinated unit called a	>>functional syncytium.
The ability of some cardiac muscle cells to initiate their own depolarization and cause depolarization of the rest of the heart is called	absolute refractory period.
Guided by powerful signaling molecules, the human heart develops from	ectoderm.
Which of the following is an age-related change of the heart that affects function?	Increase in cardiac reserve
Which of the following vessels is most likely to supply the anterior left ventricular myocardium?	Marginal artery
Which of the following drains blood DIRECTLY from the myocardium?	IVC
Which of the following is the cause of the "plateau" in cardiac muscle action potentials?	Sodium ion influx
Which of the following structures lies on the outside surface of the heart and is an integral part of the cardiac wall?	the pericardial sac
Which of the following structures is continuous with the inner lining of blood vessels?	the epicardium
The fossa ovalis is located in the	>>interatrial septum.
The trabeculae carneae are located in the	atrium.
What part of the heart is considered the systemic circuit pump?	the left atrium
If the circumflex artery of the heart was blocked, the myocardium in the _________________ would be ischemic.	the lateral aspects of the heart
Attached to the AV valve flaps are the	trabeculae carneae.
Blood spurts back into the _____________ when the right atrium contracts.	pulmonary veins
Which of the following valves is most often faulty in the heart?	>>the mitral or bicuspid valve
The myocardium functions as a functional syncytium due to	>>the presence of gap junctions.
Which of the following factors gives the myocardium its high resistance to fatigue?	the presence of intercalated discs
All but which of the following statements about autorhythmic myocardial cells are correct?	>>They are the first myocardial cells to contract.
Autorhythmic cardiac cells are found in all the following location except the	Purkinje cells.
Which of the following is clinically significant as an ectopic pacemaker of the heart?	excessive smoking
The _________ nerve carries parasympathetic fibers to the SA node.	accessory
The cardioacceleratory center fibers are part of the	>>sympathetic nervous system.
An enlarged R wave on an ECG would indicate	>>an enlarged ventricle.
The pacemaker potential produced in autorhythmic cells is due to the presence of	>>a continuously depolarizing membrane that slowly reaches threshold.
Which of the following ions has the greatest affect on the autorhythmic capabilities of the myocardium?	>>Ca2+
Which of the following events would cause the gap junctions between cardiac cells to close?	premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)
A doctor puts his stethoscope on a patient's chest over the location of the heart and hears a swishing sound. Which of the following conditions is the best diagnosis for the patient's condition?	>>incompetent cardiac valve
The end diastolic volume is the	volume of blood in the atria at the end of atrial relaxation.
The phase in the cardiac cycle in which the ventricles are completely closed and the volume of blood in them is constant is referred to as the	>>isovolumetric contraction phase.
The dicrotic notch observed on tracing of blood pressure recording is due to	pulmonary semilunar valve closure.
Positive inotropic agents	cause hemolysis of blood clots.
Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events?	excitation of the SA node
Cardiac reserve	is determined by your genes and not subject to improvement
Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes	>>a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output
The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to	accommodate a greater volume of blood
Damage to the	is referred to as heart block.
The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates	ventricular repolarization
Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the	right atrium
Small muscle masses attached to the chordae tendineae are the	trabeculae carneae
The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart that may be caused by the transient spasm of coronary arteries is	ischemia
To auscultate the aortic valve, you would place your stethoscope	>>in the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the	coronary sinus
When the heart is beating at a rate of 75 times per minute, the duration of one cardiac cycle is second(s).	>>0.8
Which of the following factors does not influence heart rate?	>>skin color
Which of the following is not an age-related change affecting the heart?	atherosclerosis
If cardiac muscle is deprived of its normal blood supply, damage would primarily result from	>>decreased delivery of oxygen
Cardiac muscle cells are like skeletal muscle cells in that they	have gap junctions
Cardiac output is about	L/min.
The pericardial cavity	is another name for the chambers of the heart
If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells	it would be much longer before cardiac cells could respond to a second stimulation
Norepinephrine acts on the heart by	decreasing heart contractility
If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that	the heart would stop, since the vagal nerves trigger the heart to contract
Foramen ovale	>>connects the two atria in the fetal heart
The stroke volume for a normal resting heart is	ml/beat.
Which vessel of the heart receives blood during right ventricular systole?	venae cavae
Blood ejected from the ventricles enters which of these vessels during ventricular systole?	aorta only
Which of the following is not part of the conduction system of the heart?	AV node
The tricuspid valve is closed	while the ventricle is in diastole
When viewing a dissected heart, it is easy to visually discern the right and left ventricles by	tracing out where the auricles connect
Select the correct statement about the heart valves.	The mitral valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle.
Select the correct statement about the function of myocardial cells.	>>The all-or-none law as applied to cardiac muscle means that the entire heart contracts as a unit or it does not contract at all.
Select the correct statement about the structure of the heart wall.	The fibrous skeleton forms the bulk of the heart.
Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle	>>has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium
Cardiac muscle	has proportionally fewer mitochondria than skeletal muscle
The deflection waves in an ECG tracing include	the P wave, which is present only in patients who have had a heart attack
During the period of ventricular filling	pressure in the heart is at its peak
The effect of endurance-type athletic training may be to lower the resting heart rate. This phenomenon	is a sign of dangerous overexertion
The second heart sound is heard during which phase of the cardiac cycle?	>>isovolumetric relaxation
The time of day most hazardous for heart attacks is	>>morning
If a significant amount of connective tissue were to develop connecting the visceral and parietal pericardial layers together, which of the following would be a likely consequence?	>>interference with normal mechanical cardiac activity
If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid,	>>threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase
Select the correct statement about cardiac output.	>>A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction.
During contraction of heart muscle cells	the action potential is initiated by voltage -gated slow calcium channels
Isovolumetric contraction	>>refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers
Commotio cordis is heart failure due to a	mild electrical shock
Negative chronotropic factors are factors that	decrease afterload
Atrial depolarization	QRS complex
Ventricular depolarization	>>QRS complex
Ventricular repolarization	QRS complex
A faster depolarizing pacemaker	QRS complex
A slower depolarizing pacemaker	QRS complex
Brings oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium	Pulmonary trunk
The right ventricle sends blood into this vessel	>>Pulmonary trunk
Brings oxygen-poor blood from the lower body to right atrium	Pulmonary trunk
Brings oxygen-poor blood from the upper body to right atrium	Pulmonary trunk
The left ventricle sends blood into this vessel	Pulmonary trunk
Fibrous pericardium	Inner layer of pericardium (called the visceral layer)
Serous pericardium	Inner layer of pericardium (called the visceral layer)
Epicardium	>>Inner layer of pericardium (called the visceral layer)
Myocardium	Inner layer of pericardium (called the visceral layer)
Endocardium	Inner layer of pericardium (called the visceral layer)
Right atrium (sends blood to)	Aorta
Right ventricle (sends blood to)	Aorta
Left atrium (sends blood to)	Aorta
Left ventricle (sends blood to)	Aorta
Coronary artery (sends blood to)	>>Aorta
Left atrium and left ventricle	Pulmonary semilunar valve
Left ventricle and aorta	Pulmonary semilunar valve
Right atrium and right ventricle	Pulmonary semilunar valve
Right ventricle and pulmonary artery	>>Pulmonary semilunar valve
Right atrium	>>Tricuspid valve
Right ventricle	Tricuspid valve
Left atrium	Tricuspid valve
Left ventricle	Tricuspid valve
Superior vena cava (Destination)	The lungs
Pulmonary veins (Destination)	The lungs
Aorta (Destination)	The lungs
Pulmonary artery (Destination)	>>The lungs
Coronary artery (Destination)	The lungs
SV	The frequency at which the heart beats.
EDV	The frequency at which the heart beats.
ESV	The frequency at which the heart beats.
CO	The frequency at which the heart beats.
HR	>>The frequency at which the heart beats.
The inner lining of the heart.	Parietal layer
Heart muscle.	Parietal layer
Serous layer covering the heart muscle.	Parietal layer
The outermost layer of the serous pericardium.	>>Parietal layer
The pacemaker of the heart.	AV node
Found in the interventricular septum.	AV node
Network found in the ventricular myocardium.	AV node
The point in the conduction system of the heart where the impulse is temporarily delayed.	>>AV node
Prevents backflow into the left ventricle.	Tricuspid valve
Prevents backflow into the right atrium.	>>Tricuspid valve
Prevents backflow into the left atrium.	Tricuspid valve
Prevents backflow into the right ventricle.	Tricuspid valve
AV valve with two flaps.	Tricuspid valve
AV valve with three flaps.	>>Tricuspid valve
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808515_dynA.jpg	Lumen
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808515_dynB.jpg	Lumen
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808515_dynC.jpg	Lumen
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808515_dynD.jpg	Lumen
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808515_dynE.jpg	>>Lumen
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808515_dynF.jpg	Internal elastic lamina
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808516_dynA.jpg	>>Elastic arteries
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808516_dynB.jpg	Elastic arteries
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808516_dynC.jpg	Elastic arteries
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808516_dynD.jpg	Elastic arteries
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808516_dynE.jpg	Muscular arteries
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808516_dynF.jpg	Elastic arteries
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808517_dynA.jpg	Postcapillary venule
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808517_dynB.jpg	Postcapillary venule
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808517_dynC.jpg	Postcapillary venule
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808517_dynD.jpg	Postcapillary venule
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808517_dynE.jpg	>>Postcapillary venule
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808518_dynA.jpg	Stimulate cardio-inhibitory center/inhibit vasomotor center
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808518_dynB.jpg	Stimulate cardio-inhibitory center/inhibit vasomotor center
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808518_dynC.jpg	>>Stimulate cardio-inhibitory center/inhibit vasomotor center
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808518_dynD.jpg	Stimulate cardio-inhibitory center/inhibit vasomotor center
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808518_dynE.jpg	Stimulate cardio-inhibitory center/inhibit vasomotor center
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808518_dynF.jpg	Stimulate cardio-inhibitory center/inhibit vasomotor center
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808519_dynA.jpg	>>Declining blood pressure
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808519_dynB.jpg	Declining blood pressure
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808519_dynC.jpg	Declining blood pressure
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808519_dynD.jpg	Declining blood pressure
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808519_dynE.jpg	Declining blood pressure
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808519_dynF.jpg	Declining blood pressure
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808520_dynA.jpg	Posterior communicating artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808520_dynB.jpg	Posterior communicating artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808520_dynC.jpg	Posterior communicating artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808520_dynD.jpg	>>Posterior communicating artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808520_dynE.jpg	Posterior communicating artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808520_dynF.jpg	Posterior communicating artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808521_dynA.jpg	Common iliac artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808521_dynB.jpg	Common iliac artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808521_dynC.jpg	Common iliac artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808521_dynD.jpg	Common iliac artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808521_dynE.jpg	Common iliac artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808521_dynF.jpg	>>Common iliac artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808522_dynA.jpg	External iliac artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808522_dynB.jpg	>>External iliac artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808522_dynC.jpg	External iliac artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808522_dynD.jpg	External iliac artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808522_dynE.jpg	External iliac artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808522_dynF.jpg	External iliac artery
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808523_dynA.jpg	Brachiocephalic vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808523_dynB.jpg	Brachiocephalic vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808523_dynC.jpg	Brachiocephalic vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808523_dynD.jpg	Brachiocephalic vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808523_dynE.jpg	Brachiocephalic vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808523_dynF.jpg	>>Brachiocephalic vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808524_dynA.jpg	Axillary vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808524_dynB.jpg	Axillary vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808524_dynC.jpg	>>Axillary vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808524_dynD.jpg	Axillary vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808524_dynE.jpg	Axillary vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808524_dynF.jpg	Axillary vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808525_dynA.jpg	Inferior mesenteric vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808525_dynB.jpg	Inferior mesenteric vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808525_dynC.jpg	Inferior mesenteric vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808525_dynD.jpg	Inferior mesenteric vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808525_dynE.jpg	>>Inferior mesenteric vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808525_dynF.jpg	Inferior mesenteric vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808526_dynA.jpg	Internal iliac vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808526_dynB.jpg	>>Internal iliac vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808526_dynC.jpg	Internal iliac vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808526_dynD.jpg	Internal iliac vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808526_dynE.jpg	Internal iliac vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808526_dynF.jpg	Internal iliac vein
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig191A.jpg	>>Capillary with intercellular clefts.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig191B.jpg	>>Capillary found in endocrine organs that allows hormones to gain rapid entry into the blood.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig191B.jpg	>>Capillary found where active capillary absorption of filtrate occurs.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig191C.jpg	>>Capillary that may contain Kupffer cells.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig191C.jpg	>>Sinusoid capillary.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig192A.jpg	>>Hepatic portal vein.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig192B.jpg	>>Splenic vein.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig192C.jpg	>>Right gastroepiploic vein.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig192D.jpg	>>Inferior mesenteric vein.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig192E.jpg	>>Superior mesenteric vein.
During pulmonary circulation, blood leaves the	>>right ventricle and moves to the lungs.
During systemic circulation, blood leaves the	>>left ventricle and goes directly to the aorta.
The coronary arteries arise from the	pulmonary trunk.
The endothelium is composed of	simple cuboidal epithelium.
The inferior vena cava brings blood from the lower regions of the body and empties into the	left atrium.
Which is the correct sequence of layers in the vessel wall from outside to inside?	Tunica media, tunica interna, tunica externa
Which of the following is the major force generating blood flow?	Blood viscosity
The major long-term mechanism of blood pressure control is provided by the	>>kidneys.
Blood enters the myocardium of the heart by coronary vessels that originate from the	the inside of the ventricles.
Exchange of gases and nutrients occurs by diffusion between the	>>capillaries and tissue cells.
Any condition in which blood vessels are inadequately filled and blood cannot circulate normally is called	hypertension.
Reduction in lumen diameter of a blood vessel as the smooth muscle contracts is known as	varicose veins.
The only vessels that provide direct access to nearly every cell in the body are the	arterioles.
Which of the following regulates blood flow at the entrance to each true capillary?	Tunica interna
Loss of vasomotor tone resulting in a huge drop in peripheral resistance is known as	hypertension.
Which of the following arteries branches to form the common hepatic artery, left gastric artery, and splenic artery?	Superior mesenteric artery
Which of the following veins is the longest in the body?	>>Great saphenous vein
Which of the following terms would not be used to describe arteries?	>>converging
Which of the layers of an artery wall is regulated by the sympathetic nervous system and many hormones?	inner layer
Which of the following types of blood vessels have the thickest tunica media of all vessels?	>>distributing arteries
_____________ can compete with plasminogen but lacks clot dissolving ability and may contribute to the formation of atherosclerotic plaques.	Cytomegalovirus
All of the following statements about conducting arteries are true except:	They are the most elastic of all arteries.
The minute-to-minute blood flow through the capillary beds is determined by the	constriction of elastic arteries.
Nitrous oxide	accelerates thrombus formation.
The presence of ___________ stabilizes the wall of capillaries.	valves
All but which of the following blood vessels contain intercellular clefts?	fenestrated capillaries
The flow of blood from an arteriole to a venule is called the	hepatoportal circulation.
A metarteriole is a vessel that	>>intermediate between the arteriole and the capillary bed.
Which of the following conditions would not increase the chances of developing varicose veins?	standing to attention for long periods of time
At any given time, up to 65% of the body's blood supply is found in	arteries.
All the following are examples of sinuses except	>>capillary sinuses.
Most neural controls of blood pressure involve input from baroreceptors that are sensitive to	the level of carbon dioxide in the blood.
Reactive hyperemia is due to the effect of all of the following except	vasoconstriction of blood reservoirs to assure that more blood flows to the skeletal muscle.
An elastic lamina on both sides of the tunica media is a characteristic of	all arteries.
Which of the following blood vessels is the most susceptible to atherosclerosis?	>>the aorta
Which of the following conditions would decrease the peripheral resistance?	dehydration
Which of the following is not one of the three main factors influencing blood pressure?	cardiac output
Which of the following chemicals does not help regulate blood pressure?	ADH
Which statement best describes arteries?	All carry oxygenated blood to the heart.
Which tunic of an artery contains endothelium?	>>tunica intima
Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of	arterioles
The circulatory route that runs from the digestive tract to the liver is called	>>hepatic portal circulation
The arteries that are also called distributing arteries are the	elastic arteries
Aldosterone will	>>promote an increase in blood pressure
The pulse pressure is	systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure
Which of the following signs of hypovolemic shock is a relatively late sign?	cold, clammy skin
Which of the following is likely during vigorous exercise?	Blood will be diverted to the digestive organs.
Continuous capillaries	have fenestrations to facilitate the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to tissues
Which of the following is true about veins?	Venous valves are formed from the tunica media.
Venous anastomoses	often occlude, causing death if located in a vital area
Peripheral resistance	decreases with increasing length of the blood vessel
Brain blood flow autoregulation	is less sensitive to pH than to a decreased oxygen level
Blood flow to the skin	is controlled mainly by decreasing pH
Select the correct statement about the movement of materials at the capillary level.	Oxygen diffuses up its concentration gradient.
Which of the following is a type of circulatory shock?	hypovolemic, caused by increased blood volume
Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?	tunica intima
The influence of blood vessel diameter on peripheral resistance is	the only factor that influences resistance
The form of circulatory shock known as hypovolemic shock is	only that form of shock caused by large -scale loss of blood
In the dynamics of blood flow through capillaries, hydrostatic pressure	does not play a role
The hepatic portal vein	is actually an artery
The term ductus venosus refers to	a fetal shunt that bypasses the lungs
The term blood islands refers to	>>embryonic masses of mesodermal cells that give rise to the endothelial lining of blood vessels
Which of the following has anastomosing vessels?	retina
Which of the following do not influence arterial pulse rate?	activity
Which of the following are involved directly in pulmonary circulation?	superior vena cava, right atrium, and left ventricle
Histologically, the	is squamous epithelium supported by a sparse connective tissue layer.
The arteries that directly feed into the capillary beds are called	muscular arteries
Fenestrated capillaries	are not more permeable than continuous capillaries
Modified capillaries that are lined with phagocytes are called	sinuses
Factors that aid venous return include all except	activity of skeletal muscles
Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension?	120/80 in a 30-year-old man
Select the correct statement about factors that influence blood pressure.	An increase in cardiac output corresponds to a decrease in blood pressure, due to the increased delivery.
Mechanisms that do not help regulate blood pressure include	nervous control that operates via reflex arcs involving pressoreceptors, chemoreceptors, and higher brain centers
The velocity of blood flow	is in direct proportion to the total cross-sectional area of the blood vessels
Select the correct statement about blood flow.	It is relatively constant through all body organs.
A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of blood to the	left side of the head and neck
Cerebral blood flow is regulated by	skin temperature
A patient with essential hypertension might have pressures of 200/120 mm Hg. This hypertensive state could result in all of the following changes except	increased work of the left ventricle
The short-term controls of blood pressure, mediated by the nervous system and bloodborne chemicals, do not primarily operate via	reflex arcs involving baroreceptors
Secondary hypertension can be caused by	obesity
Where in the body would you find low oxygen levels causing vasoconstriction and high levels causing vasodilation?	kidney
Normal blood pressure for a newborn baby is	120/80
Brings oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium	Superior vena cava
The right ventricle sends blood into this vessel	Superior vena cava
Brings oxygen-poor blood from the lower body to right atrium	Superior vena cava
Brings oxygen-poor blood from the upper body to right atrium	>>Superior vena cava
The left ventricle sends blood into this vessel	Superior vena cava
Tunica externa (tunica adventitia)	Contains the endothelium (made of simple squamous epithelium)
Tunica interna (tunica intima)	>>Contains the endothelium (made of simple squamous epithelium)
Tunica media	Contains the endothelium (made of simple squamous epithelium)
Vessel lumen	Contains the endothelium (made of simple squamous epithelium)
Tunica externa	Provides a space for blood to travel through vessel
Tunica media	Provides a space for blood to travel through vessel
Tunica interna	Provides a space for blood to travel through vessel
Vessel lumen	>>Provides a space for blood to travel through vessel
Elastic arteries	Smaller arteries that distribute blood to specific body organs
Muscular arteries	>>Smaller arteries that distribute blood to specific body organs
Arterioles	Smaller arteries that distribute blood to specific body organs
Capillaries	Smaller arteries that distribute blood to specific body organs
Venules	Smaller arteries that distribute blood to specific body organs
Veins	Smaller arteries that distribute blood to specific body organs
Blood flow	The force per unit area exerted on a vessel wall by the contained blood
Blood pressure	>>The force per unit area exerted on a vessel wall by the contained blood
Resistance	The force per unit area exerted on a vessel wall by the contained blood
Blood viscosity	The force per unit area exerted on a vessel wall by the contained blood
Total blood vessel length	The force per unit area exerted on a vessel wall by the contained blood
Pulmonary artery	>>First vessel leaving the pulmonary side of the heart to carry blood to the lungs
Pulmonary arterioles	First vessel leaving the pulmonary side of the heart to carry blood to the lungs
Pulmonary capillaries	First vessel leaving the pulmonary side of the heart to carry blood to the lungs
Pulmonary venules	First vessel leaving the pulmonary side of the heart to carry blood to the lungs
Pulmonary veins	First vessel leaving the pulmonary side of the heart to carry blood to the lungs
Brachial artery	The only branches of the ascending aorta
Left subclavian artery	The only branches of the ascending aorta
Brachiocephalic trunk	The only branches of the ascending aorta
Coronary arteries	>>The only branches of the ascending aorta
Common carotid arteries	The only branches of the ascending aorta
Largest artery of the body.	>>Aorta
Supplies the kidney.	Aorta
Supplies the duodenum and stomach.	Aorta
Supplies the distal areas of the large intestine.	Aorta
Supplies pelvic structures.	Aorta
Artery that does not anastomose.	Aorta
Gives rise to the right common carotid and right subclavian artery.	External iliac artery
Supplies the lower limbs.	>>External iliac artery
Common site to take the pulse.	External iliac artery
Major supply to the cerebral hemispheres.	External iliac artery
Large unpaired branch of the abdominal aorta.	External iliac artery
Abdominal aorta splits to form two.	External iliac artery
Receives blood from all areas superior to the diaphragm, except the heart wall.	Axillary artery
Carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.	Axillary artery
Drains the scalp.	Axillary artery
Runs through the armpit area.	>>Axillary artery
Drains the upper extremities, deep vein.	Axillary artery
Artery usually palpated to take the blood pressure.	Femoral artery
Major artery of the thigh.	>>Femoral artery
Supplies the small intestine.	Femoral artery
Carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs.	Femoral artery
Longest vein in the body, superficial.	Femoral artery
Site where resistance to blood flow is greatest.	Large veins
Site where exchanges of food and gases are made.	Large veins
Site where blood pressure is lowest.	>>Large veins
Site where the velocity of blood flow is fastest.	Large veins
Site where the velocity of blood flow is slowest.	Large veins
Site where the blood volume is greatest.	>>Large veins
Site where the blood pressure is greatest.	Large veins
Site that is the major determinant of peripheral resistance.	Large veins
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808586_dynA.jpg	>>Cervical nodes
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808586_dynB.jpg	Cervical nodes
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808586_dynC.jpg	Cervical nodes
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808586_dynD.jpg	Cervical nodes
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808586_dynE.jpg	Cervical nodes
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808587_dynA.jpg	Trabeculae
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808587_dynB.jpg	Trabeculae
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808587_dynC.jpg	Trabeculae
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808587_dynD.jpg	Trabeculae
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808587_dynE.jpg	Trabeculae
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808587_dynF.jpg	>>Trabeculae
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808588_dynA.jpg	Thymus
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808588_dynB.jpg	>>Thymus
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808588_dynC.jpg	Thymus
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808588_dynD.jpg	Thymus
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808588_dynE.jpg	Thymus
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808589_dynA.jpg	Red pulp
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808589_dynB.jpg	Red pulp
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808589_dynC.jpg	Red pulp
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808589_dynD.jpg	>>Red pulp
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808589_dynE.jpg	Red pulp
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808589_dynF.jpg	Red pulp
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig201A.jpg	>>Entrance of thoracic duct into subclavian vein.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig201B.jpg	>>Axillary node(s).
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig201C.jpg	>>Thoracic duct.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig201D.jpg	>>Cisterna chyli.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig201E.jpg	>>Lymphatic collecting vessels.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig202A.jpg	>>Trabecula.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig202B.jpg	>>Afferent vessels.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig202C.jpg	>>Cortex.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig202D.jpg	>>Medulla.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig202D.jpg	>>Medullary cord.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig202E.jpg	>>Efferent vessels.
A major function of the lymphatic system is	distribution of nutrients.
Aggregates of lymphoid nodules located in the wall of the ileum are	Werner''s nodes.
Collections of lymphoid tissue (MALT) that guard mucosal surfaces include all the following EXCEPT	lymphoid nodules in the wall of the bronchi.
In addition to lymphoid function, this organ holds a reservoir of platelets.	>>Spleen
People suffering from a throat infection often complain of ""swollen glands."" What is the actual problem?	>>Some of the lymph nodes in the throat are full of bacteria.
The lymphedema condition, caused by tropical parasitic worms, is	>>elephantiasis.
The structural framework of lymphoid tissue is offered by	dense, irregular connective tissue.
This structure attached to the cecum is in an ideal place to destroy bacteria before it migrates into the large intestine.	>>appendix
To assist with lymph return,	lymph vessels possess mini-pumps that drive lymph forward.
What lymphatic structure absorbs excess tissue fluid?	collecting vessel
What lymphatic structure absorbs lipids in the intestine?	>>lacteal
What lymphatic structure forms from the merging of the intestinal and lumbar trunks?	thoracic duct
What lymphatic structures trap bacteria in the posterior oral mucosa?	tubal tonsils
Which area does NOT contain a large collection of lymph nodes?	The lumbar area
Which of the following is located in the spleen''s white pulp regions?	Macrophages
Which of the following are NOT found in a lymph node?	Follicles/nodules
Which sequence best describes the flow of lymph through the lymphatic system?	Ducts - trunks - capillaries - vessels
Which statement below describes the lymphatic system''s role in relation to the cardiovascular system?	It is the primary source for regulation of blood pressure.
Which statement is true of the thoracic duct?	It only drains lymph from the arms.
Which statement is true regarding lymph nodes?	There is a dense collection located in the feet and hands.
Which of the following best describes the arrangement of lymphatic vessels?	A system that carries lymph through lymphatic arteries, lymphatic capillaries, and lymphatic veins
Which of the following statements is true when comparing large lymphatic vessels to larger veins of the circulatory system?	Larger lymphatic vessels have thicker layers and no valves.
Which of the following is the major lymphoid organ that ""trains"" T-lymphocytes to become immunocompetent?	Tonsils
Which of the following make up the principle lymphoid organs in the body?	Tonsils
The lymphoid organs, located in the throat, that defend against invading bacteria coming in through the mouth and nose are	Peyer''s patches
Which of the following is NOT a lymphatic organ?	>>Macrophage
Which of the following is found lining the lymphatic sinuses of the lymph nodes?	B cells
Which of the following statements about the spleen is false?	>>It is best to perform a splenectomy if the spleen is damaged in a car accident.
Which of the following vessels transport fluid that leaks from the vascular system back into the blood?	capillaries
Excess tissue fluid in the brain drains into the	blood.
Lacteals are specialized	lymphatics in the respiratory tract.
The lymph from all but the right side of the head and the right arm and right thorax is drained by the	lacteals.
Lymphangitis presents itself as	tender lymph nodes that are filled with pus.
Which of the following features is not common to both lymphatic collecting ducts and veins?	the presence of valves
When B-lymphocytes are dividing rapidly the _____ of the lymphoid tissue enlarges.	>>germinal centers
Where are plasma cells found in the node?	>>in the medullary cords
Large lymph capillaries spanned by criss-crossing reticular fibers are known as	medullary cords.
Which of the following cells would not be found in a germinal center in a lymph node?	follicular dendrite cells
Where is the site of erythrocyte production in the fetus?	thymus
Areas of lymphocytes suspended by reticular fibers in the spleen are known as	medullary cords.
Thymic corpuscles are composed of	maturing T-lymphocytes.
The hormones of the thymus are secreted by the	cortex.
Which of the following does not contribute to lymph transport?	>>being located adjacent to large veins
The lymphatic structure that arises anterior to the first two lumbar vertebrae is known as the	right thoracic duct.
Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic vessels?	>>providing a maturation site for lymphocytes
Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of	mononucleosis.
A sentinel node is the first lymph node	that contains mature lymphocytes.
Small organs associated with lymphatic vessels are termed	lymph follicles
Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic structure?	>>pancreas
The distal portion of the small intestine contains clumps of lymph follicles called	islets of Langerhans
Both lymph and venous blood flow are heavily dependent on	the pumping action of the heart
The thymus is most active during	fetal development
Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the right upper limb and the right side of the head and thorax?	lumbar trunk
What effect does age have on the size of the thymus?	The size of the thymus increases continuously from birth to death.
The lymphatic capillaries are	>>more permeable than blood capillaries
Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by	T lymphocytes
Lymph leaves a lymph node via	>>efferent lymphatic vessels
By secreting hormones, the thymus causes what cells to become immunocompetent?	basophils
Functions of the spleen include all of those below except	removal of old or defective blood cells from the blood
When the lymphatics are blocked due to tumors, the result is	shrinkage of tissues distal to the blockage due to inadequate delivery of lymph
Select the correct statement about lymph transport.	Under normal conditions, lymph vessels are very high -pressure conduits.
Select the correct statement about lymphocytes.	The two main types are T cells and macrophages.
Select the correct statement about lymphoid tissue.	Once a lymphocyte enters the lymphoid tissue, it resides there permanently.
A ring of lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n)	>>tonsil
Which is not a mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue?	tonsil
Peyer's patches are found in the	stomach
Lymph collecting or pooling from the lower extremities would first pool in the before moving on up.	thoracic duct
What is a bubo?	a wall in a lymph node
The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not:	have lymphocytes
Particularly large clusters of lymph nodes occur in all of the following locations except the	inguinal region
Digestive tract-associated lymphatic tissue includes all of the following except	Peyer's patches
Functions of the lymphatic system include	>>transport of excess tissue fluid to the blood vascular system
The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the	>>lingual tonsils
Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph?	water
A sentinel node is	a lymph node found in the intestinal lamina propria
Lymphatic capillary	Fuses into junction of left subclavian and internal jugular vein
Lymphatic trunk	Fuses into junction of left subclavian and internal jugular vein
Lymph node	Fuses into junction of left subclavian and internal jugular vein
Right lymphatic duct	Fuses into junction of left subclavian and internal jugular vein
Thoracic duct	>>Fuses into junction of left subclavian and internal jugular vein
Appendix	Causes T cells to become immunocompetent
Lymph nodes	Causes T cells to become immunocompetent
Spleen	Causes T cells to become immunocompetent
Thymus	>>Causes T cells to become immunocompetent
Tonsils	Causes T cells to become immunocompetent
Lymphatic capillaries	Same three tunics as veins; second smallest lymph vessels
Lymphatic collecting vessels	>>Same three tunics as veins; second smallest lymph vessels
Lymphatic trunks	Same three tunics as veins; second smallest lymph vessels
Lymphatic tissue	Same three tunics as veins; second smallest lymph vessels
Lymph node	Same three tunics as veins; second smallest lymph vessels
Lymphatic capillaries	Distinct bean-shaped structures that "filter" lymph fluid as it is moved toward the circulatory system
Lymphatic collecting vessels	Distinct bean-shaped structures that "filter" lymph fluid as it is moved toward the circulatory system
Lymphatic ducts	Distinct bean-shaped structures that "filter" lymph fluid as it is moved toward the circulatory system
Lymphoid tissue	Distinct bean-shaped structures that "filter" lymph fluid as it is moved toward the circulatory system
Lymph nodes	>>Distinct bean-shaped structures that "filter" lymph fluid as it is moved toward the circulatory system
Afferent lymphatic vessels	>>Vessels leading into lymph node
Subcapsular sinus	Vessels leading into lymph node
Hilus	Vessels leading into lymph node
Efferent lymphatic vessels	Vessels leading into lymph node
Spleen	Small lymphoid tissues found in digestive and respiratory tracts
Thymus gland	Small lymphoid tissues found in digestive and respiratory tracts
Tonsils	Small lymphoid tissues found in digestive and respiratory tracts
Peyer's patches	Small lymphoid tissues found in digestive and respiratory tracts
Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT)	>>Small lymphoid tissues found in digestive and respiratory tracts
B cell	Deep cortex
T cell	>>Deep cortex
Dendritic cells	Deep cortex
Plasma cells	Deep cortex
Macrophages	Deep cortex
MALT	Provides a large, blood-filled site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response; cleanses the blood
Peyer's patches	Provides a large, blood-filled site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response; cleanses the blood
Tonsils	Provides a large, blood-filled site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response; cleanses the blood
Thymus	Provides a large, blood-filled site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response; cleanses the blood
Spleen	>>Provides a large, blood-filled site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response; cleanses the blood
Protein-containing fluid within lymphatic vessels.	Spleen
Stores blood platelets.	>>Spleen
Part of MALT.	Spleen
Receives lymph from most of the body.	Spleen
Small organs intimately associated with lymphatic vessels.	Spleen
Largest lymphatic organ.	>>Spleen
Isolated clusters of lymph follicles found in the wall of the small intestine.	Spleen
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808670_dynA.jpg	Injection of gamma globulin
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808670_dynB.jpg	Injection of gamma globulin
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808670_dynC.jpg	Injection of gamma globulin
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808670_dynD.jpg	>>Injection of gamma globulin
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808671_dynA.jpg	Inflammation
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808671_dynB.jpg	Inflammation
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808671_dynC.jpg	Inflammation
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808671_dynD.jpg	Inflammation
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808671_dynE.jpg	Inflammation
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808671_dynF.jpg	>>Inflammation
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808672_dynA.jpg	>>Allergen invades and stimulates IgE production
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808672_dynB.jpg	Allergen invades and stimulates IgE production
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808672_dynC.jpg	Allergen invades and stimulates IgE production
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808672_dynD.jpg	Allergen invades and stimulates IgE production
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808672_dynE.jpg	Allergen invades and stimulates IgE production
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808672_dynF.jpg	Allergen invades and stimulates IgE production
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig211A.jpg	>>Antigen-binding site.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig211B.jpg	>>Heavy chain.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig211C.jpg	>>Variable region.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig211D.jpg	>>Light chain.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig211E.jpg	>>Constant region.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig212B.jpg	>>Area where T cells become immunocompetent.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig212C.jpg	>>Area where B cells become immunocompetent.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig212D.jpg	>>Area seeded by immunocompetent B and T cells.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig212D.jpg	>>Area where antigen challenge and clonal selection are most likely to occur.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig212E.jpg	>>Area where activated immunocompetent B and T cells recirculate.
A "foreign" molecule which can invoke the immune response is called a(n)	colony-stimulating factor.
Active artificially acquired immunity is a result of	injection of an immune serum.
Antibodies are produced in cells called	helper T-cells.
Complement proteins work by	neutralization of antigens.
Cytotoxic T cells kill target cells	by phagocytosis.
Lymphocytes that develop immunocompetence in the thymus are	NK cells.
Saliva and lacrimal fluids contain this enzyme that destroys bacteria.	Salivase
The immune cell that allows for subsequent recognition of an antigen resulting in a secondary response is called a(n)	plasma cell.
The primary mechanism of antibody action is	neutralization.
These molecules are secreted by leukocytes and macrophages and result in a fever.	>>Pyrogens
This type of antibody binds to mast cells and basophils, thus invoking inflammation.	>>IgE
This type of disease results from the inability of the immune system to distinguish self from non-self antigens.	Anaphylaxis
When a localized area exhibits increased capillary filtration, hyperemia, and swelling, this is an indication that	antigens are present.
Which cell does NOT have a direct role in phagocytosis?	Neutrophil
Which cells phagocytize antigen-bearing cells and bind them to their MHCs?	Plasma cells
Which cells stimulate both arms of the immune response?	Killer T-cells
Which nonspecific defense cells specialize in attacking cancer cells and virus-infected cells?	>>Natural killer cells
Which of the following is a nonspecific barrier defense?	Complements
Which statement below is characteristic of a secondary humoral response?	It triggers fever.
Which type of molecule is produced by viral-infected cells to communicate to non-infected cells of the presence of a virus?	>>Interferon
Which of the following is NOT a surface barrier to pathogen influx?	>>Complement cascade
Which cells of the innate immune response are responsible for detecting and destroying parasites?	Neutrophils
Which of the following is NOT one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?	Pain
The process that begins when a helper T-cell binds to an MHC class II protein on a displaying cell is known as	T-cell proliferation.
All of the following are examples of autoimmune disorders EXCEPT	>>sickle cell anemia.
All of the following are examples of characteristics of adaptive defenses EXCEPT	they have memory.
Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?	Spleen
Which of the following is the hallmark of the humoral immune response?	Phagocytosis
Which of the following is not an innate defense mechanism of the body?	inflammation
Which of the following does not originate from a monocyte?	Kupffer cells
The ability of a phagocyte to adhere to a particular particle depends on its ability to	coat the particle with protein.
Which of the following statements is false about natural killer cells?	They attach infected or cancerous cells that lack self-surface receptors.
Which of the following inflammatory chemicals is derived from arachidonic acid?	>>prostaglandin
Which of the following steps is the first step in an inflammatory response?	diapedesis
In the respiratory burst, _____________ are released, which have potent cell-killing ability.	>>free radicals
Leukotrienes cause	apoptosis of cells.
Toll-like receptors are found on	mast cells.
Which of the following statements about infectious granulomas is false?	They contain a central region of infected macrophages.
Interferons can be used to treat all of the following except	viral infections.
All of the following are functions of interferon except that	it mobilizes natural killer cells.
Which of the following processes is most similar to complement fixation?	diapedesis
The classical and alternate pathway for complement fixation converge at	the release of factor B, D, and P.
Which of the following minerals needed for bacterial reproduction does both the liver and spleen sequester during a fever?	magnesium
Which of the following does not apply to the specific defensive system?	It is specific.
Antigen is a contraction of	antigen etc.
Which hypersensitivity is caused by T-lymphocytes?	subacute
In the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) restrictive process	immature T-lymphocytes go through apoptosis.
Somatic recombination refers to	the selection of antigens the body will respond to.
All of the following are names of antigen-presenting cells except	Langerhan's cells.
Gene guns are used to shoot	antigens with genes.
T-lymphocytes that bind to an antigen before co-stimulation takes place will cause	>>these lymphocytes to become tolerant to that antigen.
Without __________ there is no adaptive immune response.	plasma cells
Which of the following is characteristic of antibodies?	carbohydrate structure
Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?	long-term immune protection
Which of the following is not a type of T cell?	cytotoxic
B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the	thymus
Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?	prevents the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue
The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by	>>vasodilation
The antibody molecule is held together by	bonds.
In clonal selection of B cells, which substance is responsible for determining which cells will eventually become cloned?	>>antigen
The system that recognizes foreign molecules and acts to immobilize, neutralize, or destroy them is the	integumentary system
The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called	diapedesis
Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called	>>haptens
The chief antibody-mediated mechanism used against cellular antigens, such as bacteria, is	interferon production
The only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells are the	regulatory cells
Select the correct statement about phagocytic cells.	>>Neutrophils may destroy themselves when they phagocytize large quantities of a foreign substance.
______ predominate at the sites of chronic infections.	Basophils
Interferons	are virus-specific, so that an interferon produced against one virus could not protect cells against another virus
______ determine(s) what specific foreign substances our adaptive immune system will be able to recognize and resist.	The type of antigen
Regulatory T cells	release cytokines that increase the activity of cytotoxic T cells and activated B cells
Select the correct definition about tissue grafts.	>>Isografts are between identical twins.
The only immunoglobulin to exist as a pentamer is	IgD
______ are released by activated T cells and macrophages to mobilize immune cells and attract other leukocytes into the area.	>>Cytokines
Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms?	keratin
Which of the following is characteristic of complete antigens?	small molecules
B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by	reducing its size
Graft rejection may be caused by	>>using a xenograft
Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by	>>natural killer cells
Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed	diapedesis
Which of the following is not characteristic of the adaptive immune system?	It is antigen-specific.
Monoclonal antibodies are used for the diagnosis of all of the following except	>>juvenile diabetes
Which of the following would be classified as a delayed hypersensitivity reaction?	immune complex hypersensitivity
Innate immune system defenses include	B cells
Select the correct statement about inflammation.	Only the lymphocyte functions in the transport and release of the mediators of inflammation at the site of injury.
Phagocyte mobilization involves	diapedesis, during which cells line up against the capillary wall
Fever	is a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous
Immunocompetence	occurs in one specific organ of the adaptive immune system
Select the correct statement about the prevention of immune attack on "self."	The development of tolerance is specific to B cells only.
Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity.	Immunological memory is established by passive immunization.
Cytotoxic T cells	>>are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells
Helper T cells	bind tightly to target cells and release a lymphotoxin called perforin
Select the correct statement about immunodeficiency.	Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) disease is an acquired condition.
Which of the following is true of immediate hypersensitives:	also called type IV hypersensitivities
Delayed hypersensitivities	are mediated by B cells
Natural killer (NK) cells	are also called cytotoxic T cells
Select the correct statement about antigens.	"Self-antigens" is another name for incomplete antigens.
Clonal selection of B cells	occurs during fetal development
The primary immune response	occurs more rapidly and is stronger than the secondary response
Select the correct statement about the function of antibodies.	Antibodies may directly destroy "invaders."
There are over	different types of antigen receptors.
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?	multiple sclerosis
Which of the following is not a mechanism for the development of autoimmune disorders?	exposure of previously "hidden" self-antigens to the adaptive immune system
Select the correct statement about complement.	>>An adaptive immune mechanism is often involved in directing complement to its target.
Which of the following is true about the number of binding sites per functional antibody unit?	IgD contains 4 binding sites.
Antibody functions include all of the following except	binding and inactivating chemical toxins released by bacteria or other microorganisms
Which statement is true about T cells?	They usually directly recognize antigens, which then activates a subpopulation of killer cells.
Toll-like receptors (TLRs) trigger the release of	to attract white blood cells to the scene.
Interleukin	inhibits or turns down the immune response.
Tc cells check each cell to see if	each cell has the proper surface code or "identity flag"
Helper T cells	A common APC
Macrophages	>>A common APC
Mast cells	A common APC
Null cells	A common APC
Plasma cells	A common APC
Acid mantle	Characterized by high numbers of neutrophils
Gamma globulin	Characterized by high numbers of neutrophils
Leukocytosis	>>Characterized by high numbers of neutrophils
Opsonization	Characterized by high numbers of neutrophils
Tumor necrosis factor	Characterized by high numbers of neutrophils
Skin	Sticky mucous membrane lined with cilia
Stomach mucosa	Sticky mucous membrane lined with cilia
Saliva and tears	Sticky mucous membrane lined with cilia
Respiratory tract	>>Sticky mucous membrane lined with cilia
Eosinophils	>>Defend against parasitic worms
Neutrophils	Defend against parasitic worms
Macrophages	Defend against parasitic worms
Natural killer cells	Defend against parasitic worms
Hyperemia	The process in which white blood cells are attracted to the site of an injury
Edema	The process in which white blood cells are attracted to the site of an injury
Exudate	The process in which white blood cells are attracted to the site of an injury
Chemotaxis	>>The process in which white blood cells are attracted to the site of an injury
Chemicals released from injured tissues stimulate rapid proliferation and release of cells	Margination
Neutrophils attach to CAMs on the endothelial linings in the injured area	>>Margination
Neutrophils squeeze through walls of capillaries into the tissues	Margination
Inflammatory chemicals attract neutrophils to the injured areas	Margination
Plasma cells	Attack and lyse cells that are not "self"
Memory B-cells	Attack and lyse cells that are not "self"
Helper T-cells	Attack and lyse cells that are not "self"
Cytotoxic T-cells	>>Attack and lyse cells that are not "self"
IgG	Levels greatly elevated during severe allergic responses
IgA	Levels greatly elevated during severe allergic responses
IgE	>>Levels greatly elevated during severe allergic responses
IgM	Levels greatly elevated during severe allergic responses
Immunity gained from being exposed to the pathogen and developing the illness	Active artificial
Immunity gained through injections of dead or attenuated strains of the disease causing agents	>>Active artificial
Immunity gained from transport of antibodies across the placental membrane or through the mother's milk	Active artificial
Immunity gained from injections of clonal antibodies to fight off a current pathogen invasion	Active artificial
Disease that destroys the myelin sheaths of the brain and spinal cord	>>Multiple sclerosis
Thyroid gland becomes hyperactive	Multiple sclerosis
Disease that destroys the linings of joints	Multiple sclerosis
Disease that leads to drooping of facial muscles because the neuromuscular junctions are damaged	Multiple sclerosis
Defenses we are born with	>>Innate
Defenses we gain through life experiences and exposure to antigens	Innate
Harmful microorganisms	Innate
System of proteins that lyse cell membranes	Innate
Proteins that attach to antigen	Innate
First line of defense.	Immune response
Second line of defense.	Immune response
Third line of defense.	>>Immune response
Innate defense system.	Immune response
Adaptive defense system.	>>Immune response
Small proteins secreted by virus-containing cells.	>>Interferon
Major innate mechanism that mediates destruction of foreign substances in the body.	Interferon
Stimulate the proliferation of other lymphocytes.	Interferon
Dampen the activity of both T cells and B cells.	Interferon
Present the double activation signal to T cells.	Interferon
Main antibody of both primary and secondary immune response.	IgE
Protects mucosal barriers.	IgE
Involved in allergies.	>>IgE
Along with IgM, this is a B cell receptor.	IgE
Activates complement.	IgE
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808761_dynA.jpg	Trachea
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808761_dynB.jpg	Trachea
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808761_dynC.jpg	Trachea
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808761_dynD.jpg	>>Trachea
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808761_dynE.jpg	Trachea
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808761_dynF.jpg	Trachea
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808762_dynA.jpg	>>False vocal cord
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808762_dynB.jpg	False vocal cord
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808762_dynC.jpg	False vocal cord
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808762_dynD.jpg	False vocal cord
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808763_dynA.jpg	Segmental (tertiary) bronchus
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808763_dynB.jpg	Segmental (tertiary) bronchus
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808763_dynC.jpg	Segmental (tertiary) bronchus
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808763_dynD.jpg	>>Segmental (tertiary) bronchus
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808764_dynA.jpg	>>Terminal bronchiole
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808764_dynB.jpg	Terminal bronchiole
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808764_dynC.jpg	Terminal bronchiole
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808764_dynD.jpg	Terminal bronchiole
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808764_dynE.jpg	Terminal bronchiole
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808765_dynA.jpg	Respiratory membrane
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808765_dynB.jpg	Respiratory membrane
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808765_dynC.jpg	Respiratory membrane
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808765_dynD.jpg	>>Respiratory membrane
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808766_dynA.jpg	Vital capacity
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808766_dynB.jpg	Vital capacity
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808766_dynC.jpg	Vital capacity
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808766_dynD.jpg	Vital capacity
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808766_dynE.jpg	>>Vital capacity
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808767_dynA.jpg	>>Dissolved in plasma
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808767_dynB.jpg	Dissolved in plasma
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808767_dynC.jpg	Dissolved in plasma
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808767_dynD.jpg	Dissolved in plasma
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808767_dynE.jpg	Dissolved in plasma
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808768_dynA.jpg	Medulla
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808768_dynB.jpg	Medulla
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808768_dynC.jpg	Medulla
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808768_dynD.jpg	>>Medulla
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808768_dynE.jpg	Medulla
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig221A.jpg	>>Pharynx.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig221B.jpg	>>Larynx.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig221C.jpg	>>Trachea.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig221D.jpg	>>Main (primary) bronchus.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig221E.jpg	>>Carina of trachea.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig222A.jpg	>>Inspiratory reserve volume.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig222B.jpg	>>Tidal volume.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig222C.jpg	>>Expiratory reserve volume.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig222D.jpg	>>Air that does not participate in the exchange of gases.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig222D.jpg	>>Residual volume.
Air moves into the lungs because	the volume of the lungs decreases with inspiration.
Alveolar ventilation rate is	movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli.
Hemoglobin has a tendency to release oxygen where	pH is more alkaline.
In the alveoli, the partial pressure of oxygen is	much higher than the PO2 for arterial blood.
Most of the carbon dioxide transported by the blood is	carried by white blood cells.
The elastic cartilage that shields the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the	thyroid cartilage.
The movement of air into and out of the lungs is called	cellular respiration.
This tissue lines the trachea.	Stratified squamous epithelium
Which respiratory measurement is normally the greatest?	Expiratory reserve volume
Which respiratory structure has the smallest diameter?	Pharynx
Involuntary hyperventilation during an anxiety attack may cause the person to become faint due to	effects of increased O2 levels in the blood and consequent constriction of cerebral blood vessels.
Which of the following gases has no effect in the blood until hyperbaric conditions occur (as in SCUBA diving when one stays down too long at great depths), then a condition called ""rapture of the deep"" occurs, producing a narcotic-like effect as this g	Oxygen
Which of the following terms describes the increase in depth and force of breathing that occurs during vigorous exercise?	Anoxia
About 20% of carbon dioxide is transported in the blood as	hydrogen ions.
Which of the following controls the respiratory rate?	Spinal cord
Which of the following is NOT a direct function of the respiratory system?	External respiration
Which of the following is NOT a function of the conducting zone?	>>Gas exchange
Which of the following functions is not performed by the respiratory system?	pulmonary ventilation
The philtrum of the nose is the part that is located	on the anterior margin.
The tubular tonsils arch over the opening to the	oropharynx.
The ____________ cartilage is connected to the vocal cords.	cuneiform
Which of the following statements about voice production is incorrect?	The glottis is wide when deep tones are produced.
Which of the following is not a function of the trachealis muscle?	>>It prevents the trachea from collapsing and keeps it patent despite the pressure changes that take place during breathing.
The smallest subdivision of the lung that is visible to the naked eye is the	bronchiole.
An example of an enzyme located in the lung capillary membrane that acts on material in the blood is	>>angiotensin converting enzyme.
______________ pressure keeps the air spaces in the lung opened.	>>Transpulmonary
Which of the following conditions would not cause atelectasis?	a chest wound that perforates the pleura and allows air into the pleural cavity
Airway resistance is insignificant in relationship to gas flow because	in the respiratory system the airway resistance is not related to the diameter of the conducting tubes.
All of the following would diminish lung compliance except	an increase in alveolar surface tension.
The transpulmonary pressure is the difference between the ____________ and the __________ pressure.	atmospheric; intrapulmonary
Which of the following conditions would not decrease the total respiratory compliance?	paralysis of the intercostal muscles
Which of the following non-respiratory movements would ventilate all of the alveoli?	>>yawning
All of the following would be caused by breathing excessively high concentrations of oxygen for a long period of time except	>>increased mental function.
Which of the following would not directly decrease the alveolar surface involved in gas exchange?	emphysema
_____ secreted by endothelium of blood vessel is a well known vasodilator.	>>NO
Which of the following non-respiratory movements is caused by irritation of the diaphragm?	coughing
The dorsal respiratory group	ends at the pons-medullary junction.
The pontine respiratory group is responsible for all of the following functions except	>>stimulating the contraction of the diaphragm.
Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism of normal breathing patterns?	>>It is set by two sets of pacemakers that inhibit each other.
Which of the following would not be found in a "blue bloater"?	cyanosis
Lung volume reduction surgery could be used to treat	pneumothorax.
Air and food are routed into the proper channels by the	trachea
The loudness of a person's voice depends on	the thickness of vestibular folds
The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II. The function of type II is	>>to secrete surfactant
After the segmental (tertiary) bronchus, the next smaller branch of the respiratory passageway is (are) the	>>terminal bronchioles
The smallest macroscopic subdivision of the lung is the	>>lobule
The pleurae are vital to the integrity of the lungs because	they contain cilia that protect the lungs
Intrapulmonary pressure is the	pressure within the pleural cavity
The relationship between the pressure and volume of gases is given by	>>Boyle's law
The statement, "in a mixture of gases, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of gases in the mixture" paraphrases	Henry's law
Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by	humidifying the air before it enters
For gas exchange to be efficient, the respiratory membrane must be	at least 3 micrometers thick
With the Bohr effect, more oxygen is released because	a decrease in pH (acidosis) strengthens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond
The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is	loss of oxygen in tissues
Nerve impulses from	will result in inspiration.
In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is	>>only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in dissolved form
Which of the following statements is incorrect?	During fetal life, lungs are filled with fluid.
Another name for the inflation reflex is	Bohr
Which of the following does not influence the increase in ventilation that occurs as exercise is initiated?	psychic stimuli
Which of the following is not a form of lung cancer?	adenocarcinoma
Which of the following is not an event necessary to supply the body with O 2 and dispose of CO2?	pulmonary ventilation
Which of the following is not true of the respiratory tract from the medium bronchi to the aveoli?	Cartilage gradually decreases and disappears at the bronchioles.
Which of the following determines lung compliance?	airway opening
Tidal volume is air	remaining in the lungs after forced expiration
The ideal vital capacity of an individual is around	1200 ml
Possible causes of hypoxia include	>>too little oxygen in the atmosphere
The lung volume that represents the total volume of exchangeable air is the	tidal volume
Since the lungs are filled with fluid during fetal life, which of the following statements is true regarding respiratory exchange?	Respiratory exchanges are made through the ductus arteriosus.
Which of the following is not a stimulus for breathing?	rising carbon dioxide levels
Respiratory control centers are located in the	midbrain and medulla
The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called	reserve air
Which statement about CO2 is incorrect?	Its concentration in the blood is decreased by hyperventilation.
Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by	osmosis
Select the correct statement about the pharynx.	The pharyngeal tonsil is located in the laryngopharynx.
The larynx contains	>>the thyroid cartilage
Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract if you were to blow up a balloon?	diaphragm would contract, external intercostals would relax
The oropharynx does not include	fauces
Which of the following is not found on the right lobe of the lung?	middle lobe
Impairments of oxygen transport include	anemic hypoxia, usually caused by congestive heart failure
Which of the following correctly describes mechanisms of CO2 transport?	20% of CO2 is dissolved directly into the plasma.
Factors that influence the rate and depth of breathing include	thalamic control
Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange?	alveolar sacs
The respiratory membrane is a combination of	respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts
Gas emboli may occur because	a person holds his breath too long
Inspiratory capacity is	>>the total amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration
Which center is located in the pons?	>>pontine respirator group (PRG)
The nose serves all the following functions except	as a passageway for air movement
A premature baby usually has difficulty breathing. However, the respiratory system is developed enough for survival by	17 weeks
Which of the following statements is true regarding the respiratory rate of a newborn?	The respiratory rate of a newborn is slow.
Select the correct statement about the neural mechanisms of respiratory control.	>>The pons is thought to be instrumental in the smooth transition from inspiration to expiration.
Which of the following statements is correct?	H+ acts directly on central chemoreceptors to decrease the rate and depth of breathing.
The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall are	the smooth muscles of the lung
The erythrocyte count increases after a while when an individual goes from a low to a high altitude because	the temperature is lower at higher altitudes
Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the	>>ciliated mucous lining in the nose
Which of the following is not possible?	Gas flow equals pressure gradient over resistance.
Select the correct statement about the physical factors influencing pulmonary ventilation.	A decrease in compliance causes an increase in ventilation.
Select the correct statement about oxygen transport in blood:	During normal activity, a molecule of hemoglobin returning to the lungs carries one molecule of O2
Which of these is not a characteristic of emphysema?	>>bronchial edema
Functional residual capacity	>>Volume of air in lungs after normal tidal expiration
Inspiratory reserve	Volume of air in lungs after normal tidal expiration
Tidal volume	Volume of air in lungs after normal tidal expiration
Total lung capacity	Volume of air in lungs after normal tidal expiration
Vital capacity	Volume of air in lungs after normal tidal expiration
Pulmonary ventilation	Movement of oxygen from the blood to tissue cells and of carbon dioxide from tissue cells to blood
Transport of respiratory gases	Movement of oxygen from the blood to tissue cells and of carbon dioxide from tissue cells to blood
Internal respiration	>>Movement of oxygen from the blood to tissue cells and of carbon dioxide from tissue cells to blood
External respiration	Movement of oxygen from the blood to tissue cells and of carbon dioxide from tissue cells to blood
Respiratory zone	Movement of oxygen from the blood to tissue cells and of carbon dioxide from tissue cells to blood
Conducting zone	Movement of oxygen from the blood to tissue cells and of carbon dioxide from tissue cells to blood
Boyle's law	>>Pressure and volume have an inverse relationship. Inspiration increases lung volume by enlarging all of its dimensions; lowers gas pressure inside lungs.
Dalton's law	Pressure and volume have an inverse relationship. Inspiration increases lung volume by enlarging all of its dimensions; lowers gas pressure inside lungs.
Henry's law	Pressure and volume have an inverse relationship. Inspiration increases lung volume by enlarging all of its dimensions; lowers gas pressure inside lungs.
Nasal cavity	Major branches of the cartilage-reinforced tube that go to each lung
Pharynx	Major branches of the cartilage-reinforced tube that go to each lung
Larynx	Major branches of the cartilage-reinforced tube that go to each lung
Trachea	Major branches of the cartilage-reinforced tube that go to each lung
Bronchi	>>Major branches of the cartilage-reinforced tube that go to each lung
Alveoli	Major branches of the cartilage-reinforced tube that go to each lung
Partially saturated hemoglobin	Gas exchange in the lungs
Saturated hemoglobin	Gas exchange in the lungs
Oxygen in the process of combining with heme groups	>>Gas exchange in the lungs
Oxygen leaving heme groups	Gas exchange in the lungs
Chronic bronchitis	Associated with cigarette smoking; constant irritation of cilia are overwhelmed and eventually stop functioning; mutations occur in cells causing uncontrolled growth
Emphysema	Associated with cigarette smoking; constant irritation of cilia are overwhelmed and eventually stop functioning; mutations occur in cells causing uncontrolled growth
Asthma	Associated with cigarette smoking; constant irritation of cilia are overwhelmed and eventually stop functioning; mutations occur in cells causing uncontrolled growth
Lung cancer	>>Associated with cigarette smoking; constant irritation of cilia are overwhelmed and eventually stop functioning; mutations occur in cells causing uncontrolled growth
Single tube with C-rings of cartilage	Bronchioles
Paired tubes with C-rings of cartilage.	Bronchioles
3 in the right lung, 2 in the left, plates of cartilage	Bronchioles
10 in each lung, small amounts of cartilage, smooth muscle dominates	Bronchioles
Many small tubes of less than 1mm in diameter, smooth muscle only in the walls, no cartilage	>>Bronchioles
No exchange of gases occurs here.	>>Segmental bronchi
Secrete a fluid containing surfactant.	Segmental bronchi
Where the respiratory zone of the lungs begins.	Segmental bronchi
Composed of simple squamous epithelium.	Segmental bronchi
Terminates in alveoli.	Segmental bronchi
Composed of cuboidal cells.	Segmental bronchi
The respiratory membrane is composed of fused basement membrane of the capillary walls and	Segmental bronchi
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808836_dynA.jpg	Muscularis externa
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808836_dynB.jpg	Muscularis externa
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808836_dynC.jpg	Muscularis externa
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808836_dynD.jpg	>>Muscularis externa
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808836_dynE.jpg	Muscularis externa
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808837_dynA.jpg	Hard palate
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808837_dynB.jpg	Hard palate
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808837_dynC.jpg	Hard palate
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808837_dynD.jpg	>>Hard palate
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808837_dynE.jpg	Hard palate
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808837_dynF.jpg	Hard palate
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808838_dynA.jpg	Submandibular duct
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808838_dynB.jpg	Submandibular duct
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808838_dynC.jpg	Submandibular duct
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808838_dynD.jpg	Submandibular duct
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808838_dynE.jpg	>>Submandibular duct
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808838_dynF.jpg	Submandibular duct
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808839_dynA.jpg	Canine
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808839_dynB.jpg	>>Canine
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808839_dynC.jpg	Canine
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808839_dynD.jpg	Canine
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808840_dynA.jpg	>>Crown
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808840_dynB.jpg	Crown
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808840_dynC.jpg	Crown
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808840_dynD.jpg	Crown
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808840_dynE.jpg	Crown
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808840_dynF.jpg	Crown
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808841_dynA.jpg	Bile duct and sphincter
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808841_dynB.jpg	Bile duct and sphincter
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808841_dynC.jpg	Bile duct and sphincter
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808841_dynD.jpg	>>Bile duct and sphincter
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808841_dynE.jpg	Bile duct and sphincter
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808841_dynF.jpg	Bile duct and sphincter
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808842_dynA.jpg	>>Large circular folds
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808842_dynB.jpg	Large circular folds
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808842_dynC.jpg	Large circular folds
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808842_dynD.jpg	Large circular folds
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808842_dynE.jpg	Large circular folds
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808843_dynA.jpg	Bile duct
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808843_dynB.jpg	Bile duct
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808843_dynC.jpg	Bile duct
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808843_dynD.jpg	Bile duct
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808843_dynE.jpg	Bile duct
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808843_dynF.jpg	>>Bile duct
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig231A.jpg	>>Area of the lamina propria.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig231A.jpg	>>Mucosa.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig231B.jpg	>>Duodenal glands found here.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig231B.jpg	>>MALT found here.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig231C.jpg	>>Smooth muscle layer.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig231D.jpg	>>Continuation of the mesentery.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig231D.jpg	>>Serosa.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig232A.jpg	>>Structures that increase the absorptive area of the small intestine.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig232B.jpg	>>Absorptive cells that line the intestinal tract.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig232C.jpg	>>Wide lymph capillary located in the villus.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig232D.jpg	>>Cell type specialized to secrete mucus into the lumen of the intestinal tract.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig232E.jpg	>>Paneth cells are found here.
In order to prevent self-digestion of the pancreas activation of pancreatic proteases occurs in the	>>Duodenum
During deglutition, the bolus passes into the stomach from the esophagus through the	pyloric sphincter.
During the intestinal phase of gastric regulation,	the gastroenteric reflex reduces stomach activity.
Protective collections of lymphocytes and macrophages occur in	the muscularis externa.
Starch is chemically digested by enzymes produced in the	pancreas and stomach.
Swallowing reflexes begin when receptors are stimulated by food in this structure.	Stomach
Blood flows into the liver via the ___________ and ___________, while blood exits the liver via the ______________.	Sinusoids; portal vein; hepatic vein
The function of a lacteal is to	absorb amino acids.
The major outcome that occurs through mechanical digestive activities is	facilitation of absorption.
What is the main organic molecule digested in the stomach?	Nucleic acids
The propulsive function that occurs in the esophagus is called	ingestion.
The stimulus for the release of pancreatic enzymes is	bile salts.
This structure is a modified portion of the small intestine mucosa that greatly increases the absorptive surface area.	Lacteal
Which activity below is a mixing action that exposes materials to secretions and absorptive surfaces?	Peristalsis
Which is a function of the large intestine?	Digestion of carbohydrates
Which of the following is a characteristic of the large intestine?	It provides no absorptive function.
Which regulatory chemical stimulates gastric gland activity and motility?	Secretin
Which sequence below represents the correct layering of the wall of the GI tract beginning with the layer next to the lumen?	Submucosa - mucosa - muscularis externa - serosa
Which substance or occurrence would directly decrease gastric activity?	Insulin activity
Which of the following is NOT part of the digestive tract?	>>Salivary glands
The ampulla of Vater (a.k.a. hepatopancreatic ampulla) is formed from the union of the	greater duodenal papilla with the lesser duodenal papilla
What would be the effect of stripping the small intestines of their villi?	>>Decreased surface area for absorption would cause weight loss to occur.
Which of the following products does the stomach produce?	>>HCl and intrinsic factor
The final product of carbohydrate digestion is	glycogen.
Which of the following cells produce HCl?	>>Parietal cells
Which of the following cells produce pepsinogen?	Parietal cells
Most absorption takes place in the ______.	duodenum
The digestive system in a cadaver is longer than in a living person because in a cadaver there is no	digestion taking place.
________________ is the major means of propulsion in the digestive system.	Defecation
The short reflexes in the digestive system are stimulated by	the parasympathetic system.
Which of the following statements about the mesentery is incorrect?	It holds the organs of the abdomen in place.
All of the following organs are retroperitoneal except the	parts of the large intestine.
Which of the following arteries is not a branch of the celiac trunk?	>>the hepatic portal track
Which of the following is the most common cause of peritonitis?	ruptured pancreatic cyst
Particularly large collections of lymphoid follicles are found in the pharynx and the	rectum.
The myxovirus causes	infectious mononucleosis.
Halitosis is caused by	lack of amylase in saliva.
Which of the following teeth are most commonly impacted?	>>wisdom teeth
___________ is the strongest material in the body.	Dentin
Which of the following conditions is directly associated with an increased risk for heart disease and stroke?	>>periodontitis
Lingual lipase is present in	gastric secretion.
The "mucosal barrier" involves all of the following mechanisms except	replacement of damaged gastric mucosal cells by the division of undifferentiated stem cells in the gastric pits.
The only stomach function that is essential to life is	the secretion of pepsinogen.
The ___________ phase of gastric secretion is considered a conditioned reflex.	gastric
Which of the following would not directly stimulate the secretion of gastrin?	alkalinity
HCl secretion is stimulated by the binding of all of the following substances except	>>norepinephrine.
Which of the following intestinal hormones is not part of the enterogastrone?	>>gastrin
Hollow organs like the stomach that act as reservoirs exhibit	peristalsis.
Many of the early food allergies seen in infants are due to	lactase deficiency.
A condition that affects the large bowel, but has no physiological or anatomical cause is	a hiatal hernia.
The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located	in the glandular tissue that lines the organ lumen
The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to	carry toxins to the venous system for disposal through the urinary tract
The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called	>>digestion
When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. This series of reactions is called	absorption
The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called	>>mesenteries
From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen.	muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa, and submucosa
The structure known as the fauces is the	submaxillary gland
The epithelial membrane called the mucosa	absorbs mucus, digestive enzymes, and hormones
The capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients lie in the	muscularis mucosae
The plicae circulares and intestinal villi are found in which of the four layers of the alimentary tube wall?	>>mucosa
The structures that produce new cells for the mucosa of the small intestine are the	lacteals
The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task?	>>plicae circulares and intestinal villi
Select the statement that is true concerning primary teeth.	There are 27 primary teeth, and the molars are permanent.
Which of the following is true concerning the number and type of permanent teeth?	>>There are 32 permanent teeth, and the wisdom teeth are the last to emerge.
Which of the following is not true of saliva?	cleanses the mouth
The salivary glands are composed of which two types of secretory cells?	goblet cells and squamous epithelial cells
The solutes contained in saliva include	only salts and minerals
In addition to storage and mechanical breakdown of food, the stomach	>>initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins
Chyme is created in the	mouth
Hydrochloric acid is secreted by which of the secretory cells of the stomach?	chief cells
Gastrin, histamine, endorphins, serotonin, cholecystokinin, and somatostatin are hormones or paracrines that are released directly into the lamina propria. Which of the following cell types synthesize and secrete these products?	>>enteroendocrine cells
There are three phases of gastric secretion. The cephalic phase occurs	>>before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought
Peristaltic waves are	segmental regions of the gastrointestinal tract
Gastrin is a digestive hormone that is responsible for the stimulation of acid secretions in the stomach. These secretions are stimulated by the presence of	starches and complex carbohydrates
Pepsinogen, a digestive enzyme, is secreted by the	>>chief cells of the stomach
You have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates. Which of the following enzymes will help to digest the meal?	gastrin
The ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and pancreas, respectively, unite to form the	portal vein
The enzymatic breakdown of any type of food molecule is called	diffusion
Short-chain triglycerides found in foods such as butterfat molecules in milk are split by a specific enzyme in preparation for absorption. Which of the following enzymes is responsible?	rennin
Parietal cells of the stomach produce	mucin
Hepatocytes do not	>>produce digestive enzymes
Which of the following is not a phase of gastric secretion?	cephalic
Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?	>>B12
Chief cells	occur in the intestine
Chemical digestion reduces large complex molecules to simpler compounds by the process of	mastication
The	contains lobules with sinusoids (lined with macrophages) that lead to a central venous structure.
If an incision has to be made in the small intestine to remove an obstruction, the first layer of tissue to be cut is the	>>serosa
The terminal portion of the small intestine is known as the	duodenum
The dental formula for an adult is 2-1-2-3. What does the 1 stand for?	incisor tooth
Digestion of which of the following would be affected the most if the liver were severely damaged?	>>lipids
______ is locally regulated in the blood by the active form of vitamin D, which acts as a cofactor.	Iron
Important peritoneal folds do not include the	omenta
The lamina propria is composed of	>>loose connective tissue
______ is/are not important as a stimulus in the gastric phase of gastric secretion.	Distension
Pancreatic amylase does not get to the small intestine via the	accessory pancreatic duct
The function of the goblet cells is to	absorb nutrients from digested food and store them for future use
Under normal conditions, the gastric mucosa pours out as much as	10 liters of gastric juice per hour
Nervous control of gastric secretion is provided by	somatic neurons in the spinal cord
Which of the following are types of papillae on the tongue that contain taste buds?	>>fungiform and circumvallate
Which of the following produce intrinsic factor?	>>parietal cells
Which of the following enzymes is specific for proteins?	dextrinase
Surgical cutting of the lingual frenulum would occur in which part of the body?	>>tongue
A fluid secreted into the small intestine during digestion that contains cholesterol, emulsification agents, and phospholipids is	>>bile
The layer of the digestive tube that contains blood vessels, lymphatic nodes, and a rich supply of elastic fibers is the	mucosa
Which of the following is not characteristic of the large intestine? It	does not contain villi
Tooth structure includes	the dentin, which is the hardest substance in the body
The propulsion of food down the gastrointestinal tract includes	>>the pharyngeal-esophageal phase, an involuntary process
Select the correct statement about the regulation of gastric secretion.	Vagus stimulation of the stomach results in decreased secretion of gastric juice.
Paneth cells	are more common in the ileum than in the jejunum
Select the correct statement about digestive processes.	Enterogastrone is a hormone that helps increase gastric motility.
Chemical digestion in the small intestine involves	a significant amount of enzyme secretion by the intestinal mucosa
Select the correct statement about absorption.	Eighty percent of ingested materials have been absorbed by the end of the large intestine.
Select the correct statement about electrolyte absorption.	Chlorine ion absorption is coupled to glucose and amino acid transport.
You have just eaten french fries, buttered toast, ice cream, and whole milk. Which of the following glands would be active in helping you to digest this food?	>>the pancreas
The ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause which of the following to occur?	Severe indigestion would occur, caused by the lack of sufficient digestive enzymes.
The mucosa of the developing alimentary tube comes from	ectoderm
A baby is admitted to the hospital with a history of projectile vomiting after each feeding. On examination, it is found that the sphincter controlling food passage from the stomach to the duodenum is thickened and does not open readily. Because of the ba	acidosis
Hormones or paracrines that inhibit gastric secretion include	ACh
Which of these is not part of the splanchnic circulation?	hepatic portal vein
Which of these is not a component of saliva?	lysozyme
There are some 20 known pathogens found in the large intestine; our Ig	antibody-mediated response restricts them from going beyond the mucosa and causing problems.
Chief	Phagocytic
Islet	Phagocytic
Paneth	Phagocytic
Parietal	Phagocytic
Kupffer	>>Phagocytic
Ingestion	Passage of digested materials from the lumen of the GI tract into the blood or lymph
Mechanical Digestion	Passage of digested materials from the lumen of the GI tract into the blood or lymph
Chemical Digestion	Passage of digested materials from the lumen of the GI tract into the blood or lymph
Absorption	>>Passage of digested materials from the lumen of the GI tract into the blood or lymph
Defecation	Passage of digested materials from the lumen of the GI tract into the blood or lymph
In direct contact with ingested food.	Serosa
Dense connective tissue with many elastic fibers	Serosa
Composed of longitudinal and circular layers of smooth muscle	Serosa
Same structure as the visceral peritoneum	>>Serosa
Parotid gland	>>Large salivary gland lying near the ear
Oropharynx	Large salivary gland lying near the ear
Submandibular gland	Large salivary gland lying near the ear
Secures the tongue to the floor of the oral cavity	Large salivary gland lying near the ear
Rugae	Located at the inferior end and controls stomach emptying
Pyloric sphincter	>>Located at the inferior end and controls stomach emptying
Cardiac sphincter	Located at the inferior end and controls stomach emptying
Body	Located at the inferior end and controls stomach emptying
Stimulated by the sight or smell of food	>>Cephalic phase
Stimulated by distension of the stomach and low acidity	Cephalic phase
Stimulated by partially digested proteins and fats	Cephalic phase
Secretin	Inhibits gastric gland secretions, released in response to presence of fatty chyme in the duodenum.
CCK	Inhibits gastric gland secretions, released in response to presence of fatty chyme in the duodenum.
Gastrin	Inhibits gastric gland secretions, released in response to presence of fatty chyme in the duodenum.
GIP	>>Inhibits gastric gland secretions, released in response to presence of fatty chyme in the duodenum.
Contains openings for the bile and pancreatic ducts	Microvilli
Deep permanent folds of the mucosa and submucosa	Microvilli
Contains the valve that connects to the large intestines	Microvilli
Finger-like projections of the mucosa	Microvilli
Also known as the brush border	>>Microvilli
Carbohydrates	Made up of ribose or deoxyribose sugars and nitrogenous bases
Lipids	Made up of ribose or deoxyribose sugars and nitrogenous bases
Proteins	Made up of ribose or deoxyribose sugars and nitrogenous bases
Nucleic acids	>>Made up of ribose or deoxyribose sugars and nitrogenous bases
Salivary amylase	>>Begins carbohydrate digestion in the mouth
Trypsin	Begins carbohydrate digestion in the mouth
Bile	Begins carbohydrate digestion in the mouth
Sucrase, lactase and maltase	Begins carbohydrate digestion in the mouth
Crown	Embedded in the jawbone.
Root	>>Embedded in the jawbone.
Cementum	Embedded in the jawbone.
Periodontal ligament	Embedded in the jawbone.
Wavelike smooth muscle contractions that move foodstuffs through the alimentary tube.	Absorption
Chemical or mechanical process of breaking down foodstuffs to substances that can be absorbed.	Absorption
Enzymatic breakdown of any type of food molecule.	Absorption
Process by which the products of digestion pass through the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract into the blood or lymph.	>>Absorption
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808930_dynA.jpg	Glyceraldehyde phosphate
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808930_dynB.jpg	>>Glyceraldehyde phosphate
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808930_dynC.jpg	Glyceraldehyde phosphate
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808930_dynD.jpg	Glyceraldehyde phosphate
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808931_dynA.jpg	>>Acetyl Co-A
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808931_dynB.jpg	Acetyl Co-A
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808931_dynC.jpg	Acetyl Co-A
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808931_dynD.jpg	Acetyl Co-A
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808931_dynE.jpg	Acetyl Co-A
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808932_dynA.jpg	ATP Synthase
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808932_dynB.jpg	ATP Synthase
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808932_dynC.jpg	ATP Synthase
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808932_dynD.jpg	ATP Synthase
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808932_dynE.jpg	ATP Synthase
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2808932_dynF.jpg	>>ATP Synthase
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig241A.jpg	>>H+ ions.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig241B.jpg	>>NADH dehydrogenase complex.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig241C.jpg	>>Electron (e-).
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig241D.jpg	>>Cytochrome b-C1.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig241E.jpg	>>Water.
A major means for conserving heat is	>>vasoconstriction of cutaneous blood vessels.
Essential nutrients	include most carbohydrates, amino acids, and fats.
In cellular respiration, how many ATP molecules are produced for each glucose metabolized by aerobic respiration?	16
In glycolysis, glucose must be activated with the use of how many ATP molecules?	5
In glycolysis, how is ATP formed?	>>Through substrate level events
Most vitamins	are used as building blocks for the body.
One function of Vitamin A is to	assist in blood clotting.
The stage of cell respiration in which carbon dioxide is removed from a carbon source is	anabolism.
The hormone responsible for setting basal metabolic rate is	insulin.
The most significant source of heat in the body is	evaporation.
The process in which glucose is converted to a storage form	is very energy consuming.
The process of cellular respiration	requires more energy input than is released.
Fats have many more calories than carbohydrates because they	>>contain many more potential acetyl groups to enter Krebs' cycle.
The site of electron transport is the	cytoplasm.
The thermoregulatory center is located in the	thymus gland.
Which coenzymes are reduced in both glycolysis and the Krebs' cycle?	Coenzyme A
Which element below is considered a trace mineral?	Sodium
Which event would occur in the absorptive state?	>>Insulin release
Which lipoprotein contains high levels of cholesterol?	HDL
A nutritionally incomplete protein lacks	actin and myosin.
Most of the ATP produced during cellular respiration is produced by	>>oxidative phosphorylation during electron transport.
A function of the liver during the post-absorptive state is to	lipogenesis.
The hormone that controls essentially all events of the absorptive state is	ADH.
Which of the following factors makes it harder for an obese person to lose weight?	An increase in metabolism that increases the appetite
Which of the following is the amount of energy the body needs to maintain life?	TMR
Which of the following is a physiologic response to hypothermia?	Covering up with a blanket
A kilocalorie is the amount of energy needed to	move one kilogram of water one meter.
All of the following are considered major nutrients except	protein.
Essential nutrients refer to nutrients that are	essential for the human body to function.
Soluble fibers are found in ______ and help to lower cholesterol.	>>apples
Highly refined carbohydrates are considered	insoluble fiber.
85% of blood cholesterol is produced	by the breakdown of worn out RBCs in the spleen.
All of the following are beneficial functions of dietary fat except	facilitating the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.
Strict vegetarians who eat _________________ would obtain all the essential amino acids in their diets.	only green leafy vegetables
Excess amino acids in the diet are	are lost in the urine.
Prolonged high protein intake can lead to	muscle building.
Which of the following substances would be considered a "provitamin"?	niacin
Which of the following fat-soluble vitamins is not stored in the body?	vitamin D
Which of the following statements about a "redox" reaction is correct?	Oxidized substances gain energy.
The final product of glycolysis is	>>two molecules of pyruvic acid, two molecules of NAD+, and a net gain of two ATP.
Cyanide acts as a poison by	blocking glycolysis.
The best diet for an endurance athlete to maintain before a race is one high in	fat.
Most products of fat digestion are transported in the lymph as	glycerol.
All of the following use triglycerides as their primary source of energy except	skeletal muscles.
During fasts lasting several weeks, blood glucose is maintained by	lipolysis.
A low density lipoproteins would contain	a low cholesterol content.
The role of _____________ is to transport excessive cholesterol from peripheral tissue to the liver where it is broken down and becomes part of bile.	>>high-density lipoproteins
All of the following hormones would suppress appetite except	insulin.
The official medical measurement of obesity is the	>>body mass index.
___________ acts to suppress appetite by inhibiting _____ that is the most powerful known appetite stimulant.	growth hormone; lipase
When the body core temperature drops below 30-32 Degrees C, all of the following would occur except	cessation of shivering.
The molecule that serves as the major source of readily available fuel for neurons and blood cells is	fat
Peptides called NPY and AgRP	serve as indicators of the body's total energy stores
Dietary fats are important because	they keep blood pressure normal
Cholesterol, while it is not an energy molecule, has importance in the body because	>>it is a stabilizing component of the plasma membranes and is the parent molecule of steroid hormones
Which of the following statements best describes complete protein?	derived from meat and fish only
The term metabolism is best defined as	the length of time it takes to digest and absorb fats
The term metabolic rate includes	>>the total heat produced by the body
When proteins undergo deamination, the waste substance found in the urine is mostly	>>urea
It is important to ensure that your diet is adequately rich in vitamins because	vitamins provide protection against the common cold
Oxidation-reduction reactions are catalyzed by which of the following enzymes?	>>dehydrogenases and oxidases
A diet rich in minerals would include which of the following foods?	fats, sugars, and apples
Anabolism includes reactions in which	carbohydrate utilization increases
Catabolism would be best described as a processes that	causes a decline in circulating ketone bodies
The primary function of cellular respiration is to	determine the amount of heat needed by the human body
The process of breaking triglycerides down into glycerol and fatty acids is known as	gluconeogenesis
Which of the following mechanisms produces the most ATP during cellular respiration?	>>oxidative phosphorylation
Lipogenesis occurs when	there is a shortage of fatty acids
Oxidative deamination takes place in the	>>liver
Transamination is the process whereby the amine group of an amino acid is	transferred to acetyl CoA
Glycogen is formed in the liver during the	postabsorptive state
Which of the following is a normal consequence of the activation of the heat -promoting center?	>>release of epinephrine
Gluconeogenesis is the process in which	glycogen is broken down to release glucose
Glycolysis is best defined as a catabolic reaction based upon the	conversion of glucose into carbon dioxide and water
Among the conditions required for measuring the basal metabolic rate is	being in an absorptive state
The primary function of carbohydrates is	to contribute to cell structure
In the case of a person who consumes a normal, balanced diet, proteins are essential to the body for all of the following except	>>production of energy
The most abundant dietary lipids are	cholesterol
Loss of heat in the form of infrared waves is termed	>>radiation
In carbohydrate metabolism, the carbohydrates	>>are converted into fat if present in excess
Prostaglandins play a role in	skeletal muscle contraction
Vitamins are organic compounds. They	are classified as water-soluble or protein-soluble classes
As the body progresses from the absorptive to the postabsorptive state, only the continues to burn glucose while every other organ in the body mostly switches to fatty acids.	liver
In gluconeogenesis, during the postabsorptive state, amino acids and	are converted to glucose.
In the liver, the amine group of glutamic acid is removed as	in the oxidative state.
Which of the following is most correct?	>>Saturated fats stimulate the liver to synthesize cholesterol.
Heat-loss mechanisms do not include	reducing activity
The amount of	produced is probably the most important hormonal factor in determining BMR.
When ketone bodies are present in the blood and urine in large amounts, it usually indicates increased metabolism of	amino acids
Many factors influence BMR. What is the most critical factor?	the way an individual metabolizes fat
The primary reason elderly people should decrease their caloric intake is that	>>muscle mass and metabolism decline with age
The primary reason the elderly seem to have more negative nutrition -related effects from medications is that	they often fail to take their medications as prescribed
Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of mineral oil as a laxative?	>>It interferes with the absorption of fat-soluble minerals.
While the amount of protein required in the diet varies depending on age, size, and needs, the daily recommendation is approximately	0.4 g/kg body weight
Which of the following nutrients yield the highest amount of energy per gram when metabolized?	>>fats
Which of the following does not occur in the mitochondria?	electron transport
Which of the following is not true of beta oxidation?	It occurs in the mitochondrion.
Select the correct statement about proteins.	Strict vegetarians need not worry about adequate protein intake, as most vegetables are almost perfect sources of amino acids.
Oxidation reduction reactions	utilize hydrogenases
Vitamin	is present in the body as coenzyme FAD and FMN and is a component of amino acid oxidase.
The "pickup" molecule for the Krebs cycle is	acid.
Which of the following is correct?	Most of the ATP are produced by substrate-level phosphorylation.
Which of the following is correct?	A 24-carbon fatty acid yields 6 acetyl CoA molecules.
Which of the following food groups are considered good sources of complete proteins?	corn, cottonseed oil, soy oil, and wheat germ
Conditions that promote the oxidative deamination and energy use of amino acids include	adequate essential amino acids
When a person's hypothalamic thermostat is set to a higher level and the actual body temperature is below that level, the person may	pant
Select the correct statement.	Anabolism is the process of breaking down large substances into smaller ones.
The liver synthesizes lipoproteins for cholesterol transport. Select the other function(s) of the liver.	>>synthesizes a component essential for blood clotting
Glucose can be obtained from	>>glycogenolysis
Which is not a function of LDLs?	>>transport cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the liver
Which of the following best defines negative nitrogen balance?	>>Protein breakdown exceeds protein synthesis.
Beta oxidation	Results in pyruvic acid
Fermentation	Results in pyruvic acid
Glycolysis	>>Results in pyruvic acid
Krebs cycle	Results in pyruvic acid
Oxidative phosphorylation	Results in pyruvic acid
Carbohydrate	Comprised of fatty acids and glycerol; should be less than 30% of caloric intake
Protein	Comprised of fatty acids and glycerol; should be less than 30% of caloric intake
Lipids	>>Comprised of fatty acids and glycerol; should be less than 30% of caloric intake
Minerals	Comprised of fatty acids and glycerol; should be less than 30% of caloric intake
Vitamins	Comprised of fatty acids and glycerol; should be less than 30% of caloric intake
Carbohydrates	Solvent for chemical reactions in body
Lipids	Solvent for chemical reactions in body
Proteins	Solvent for chemical reactions in body
Vitamins	Solvent for chemical reactions in body
Minerals	Solvent for chemical reactions in body
Water	>>Solvent for chemical reactions in body
Vitamin A	Enhances absorption of calcium; works in conjunction with hormones regulating calcium blood levels
Vitamin E	Enhances absorption of calcium; works in conjunction with hormones regulating calcium blood levels
Vitamin D	>>Enhances absorption of calcium; works in conjunction with hormones regulating calcium blood levels
Vitamin K	Enhances absorption of calcium; works in conjunction with hormones regulating calcium blood levels
Vitamin C	>>Important in formation of connective tissues; antioxidant; conversion of tryptophan to serotonin; conversion of cholesterol to bile salts
Vitamin B1 (thiamine)	Important in formation of connective tissues; antioxidant; conversion of tryptophan to serotonin; conversion of cholesterol to bile salts
Vitamin B2 (riboflavin)	Important in formation of connective tissues; antioxidant; conversion of tryptophan to serotonin; conversion of cholesterol to bile salts
Niacin	Important in formation of connective tissues; antioxidant; conversion of tryptophan to serotonin; conversion of cholesterol to bile salts
Folic acid	Important in formation of connective tissues; antioxidant; conversion of tryptophan to serotonin; conversion of cholesterol to bile salts
Vitamin B12	Important in formation of connective tissues; antioxidant; conversion of tryptophan to serotonin; conversion of cholesterol to bile salts
Calcium	Avocados, dried apricots, meat, fish, fowl, cereals, bananas
Sulfur	Avocados, dried apricots, meat, fish, fowl, cereals, bananas
Potassium	>>Avocados, dried apricots, meat, fish, fowl, cereals, bananas
Sodium	Avocados, dried apricots, meat, fish, fowl, cereals, bananas
Magnesium	Avocados, dried apricots, meat, fish, fowl, cereals, bananas
Phosphorus	Avocados, dried apricots, meat, fish, fowl, cereals, bananas
Glycolysis	>>2 molecules of pyruvic acid and two NADH + H+
Krebs cycle	2 molecules of pyruvic acid and two NADH + H+
Electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation	2 molecules of pyruvic acid and two NADH + H+
Glycolysis	Breakdown of lipids
Lipolysis	>>Breakdown of lipids
Gluconeogenesis	Breakdown of lipids
Lipogenesis	Breakdown of lipids
Glycogenesis	Breakdown of lipids
Transamination	Breakdown of lipids
Glucose serves as the initial reactant.	Krebs cycle and electron transport chain
Involves the removal of hydrogen electrons and CO2 from the substrate molecule.	>>Krebs cycle and electron transport chain
Occurs in the cytosol of a cell.	Krebs cycle and electron transport chain
Produces the most ATP	>>Krebs cycle and electron transport chain
Involves the use of oxygen to pick up excess hydrogen and electrons.	>>Krebs cycle and electron transport chain
Night blindness can often be caused by a deficiency in	vitamin K
Found abundant in lean meats, liver, fish, leafy green vegetables, and legumes.	vitamin K
A condition known as beriberi can result from a deficiency in	vitamin K
A person who required a prolonged clotting time would most likely be deficient in	>>vitamin K
Dermatitis is often a result of a deficiency in	vitamin K
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809016_dynA.jpg	Filtration slits
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809016_dynB.jpg	Filtration slits
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809016_dynC.jpg	Filtration slits
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809016_dynD.jpg	Filtration slits
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809016_dynE.jpg	>>Filtration slits
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809016_dynF.jpg	Filtration slits
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809017_dynA.jpg	>>Detrusor muscle
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809017_dynB.jpg	Detrusor muscle
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809017_dynC.jpg	Detrusor muscle
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809017_dynD.jpg	Detrusor muscle
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809017_dynE.jpg	Detrusor muscle
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig251A.jpg	>>Afferent arteriole.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig251A.jpg	>>Structue most closely associated with granular cells.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig251B.jpg	>>Collecting duct.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig251C.jpg	>>Glomerulus.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig251D.jpg	>>Peritubular capillaries.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig251E.jpg	>>Loop of Henle.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig251E.jpg	>>Medulla of the kidney.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig252A.jpg	>>Is composed of simple squamous epithelium.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig252B.jpg	>>Podocyte.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig252C.jpg	>>Cells that are most affected by ADH.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig252C.jpg	>>Collecting duct cells.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig252D.jpg	>>Almost no water is absorbed in these cells.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig252E.jpg	>>Cells that are the most active in reabsorbing the filtrate.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig252E.jpg	>>Cells that reabsorb virtually all the nutrients.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig252E.jpg	>>Filtrate at the site of these cells is about the same osmolarity as blood plasma.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig252E.jpg	>>Proximal convoluted tubule cells.
Facultative Na+ reabsorption occurs in the	>>distal convoluted tubule.
How is Na+ reabsorbed?	>>Active transport using ATP
In response to increased levels of aldosterone, the kidneys produce	a larger volume of urine.
Major calyces are	the expanded ends of renal pyramids
Micturition is	only present in males.
Nephron cells that respond to the concentration of filtrate are	juxtaglomerular cells.
One of the roles of the countercurrent mechanism in the nephron is to	produce a glucose gradient that will facilitate the reabsorption of glucose.
The ability to concentrate urine depends on the functions of	the Bowman's capsule.
The basic functional unit of the kidney is the	loop of Henle.
The blood supply to the nephron is the	interlobular artery.
The Bowman's capsule and glomerulus make up the	papilla.
The most important factor affecting the glomerular filtration rate is	capsular osmotic pressure.
When the concentration of ADH increases	more urine is produced.
Which artery below has the smallest diameter?	Arcuate artery
Which process results in increased glomerular filtration in response to hormone release?	Countercurrent mechanism
Which structure is the muscular tube that delivers urine to the bladder?	Papillary duct
Which substance below would probably have the lowest reabsorption rate?	Amino acids
Which substance would NOT be expected in urine normally?	Nitrogenous waste
Which urine formation process below results in acid elimination?	Reabsorption
Arrange the following structures in the correct sequence in which urine passes through them to the external environment.	1,2,3,4,5
If the efferent arteriole constricts while the afferent arteriole remains unchanged, the glomerular filtration rate	does NOT change.
Death of mitochondria in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle would result in	decreased Na+and Cl- ions in the urine output.
What is the main substance reabsorbed in the region of the descending limb of the loop of Henle?	>>Water
Presence of glucose and ketone bodies in the urine can indicate	trauma to the kidneys.
GFR is regulated mostly by	autonomic regulation
The reabsorption of amino acids and glucose when filtrate concentration is high is by	simple diffusion.
Which of the following statements about the urinary system are incorrect?	It produces erythropoietin that stimulates red blood cell formation.
The renal hilum lies on the ______ surface of the kidney.	inferior
The _____________ attaches the kidney to the posterior body wall.	>>perirenal fat capsule
Renal ptosis would lead to	degeneration of the perirenal fat.
The renal ___________ is continuous with the ureter.	cortex
Which of the following cells in the kidney play a major part in the regulation of body water and Na+ balance?	Intercalated cells B
Which of the following statements about juxtaglomerular cells is incorrect?	They contain large secretory granules that contain renin.
All of the following are layers of the filtration membrane in the Glomerular membrane except the	>>renal capsule.
The ______________ can contract, changing the total surface are of the capillaries available for filtration in the glomerulus.	intercalated cells
Proteins are not normally found in glomerular filtrate because	they are small molecules that are quickly swept along in the blood stream.
Which of the following statements about the kidneys is incorrect?	120-125 ml of plasma is forced into the renal tubules each minute.
All of the following functions are carried out in the renal tubules except	formation of urine.
Which of the following is not a function of Angiotensin II?	It causes glomerular mesangial cells to contract.
All of the following would stimulate the release of renin from granular cells except	>>inhibition by the macula densa cells.
Which of the following chemicals acts as a vasodilator systemically but causes constriction of the renal vasculature locally?	>>adenosine
The energy needed for secondary active transport is provided by the	renal capillary hydrostatic pressure.
There is a transport maximum for every substance reabsorbed by the kidney except ________.	protein
Which of the following is the countercurrent multiplier in the kidney?	the proximal convoluted tubules
Urea transport into the medullary collecting duct is enhanced by ________.	renin
Which of the following substances is the standard substance used to measure the GFR?	protein
All of the following statements about renal disease are true except which?	>>Stage 5 chronic renal disease occurs when the GFR is 60-89 ml/min.
Which of the following substances is the largest component of urine by weight after water?	creatinine
The less severe form of polycystic kidney disease is caused by	>>an autosomal dominant gene.
Which of the following is not associated with primary nocturnal enuresis?	inadequate nocturnal ADH production
The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the	>>loop of Henle
Urine passes through the	renal hilum to the bladder to the ureter
Which of the following is associated with the renal corpuscle?	a podocyte
An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to	a decrease in the production of ADH
The urinary bladder is composed of	epithelium.
The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin	when the peritubular capillaries are dilated
Blood vessels of the renal columns are called	lobar
Which gland sits atop each kidney?	>>adrenal
The	artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidney.
The glomerulus differs from other capillaries in the body in that it	has a basement membrane
The descending limb of the loop of Henle	is not permeable to water
Select the correct statement about the ureters.	Ureters contain sphincters at the entrance to the bladder to prevent the backflow of urine.
The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because	it ensures adequate energy for the adrenal glands to operate efficiently
The renal corpuscle is made up of	>>Bowman's capsule and glomerulus
The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is	>>the nephron
The juxtaglomerular apparatus is responsible for	the secretion of drugs
The chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood across the filtration membrane is	the design and size of the podocytes
Which of the following statements describes the histology of the ureters?	>>They are trilayered (mucosa, muscularis, and adventitia).
The first major branch of the renal artery is	arcuate
Which of the following acts as the trigger for the initiation of micturition (voiding)?	>>The stretching of the bladder wall serves as the trigger.
The filtration membrane includes all except	glomerular endothelium
The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is	active transport
Most electrolyte reabsorption by the renal tubules	is not Tm limited
The macula densa cells respond to	aldosterone
Which of the following is not reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule?	Na+
The fluid in the glomerular (Bowman's) capsule is similar to plasma except that it does not contain a significant amount of	glucose
Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it	is not reabsorbed by the tubule cells
The function of angiotensin II is to	>>constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure
A disease caused by inadequate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by the pituitary gland with symptoms of polyuria is	diabetes mellitus
An important characteristic of urine is its specific gravity or density, which is	1.041-1.073
Place the following in correct sequence from the formation of a drop of urine to its elimination from the body.1.major calyx 2.minor calyx 3.nephron 4.urethra 5.ureter 6.collecting duct	3, 1, 2, 6, 5, 4
Select the correct statement about the nephrons.	>>The parietal layer of the glomerular capsule is simple squamous epithelium.
What would happen if the capsular hydrostatic pressure were increased above normal?	Net filtration would increase above normal.
Which of the following is not a part of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?	granular cells
Tubular reabsorption	includes substances such as creatinine
Which statement is true about urine?	Urine is usually slightly alkaline.
Reabsorption of high levels of glucose and amino acids in the filtrate is accomplished by	facilitated diffusion
While the kidneys process about 180 L of blood -derived fluids daily, the amount that actually leaves the body is	50%, or 90 L
Fetal kidneys do not have to work very hard because	fetuses do not have any waste to excrete
Which of the following best describes kidney function in older adults (70 years or older)?	Kidney function remains the same throughout life, regardless of age.
The factor favoring filtrate formation at the glomerulus is	the colloid osmotic pressure of the blood
If the Tm for a particular amino acid is 120 mg/100 ml and the concentration of that amino acid in the blood is 230 mg/100 ml, the amino acid	will be actively secreted into the filtrate
If one says that the clearance value of glucose is zero, what does this mean?	The glucose molecule is too large to be filtered out of the blood.
Excretion of dilute urine requires	relative permeability of the distal tubule to water
As the renal artery approaches the kidney, it branches to supply the renal tissue. Place the following in correct sequence starting from the renal artery. 1.segmental 2.cortical radiate 3.arcuate 4.interlobar	>>1, 4, 3, 2
In the ascending limb of the loop of Henle	the thin segment is freely permeable to water
Select the correct statement about urinary system development.	>>Kidneys develop from urogenital ridges.
The disruption in homeostasis known as pyelitis is	a virus that appears only in children because of poor hygiene
Which statement is correct?	>>Reabsorption of water is hormonally controlled.
Creatinine	Not normally found in the urine
Glucose	>>Not normally found in the urine
Na+	Not normally found in the urine
Urea	Not normally found in the urine
Uric acid	Not normally found in the urine
Juxtaglomerular cells	Long nephrons
Juxtamedullary nephrons	>>Long nephrons
Macula densa cells	Long nephrons
Renal capsule	Long nephrons
Renal fascia	Long nephrons
Composed of cone shaped dark-red masses	Renal cortex
Light tan in appearance and just deep to the capsule	>>Renal cortex
Small cup-shaped structures at the apex of the renal pyramids	Renal cortex
Flat funnel-shaped tube that enters into the ureter	Renal cortex
Large knot of capillaries at the beginning of the nephron	Renal corpuscle
Glomerulus and Bowman's capsule collectively	>>Renal corpuscle
The capillary pores of the glomerulus	Renal corpuscle
Specialized branched epithelial cells that cling to the glomerulus	Renal corpuscle
Primary site of glucose and amino acid reabsorption	>>Proximal convoluted tubule
The major substance reabsorbed here is water by osmosis.	Proximal convoluted tubule
Sodium is reabsorbed actively in this region	Proximal convoluted tubule
Sodium and water are reabsorbed under hormonal influence in this region	Proximal convoluted tubule
The force of blood against the walls of the glomerular capillaries	>>Glomerular hydrostatic pressure
Force that pulls fluid back into the glomerulus from the capsular space	Glomerular hydrostatic pressure
Pressure exerted by fluid in the glomerular capsule against the fluids coming out of the glomerulus.	Glomerular hydrostatic pressure
The sum of all the pressures that act at the level of the glomerulus; it is responsible for the formation of filtrate	Glomerular hydrostatic pressure
Afferent arterioles constrict in response to a rise in blood pressure, thus restricting the flow of blood into the glomerulus	Renin-angiotensin system
A drop in flow rate through the nephron or a rise in the osmolality of filtrate triggers regulation by this mechanism	Renin-angiotensin system
Vasomotor tone throughout the body is controlled this branch of the nervous system	Renin-angiotensin system
A drop in systemic blood pressure triggers the release of an enzyme by the kidneys; the release of the enzyme triggers this regulatory system	>>Renin-angiotensin system
ADH	A powerful vasoconstrictor that also stimulates the secretion of aldosterone
Aldosterone	A powerful vasoconstrictor that also stimulates the secretion of aldosterone
Renin	A powerful vasoconstrictor that also stimulates the secretion of aldosterone
Angiotensin II	>>A powerful vasoconstrictor that also stimulates the secretion of aldosterone
Usually seen in association with trauma to the kidneys or along the urinary tract	>>Erythrocytes
Elevated levels are expected in a diabetic	Erythrocytes
Elevated levels are evidence of starvation or untreated diabetes mellitus	Erythrocytes
Often seen after excessive physical exertion (working out)	Erythrocytes
Blood vessel leading directly into the glomerulus	Efferent arteriole
Capillaries that surround the tubules of the nephron	Efferent arteriole
These are the first branches of the renal artery after it enters the hilum of the kidney	Efferent arteriole
Specialized blood vessel leading away from the glomerulus	>>Efferent arteriole
In the renal column	>>Interlobar artery
Between the cortex and medulla	Interlobar artery
Exiting the kidney	Interlobar artery
Vasa recta	Interlobar artery
Proximal convoluted tubule.	Site that drains the distal convoluted tubule.
Glomerulus.	Site that drains the distal convoluted tubule.
Peritubular capillaries.	Site that drains the distal convoluted tubule.
Collecting duct.	>>Site that drains the distal convoluted tubule.
Arcuate vein.	Site that drains the distal convoluted tubule.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809104_dynA.jpg	Homeostatic plasma levels of Na+ and K+
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809104_dynB.jpg	Homeostatic plasma levels of Na+ and K+
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809104_dynC.jpg	Homeostatic plasma levels of Na+ and K+
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809104_dynD.jpg	Homeostatic plasma levels of Na+ and K+
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809104_dynE.jpg	>>Homeostatic plasma levels of Na+ and K+
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809104_dynF.jpg	Homeostatic plasma levels of Na+ and K+
Cyberchondria	>>Behavior of hypochondriacs who use the Internet to gather information on health or healthcare.
A major stimulus for the release of antidiuretic hormone is	an increase in potassium levels in the ICF.
Acidosis	results when blood pH exceeds 7.45
Acidosis results in increasing levels of what ion?	Sodium
A patient with alkalosis would experience	>>hypoventilation.
Currently, many states perform capital punishment (execution) using potassium chloride injection. Why would this kind of an injection cause death?	Hyperkalemia results in acidosis which is lethal.
If a patient's pH is 7.3, PCO2 is 50 mmHg and bicarbonate level is higher than normal, she is in	metabolic alkalosis compensated.
Normal arterial blood pH is	>>between 7.35 and 7.45.
Parathyroid hormone	activates osteoblasts.
The condition in which sodium levels are too low is referred to as	>>hyponatremia.
The largest percentage of body water is located in what compartment?	Blood plasma
The major source of water loss from the body is	insensible skin loss.
The most prevalent electrolyte in the extracellular fluid is	magnesium.
The only organ of the body that can remove excess fixed acids is the	sweat glands.
When large amounts of pure water are consumed	the volume of the ECF will decrease.
When the concentration of Na+ in the ECF decreases	a person experiences an increased thirst.
When water is lost from the ECF but electrolytes are retained,	both ECF and ICF become more dilute.
Which condition would cause a drop in pH?	Hypovolumemia
Which factor would increase the secretion of ADH?	>>Excess salt consumption
Which statement regarding acids is true?	When high in the body, they cause alkalosis.
Why would eating a large amount of salty food make you thirsty?	It would inhibit the hypothalamic osmoreceptors.
The most abundant positive electrolyte in the extracellular fluid is	Ca2+
The only cation exerting significant osmotic pressure in the ECF is	Mg2+
The most important buffer system in the intracellular fluid compartment (ICF) is the	bicarbonate buffer system.
Which of the following would result in hypotonic hydration?	>>Extremely large amount of water drunk very quickly.
Infants are more likely to experience problems regulating acid-base balance because of several factors including	high residual volume of infant lungs.
When the production of hydrogen ions in the body is the same as their loss, you are in	electrolyte balance.
Physiology adjustments of water and electrolytes are made by	aldosterone.
Atrial natriuretic peptide	decreases ADH.
Which of the following tissues is the least hydrated?	>>adipose
Which of the following individuals would have the most body water?	>>an infant
Most of the body's water is located in the	plasma.
Which of the following is usually expressed in milliequivalents per liter?	>>electrolyte concentration of body fluids
__________ circulates throughout the body and links the internal and external environments.	Lymph
Water lost through expired air is referred to as	metabolic water.
All of the following would occur if there was an increase in plasma osmolality except:	>>production of large amounts of urine
All of the following factors would stimulate the hypothalamic thirst center except:	input from baroreceptors
Diuresis peaks _________ after drinking water.	>>one hour
All of the following statements about ADH are true except:	The amount of water lost in the urine is inversely proportional to the amount of ADH released.
Which of the following hormones is not involved in the overall control of blood volume?	Angiotensin II
Which of the following would cause hypotonic hydration?	excess salt in the diet
Edema is accumulation of fluid in the ____________.	intracellular space
All of the following would cause edema except:	incompetent venous valves
Electrolyte balance in the body usually referrs to the balance of _________.	acids
Pica occurs when there is a deficiency of _________ in the body.	>>minerals such as iron
Renal acid-base control is coupled to	plasma protein levels.
Which of the following statements about sodium balance regulation is incorrect?	>>Where water goes, sodium follows.
Which of the following statements about the atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) are incorrect?	It reduces blood pressure and inhibits vasoconstriction.
Estrogens are chemically similar to _________ and therefore are associated with water retention.	>>aldosterone
98% of calcium filtered by the kidney is reabsorbed due to the action of ________.	aldosterone
The level of phosphate in the body is affected by all of the following hormones except:	insulin
Any arterial pH between _________ is considered physiological acidosis.	>>7.0 - 7.35
Water occupies two main fluid compartments within the body, the intracellular fluid compartment and the extracellular fluid compartment. Which of the following statements is true concerning the volume of intracellular fluid?	All of the water is in the intracellular fluid compartment.
The term hypotonic hydration refers to	the feeling one might have after a long swim
Hypoproteinemia is a condition of unusually low levels of plasma proteins. This problem is often characterized by	>>tissue edema
Which of the following hormones is important in the regulation of sodium ion concentrations in the extracellular fluid?	antidiuretic hormone
Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone that is made in the atria of the heart. The influence of this hormone is	to enhance atrial contractions
Respiratory acidosis can occur when	a person consumes excessive amounts of antacids
Which of the following two organs function as the most important physiological buffer systems?	>>the lungs and the kidneys
The major reason older adults should monitor their intake of fluids is that	older people suffer decreased levels of antidiuretic hormone
Edema may result from	hyperproteinemia
The fluid link between the external and internal environment is	>>plasma
Newborn infants have a relatively higher	content in their ECF than do adults.
Whereas sodium is found mainly in the extracellular fluid, most	is found in the intracellular fluid.
Which of the following describes the distribution of sodium and potassium between cells and body fluids?	>>K+ mainly in the cells, Na+ in the body fluids
Problems with fluid, electrolyte, and acid -base balance are particularly common in infants because of their	>>inefficient kidneys
The single most important factor influencing potassium ion secretion is	the potassium ion content in the renal tubule cells
The term alkaline reserve is used to describe the	buffer system.
A falling blood pH and a rising partial pressure of carbon dioxide due to pneumonia or emphysema indicates	>>respiratory acidosis
The movement of fluids between cellular compartments	requires active transport
Electrolyte balance	refers to the phosphate balance in the body
Parathyroid hormone	>>is the most important control of calcium homeostasis
Chemical buffering systems of the body may include	>>phosphate
Extracellular fluid in the human body is composed of all of the following except	lymph and interstitial fluid
Which of the following statements is true regarding fluid shifts?	Nonelectrolytes are the controlling factor in directing fluid shifts.
Which of the following hormones is important in stimulating water conservation in the kidneys?	aldosterone
The total body water is divided into intracellular and extracellular fluids. Plasma is considered	>>extracellular
The maintenance of the proper pH of the body fluids may be the result of	>>the control of respiratory ventilation
Which of the following is not a disorder of water balance?	>>excessive hydration due to excess ADH secretion
The regulation of sodium	is due to specific sodium receptors in the hypothalamus
Select the correct statement about renal mechanisms of acid -base balance.	The kidneys are not able to excrete phosphoric acid.
Blood analysis indicates a low pH, and the patient is breathing rapidly. Given your knowledge of acid-base balance, which of the following is most likely?	respiratory acidosis
A patient is breathing slowly and blood pH analysis indicates an abnormally high value. What is the likely diagnosis?	respiratory acidosis
One of the major physiological factors that triggers thirst is	a dry mouth from high temperatures
Annie has just eaten a large order of heavily salted french fries, some pickled eggs, and some cheese. How will consuming this much salt affect her physiology?	It will increase the osmolality of the blood.
The most important force causing net water flow across capillary walls is	osmotic pressure of plasma proteins
Which of the following does not depend on the presence of electrolytes?	membrane polarity
The regulation of potassium balance	is not linked to sodium balance
The respiratory mechanism of acid-base balance	>>requires an enzyme within red blood cells that causes the formation of carbonic acid
Bicarbonate buffer system	Uses Na2HPO4 as a weak base
Protein buffer system	Uses Na2HPO4 as a weak base
Phosphate buffer system	>>Uses Na2HPO4 as a weak base
Physiological compensation	Uses Na2HPO4 as a weak base
Aldosterone	>>The hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels
Calcitonin	The hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels
Cushing's disease	The hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels
Hyperkalemia	The hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels
Hyponatremia	The hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels
Na+	Most abundant negative electrolyte in intracellular fluid
K+	Most abundant negative electrolyte in intracellular fluid
Cl-	Most abundant negative electrolyte in intracellular fluid
HPO4-	>>Most abundant negative electrolyte in intracellular fluid
Mg2+	Most abundant negative electrolyte in intracellular fluid
Dehydration	>>When water output exceeds intake over a period of time resulting is in negative fluid balance
Hypotonic hydration	When water output exceeds intake over a period of time resulting is in negative fluid balance
Edema	When water output exceeds intake over a period of time resulting is in negative fluid balance
Hyponatremia	When water output exceeds intake over a period of time resulting is in negative fluid balance
Bicarbonate buffer system	Strong acid (HCl) buffered by weak base (Na2HPO4)
Phosphate buffer system	>>Strong acid (HCl) buffered by weak base (Na2HPO4)
Protein buffer system	Strong acid (HCl) buffered by weak base (Na2HPO4)
HCl + NaHCO3	NaHCO3 + H2O
NaOH + H2CO3	>>NaHCO3 + H2O
HCl + Na2HPO4	NaHCO3 + H2O
NaOH + NaH2PO4	NaHCO3 + H2O
Metabolic acidosis	Any condition that impairs gas exchange or lung ventilation; rapid, shallow breathing; narcotic or barbiturate overdose or injury to brain stem
Metabolic alkalosis	Any condition that impairs gas exchange or lung ventilation; rapid, shallow breathing; narcotic or barbiturate overdose or injury to brain stem
Respiratory acidosis	>>Any condition that impairs gas exchange or lung ventilation; rapid, shallow breathing; narcotic or barbiturate overdose or injury to brain stem
Respiratory alkalosis	Any condition that impairs gas exchange or lung ventilation; rapid, shallow breathing; narcotic or barbiturate overdose or injury to brain stem
Na+	Major intracellular anion
K+	Major intracellular anion
Cl-	Major intracellular anion
HPO42-	>>Major intracellular anion
Dissociate in water.	Extracellular
Do not dissociate.	Extracellular
The fluid compartments outside the cell.	>>Extracellular
Fluid compartments located within the cell.	Extracellular
Spaces between cells.	Extracellular
Magnesium excess.	>>Hypermagnesemia
Calcium depletion.	Hypermagnesemia
Sodium excess.	Hypermagnesemia
Potassium excess.	Hypermagnesemia
Sodium depletion.	Hypermagnesemia
An atypical accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space.	>>Edema
A condition of unusually low levels of plasma proteins resulting in tissue edema.	Edema
A disorder entailing deficient mineralocorticoid hormone production by the adrenal cortex.	Edema
Regulates sodium ion concentrations in the extracellular fluid.	Edema
Special neurons in the hypothalamus that sense the ECF solute concentration and trigger or inhibit ADH release from the posterior pituitary gland.	Edema
Sodium ions are highest in	Intracellular fluid
Potassium ions are highest in	>>Intracellular fluid
Phosphate ions are highest in	>>Intracellular fluid
Bicarbonate ions are highest in	Intracellular fluid
Proteins are highest in	>>Intracellular fluid
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809188_dynA.jpg	Head of epididymis
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809188_dynB.jpg	>>Head of epididymis
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809188_dynC.jpg	Head of epididymis
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809188_dynD.jpg	Head of epididymis
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809188_dynE.jpg	Head of epididymis
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809188_dynF.jpg	Head of epididymis
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809189_dynA.jpg	Seminal vesicle
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809189_dynB.jpg	>>Seminal vesicle
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809189_dynC.jpg	Seminal vesicle
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809189_dynD.jpg	Seminal vesicle
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809189_dynE.jpg	Seminal vesicle
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809189_dynF.jpg	Seminal vesicle
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809190_dynA.jpg	Late spermatids
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809190_dynB.jpg	Late spermatids
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809190_dynC.jpg	Late spermatids
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809190_dynD.jpg	Late spermatids
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809190_dynE.jpg	Late spermatids
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809190_dynF.jpg	>>Late spermatids
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809191_dynA.jpg	>>Body of uterus
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809191_dynB.jpg	Body of uterus
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809191_dynC.jpg	Body of uterus
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809191_dynD.jpg	Body of uterus
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809191_dynE.jpg	Body of uterus
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809191_dynF.jpg	Body of uterus
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809192_dynA.jpg	Labia minora
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809192_dynB.jpg	Labia minora
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809192_dynC.jpg	Labia minora
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809192_dynD.jpg	Labia minora
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809192_dynE.jpg	>>Labia minora
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809192_dynF.jpg	Labia minora
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809193_dynA.jpg	Areola
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809193_dynB.jpg	>>Areola
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809193_dynC.jpg	Areola
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809193_dynD.jpg	Areola
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809193_dynE.jpg	Areola
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809194_dynA.jpg	Primary oocyte
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809194_dynB.jpg	>>Primary oocyte
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809194_dynC.jpg	Primary oocyte
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809194_dynD.jpg	Primary oocyte
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809194_dynE.jpg	Primary oocyte
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809194_dynF.jpg	Primary oocyte
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig271A.jpg	>>Stem cell.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig271B.jpg	>>Type B spermatagonia.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig271C.jpg	>>Primary spermatocyte.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig271D.jpg	>>First cells with n number of chromosomes.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig271E.jpg	>>Early spermatids.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig272A.jpg	>>Midpiece.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig272A.jpg	>>Mitochondria.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig272B.jpg	>>Acrosome.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig272C.jpg	>>Area of compacted DNA.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig272C.jpg	>>Nucleus.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig273A.jpg	>>Primordial follicle.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig273B.jpg	>>Primary follicles.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig273C.jpg	>>Vesicular (Graafian) follicle.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig273D.jpg	>>Corpus luteum.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig273E.jpg	>>The stage called ovulation.
Genetic variation is NOT enhanced through	crossing over events.
In response to parasympathetic stimulation,	vessels in the penis constrict.
The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that	during spermatogenesis two more polar bodies are produced.
The organ that makes estrogen and progesterone is the:	vagina.
The primary sex organ of the male is the	penis.
The reason why the testes are suspended in the scrotum is	to place sperm storage sites nearer the penis.
The sperm's acrosome	beats so that the sperm can swim.
The surge in LH that occurs during the middle of the ovarian cycle triggers	FSH release.
The usual site of fertilization is the	ovary.
The uterine layer which is shed with each monthly cycle is	the basal layer of endometrium.
These cells located in between seminiferous tubules produce testosterone	sustentacular.
Under which uterine phase does the functional layer of the endometrium start to rebuild?	Secretory
What is the most common sexually transmitted disease in the U.S.?	Genital warts
Which cell type is actually ovulated from the ovary?	Ovum
Which form of birth control below is most effective?	Condom
Which is the most correct sequence of sperm flow in the male duct system?	Seminiferous tubules; prostatic urethra; vas deferens; ejaculatory duct; ampulla
Which male structure is homologous to the female's clitoris?	Scrotum
Which represents a correct cascade of reproductive hormones in males?	FSH; LH; GnRH; testosterone
Within the ovary, progesterone is produced by the	secondary follicles.
Sperm are produced in the	prostate.
Ovulation in a typical or "average" cycle usually occurs on day	28
What hormone is responsible for the secondary sex characteristics found in women?	FSH
How do birth control pills (oral contraceptives) work?	They lower the amount of estrogen in the body.
If the testes are both removed before puberty, will secondary sex characteristics develop in the male?	>>No, they won't develop and the man will be sterile.
During which of the following phases is the corpus luteum formed?	>>Secretory
The muscular wall of the uterus is called the	Epimetrium
Which of the following hormones causes the oocyte to mature?	LH
Which of the following hormones is not involved in the regulation of the number of sperm produced in the testes?	testosterone
Which of the following statements about myoid cells is true?	They form a straight tubule that conveys sperm into the rete testis.
Which of the following absorb heat from the testes?	the interstitial cells
Which of the following structures passes through the inguinal canal?	the ductus deferens
The _______________ absorb excess testicular fluid.	seminal glands
Which of the following structures makes up most of the male urethral length?	ejaculatory duct
All of the following statements about a vasectomy are true except:	the part of the ductus deferens that lies in the scrotum is cut.
Which of the following gases is essential for normal erection?	carbon monoxide
The blood-testis barrier is made up of ________ cells.	epithelial
The meiotically active cells in the testes lie in the ___________.	blood-testis barrier
Xenobiotics are	antibodies formed by the female against sperm.
Which of the following organs is not part of the brain-testicular axis?	the hypothalamus
Which of the following statements about testosterone is false?	Testosterone boosts the basal metabolic rate.
The broad ligament would contain all of the following structures except the __________.	suspensory ligament
The __________ follicle is the mature ovarian follicle.	primary
Fertilization usually occurs in the _________ of the fallopian tube.	>>ampulla of the fallopian tube
Which of the following structures provides the principal support for the uterus?	the mesometrium
The __________ is considered the female organ of copulation.	uterus
Which of the following structures is thought to provide the route of HIV transmission from an infected male to the female during sexual intercourse?	granulosa cells
The _________ in the female is homologous of the penile bulb and corpus spongiosum in the male.	greater vestibular glands
All of the following statements about breast cancer are true except:	Early onset of menses and late menopause are considered a risk factor in the development of this condition.
High levels of which of the following hormones exert a positive feedback on the brain and pituitary during the ovarian cycle?	FSH
All of the following are associated with endometriosis except:	an abnormal uterus
______________is considered is the most common endocrinopathy in females?	Uterine fibroid
The dartos and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male reproductive system. Which of the following is true about the role they play?	They contract to push sperm along the ductus deferens.
The ability of sperm cells to move along the ductus deferens is due to	gravity
The ability of a male to ejaculate is due to the action of	parasympathetic nerves
The most important risk for testicular cancer in young males is	smoking
Which of the following glands are responsible for 60% of the synthesis of semen?	>>the seminal vesicles
Which of the following hormones controls the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins?	LH
Development of male reproductive structures depends on which of the following events?	that the female hormones are suppressed during pregnancy
The primary function of the uterus is to	protect the ovaries
The corpus luteum is	>>the ruptured follicle following the ejection of an oocyte from the ovary
The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilization, are called	the Graafian follicles
Which of the following constitutes the female counterpart of the male scrotum?	the clitoris
Human egg and sperm are similar in that	about the same number of each is produced per month
The constancy of the chromosome number from one cell generation to the next is maintained through	mitosis
Fertilization generally occurs in the	ovary
Spermiogenesis involves	the formation of four haploid cells from a spermatogonium
All of the following can be considered male secondary sex characteristics except the	development of body hair
In humans, separation of the cells at the two-cell state following fertilization may lead to the production of twins, which in this case would be	dizygotic
Characteristics of the mature sperm include	the presence of two X chromosomes in approximately half the sperm
Functions of testosterone include	>>facilitation of muscle and skeletal growth in mass
Effects of estrogen include	increased oiliness of the skin
Secretion of progesterone stimulates	contraction of uterine muscles
Which of the following statements about sperm is not true?	They contain very little cytoplasm or stored nutrients.
The cells that produce testosterone in the testis are called	spermatocytes
The testicular cells that construct the blood-testis barrier are the	spermatocytes
Which of the following occurs as a result of undescended testes?	Male sex hormones will not be circulated in the body.
Erection of the penis results from	a sympathetic reflex
Which is not a part of the proliferative phase of the female menstrual cycle?	late in this phase, cervical mucus becomes thin and crystalline
Select the correct statement about the testis.	>>The testis is surrounded by the tunica vaginalis.
Select the correct statement about male sexual response.	Sympathetic impulses are responsible for causing penile arteriolar dilation, resulting in erection.
The ovaries	>>are surrounded by the tunica albuginea
Select the correct statement about mammary glands.	Mammary glands are modified sebaceous glands.
During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle	LH reaches its highest levels
Select the correct statement about the uterine cycle.	The menstrual phase of the cycle is from day 1 to day 8.
What mechanism divides the testes into lobules?	interstitial spaces
Which of the following statements is true concerning the mammary glands of both males and females?	Both sexes are equally prone to breast cancer.
Normally menstruation occurs when	blood levels of FSH fall off
The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that	during spermatogenesis two more polar bodies are produced
Occasionally three polar bodies are found clinging to the mature ovum. One came from an unequal division of the ovum, but from where did the other two arise?	There were originally four polar bodies and one disappeared.
Which of the following will occur after ovulation?	The corpus luteum secretes estrogen only.
The seminal vesicles	>>produce a yellowish fluid rich in fructose
Spermatogenesis	is the process of releasing mature sperm cells into the lumen of the seminiferous tubule
The gubernaculum	is the part of the parietal peritoneum that will become the tunica vaginalis
The brain-testicular axis	is the tight relationship between the cortex and the control of testicular function
Select the correct statement about testosterone control.	>>GnRh from the hypothalamus causes FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary.
Which of the following is a correct statement about uterine tubes?	The ampulla is the narrow constricted region.
Select the correct statement about the hormonal events of the ovarian cycle.	Rising levels of estrogen start follicle development.
Which of these statements about sexually transmitted diseases is false?	Chlamydia is caused by bacteria that can often be asymptomatic or bring on a wide variety of symptoms.
Which of the following statements about spermatogenesis is not true?	The spermatogonium forms the primary spermatocyte.
A boy who has not passed through puberty sustains an injury to his anterior pituitary such that FSH is no longer released, but LH is normal. After he grows to maturity, one would expect that he would	>>be sterile
Which of the following statements about the female reproductive process is not true?	Fertilization usually occurs in the fallopian tube.
A low secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) in the normal male adult would cause	>>decreased testosterone secretion
All of the following statements referring to the uterine cycle are true except	>>FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium
Which of the following phases or processes in the monthly reproductive cycle of the female occur simultaneously?	maximal LH secretion and menstruation
The duct system of the male reproductive system includes	the epididymis, a tightly coiled tube about 6 inches long
An ovulating oocyte is actually activated by hormones about	days before ovulation.
Prostate cancer is	the number one cause of death in men
Corpus luteum	Some are turned on each month under FSH stimulation
Primary follicle	Some are turned on each month under FSH stimulation
Primordial follicle	>>Some are turned on each month under FSH stimulation
Secondary follicle	Some are turned on each month under FSH stimulation
Mature follicle	Some are turned on each month under FSH stimulation
FSH	Directly stimulates interstitial cells in males
GnRH	Directly stimulates interstitial cells in males
LH	>>Directly stimulates interstitial cells in males
Progesterone	Directly stimulates interstitial cells in males
Testosterone	Directly stimulates interstitial cells in males
Bulbourethral gland	Site of fertilization
Ampulla of uterine tube	>>Site of fertilization
Cervix	Site of fertilization
Ovary	Site of fertilization
Pituitary	Site of fertilization
Endometrium	Site of fertilization
Cryptorchidism	Surrounds urethra
Vasectomy	Surrounds urethra
Corpus cavernosum	Surrounds urethra
Corpus spongiosum	>>Surrounds urethra
Seminal vesicles	Surrounds urethra
Seminiferous tubules	Surrounds urethra
Menopause	Production of testosterone
Menarche	Production of testosterone
Sustentacular cells	Production of testosterone
Interstitial cells	>>Production of testosterone
Follicular cells	Production of testosterone
Myometrium	Incomplete partition covering the vaginal orifice
Endometrium	Incomplete partition covering the vaginal orifice
Perimetrium	Incomplete partition covering the vaginal orifice
Hymen	>>Incomplete partition covering the vaginal orifice
Fundus	Incomplete partition covering the vaginal orifice
Cervix	Incomplete partition covering the vaginal orifice
Estrogen	Promotes secretory phase of uterine cycle
Progesterone	>>Promotes secretory phase of uterine cycle
Testosterone	Promotes secretory phase of uterine cycle
LH surge	Promotes secretory phase of uterine cycle
Estrogen	Trophoblast
Progesterone	Trophoblast
Testosterone	Trophoblast
LH	Trophoblast
hCG	>>Trophoblast
Oxytocin	Trophoblast
Where the fetus develops and grows.	>>Uterus
The release of oocyte from ovary.	Uterus
External sac enclosing the testes.	Uterus
Erectile tissue in the male.	Uterus
Female homologue of the scrotum.	Uterus
Human papillomavirus.	Genital herpes
Treponema pallidum.	Genital herpes
Urethritis in males.	Genital herpes
Human herpes virus type 2.	>>Genital herpes
Organism responsible for up to half of the diagnosed cases of pelvic inflammatory disease.	Genital herpes
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809279_dynA.jpg	Extracellular space
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809279_dynB.jpg	Extracellular space
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809279_dynC.jpg	Extracellular space
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809279_dynD.jpg	>>Extracellular space
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809279_dynE.jpg	Extracellular space
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809280_dynA.jpg	Early blastocyst
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809280_dynB.jpg	Early blastocyst
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809280_dynC.jpg	>>Early blastocyst
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809280_dynD.jpg	Early blastocyst
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809280_dynE.jpg	Early blastocyst
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809281_dynA.jpg	Inner cell mass
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809281_dynB.jpg	Inner cell mass
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809281_dynC.jpg	Inner cell mass
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809281_dynD.jpg	>>Inner cell mass
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809282_dynA.jpg	Umbilical arteries
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809282_dynB.jpg	Umbilical arteries
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809282_dynC.jpg	Umbilical arteries
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809282_dynD.jpg	Umbilical arteries
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809282_dynE.jpg	>>Umbilical arteries
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig281A.jpg	>>Esophagus.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig281B.jpg	>>Trachea.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig281C.jpg	>>Stomach.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig281D.jpg	>>Liver.
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig281E.jpg	>>Pancreas.
Following fertilization the zygote goes through a rapid period of cell divisions called	blastulation.
Which statement regarding maternal hormones during pregnancy is accurate?	hCG levels increase throughout gestation.
The technique in which conception occurs artificially in the laboratory is called	artificial insemination.
Implantation is usually completed after	gastrulation has occurred.
The outermost embryonic membrane is the	amnion.
The process which transforms the embryo into a three-layered stage is called	blastulation.
Which structure below is formed from endodermal tissues?	Kidneys
Which structure below is formed from ectodermal tissues?	Skeleton
The function of the ductus arteriosus is to	bypass the coronary circuit.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the placenta?	Waste elimination
Which factor below is NOT considered to be a teratogen?	Alcohol
How many weeks does the embryonic period last?	15
Which hormone produced by the placenta causes the mother's pubic symphysis to loosen and widen?	Estrogen
An implantation that takes place in a site other than the uterus is called	hyadatic.
Which of the following is NOT a common metabolic/physiological change that occurs in pregnant women?	Increased respiratory rate
The hormone that induces labor and controls labor via a positive feedback mechanism is	hCG.
Which of the following represents the correct stages of labor?	Dilation - placental - expulsion
The Apgar score range that indicates a healthy baby is	4-6
Which substance is NOT present in colostrum?	Vitamin A
Which structure represents the remnants of the atrial fetal shunt?	Ligamentum teres
What factor causes the endometrium NOT to be sloughed or lost when a woman becomes pregnant?	GnRH which is stimulated by the lack of estrogen
What is the function of the hormone hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)?	It causes the uterine lining to slough or shed to maintain pregnancy.
The heart begins to beat in the developing offspring	when it becomes a fetus.
Implantation of the blastocyst begins	>>6-7 days after ovulation.
Prolactin causes	uterine contractions only.
The cells of the blastocyst that become the embryo proper are the	corpus luteum.
Which of the following is a newborn's source of energy for the first few days?	>>fat
Which of the following is NOT from the same germ line as the others?	liver
During the first eight weeks of gestation, the conceptus is called a/an ______.	fetus
All of the following prevent polyspermy except:	natural elimination of an embryo with too much genetic material.
The future right and left axes of the embryo are determined by the site where the	>>alpha protein is activated and the fertilizing sperm is inserted into the oocyte membrane.
Sperm are known to bear ____________ that respond to chemical stimuli that help them locate the ova.	acrosomes
When does the true moment of fertilization occur?	It occurs when the sperm enters the ovarian membrane.
Cleavage produces a structure called a/an _______.	chorion
All pregnancy tests today are antibody tests that detect ______ in the woman's blood or urine.	estrogen
Which of the following is not a function of trophoblast cells?	They secrete hCG.
The disc-shaped placenta is formed from the	chronic villi and the decidua capsularis.
The process by which the three primary germ layers form is known as _______.	placentation
Gastrulation begins by the formation of the _______.	endoderm
The first major event of organogenesis is	sporulation.
The remnants of the notochord are seen in the	vertebral column.
The cells of the _________ mesoderm form the gonads and kidneys.	>>intermediate
The newest method to determine the optimal days for fertilization is by	>>observing a particular pattern of crystal formation in a drop of saliva under the microscope.
The only 100% effective method of birth control is ______.	NuvaRing
All of the following statements about the foramen ovale are true except:	>>It allows blood to pass directly from the right atrium into the left ventricle.
At 17-20 weeks of gestation, which of the following features would not be seen?	an approximate crown-to-rump length of 190mm
When is the earliest the sex can be readily detected by observing the genitals in a developing fetus?	8 weeks
The bluish discoloration of the vagina during pregnancy is known as _________.	>>Chadwick's sign
Preeclampsia is caused by	a decrease in the placental blood flow.
Increased production of _________ by the fetus in the weeks before delivery appears to trigger an inflammatory response in the cervix that causes it to soften in preparation for labor.	oxytocin
Dystonica can lead to all of the following except:	fetal epilepsy
The transitional period is considered the first six _________ of an infant's life.	days
All of the following is true about colostrum except:	It is the yellowish fluid produced the first two to three days after delivery.
Cells on the dorsal surface of the two-layered embryonic disc migrate to form a raised groove known as the	blastocyst
The result of polyspermy in humans is	multiple births
It is impossible for sperm to be functional (able to fertilize the egg) until after	the tail disappears
Milk ejection or let-down reflex is stimulated by which of the following hormones associated with pregnancy?	inhibin
Estrogen and progesterone maintain the integrity of the uterine lining and prepare the mammary glands to secrete milk. Which of the following structures makes this possible during the first three months of pregnancy?	the amnion
The placenta, a vitally important metabolic organ, is made up of a contribution from mother and fetus. Which portion is from the fetus?	>>chorion
Relaxin is a hormone produced by the placenta and ovaries. The function of this hormone is to	block the pain of childbirth
Proteases and acrosin are enzymes. How do they function in reproduction?	They neutralize the mucous secretions of the uterine mucosa.
Which of the following is not a germ layer?	ectoderm
The formation of endodermal and ectodermal germ layers occurs at	fertilization
One of the plates of the lateral mesoderm forms	the notochord
Which of the following is a highly unlikely method of producing a child?	embryo transfer
Failure of the foramen ovale to close at birth may result in	direct aeration of blood
Implantation involves	placenta completion
The umbilical arteries carry	>>waste products to the placenta
The correct sequence of preembryonic structures is	zygote, blastocyst, morula
One sign of a newborn's physical condition that forms part of the Apgar score is which of the following?	>>color
Hormones concerned with events of lactation include	estrogen
Initially, the implanted embryo obtains its nutrition by	simple diffusion of nutrients from the uterine secretions
Onset of labor may be a result of all of the following factors except	secretion of oxytocin
Select the correct statement about fertilization.	Both spermatozoa and the ovulated secondary oocyte remain viable for about 72 hours in the female reproductive tract.
Shortly after implantation	maternal blood sinuses bathe the inner cell mass
The dorsal surface cells of the inner cell mass form	a structure called the embryonic disc
Muscle tissue is formed by the	>>mesoderm
Neural tissue is formed by the	epiderm
The trophoblast is mostly responsible for forming the	allantois
The cardiovascular system of a newborn must be adjusted after the infant takes its first breath. Which of the following is also true?	The foramen ovale between the atria of the fetal heart closes at the moment of birth.
Sperm move to the uterine tube through uterine contractions and the energy of their own flagella. What other factor is involved in sperm movement?	hormonal attraction to the ova
At which stage of labor is the "afterbirth" expelled?	dystocia
Which hormone is not produced by the placenta?	human placental lactogen
During which stage of labor is the fetus delivered?	dilation stage
Implantation of the blastocyst is the result of all of the following except	>>phagocytosis by the trophoblast cells
Cleavage as part of embryonic development is distinctive because it involves	>>cell division by mitosis with little or no growth between successive divisions
Which of the following is true in reference to what may pass through the placental barriers?	nutrients and respiratory gases only
Which of the following is not usually considered a teratogen?	>>aspirin
Derivatives of the ectoderm include	serosae of the ventral body cavity
Derivatives of the mesoderm include	all nervous tissue
Derivatives of the endoderm include	>>epithelium of the respiratory tract
Developmental events during weeks 9-12 include	>>sex readily detected from the genitals
Developmental events during weeks 21 -30 include	quickening, which occurs first
Which metabolic change does not occur as the placenta enlarges?	increased human placental lactogen secretion
Select the correct statement about the special fetal blood vessels.	The distal parts of the umbilical arteries form the superior vesical arteries.
Which of the following statements about the events of fertilization is not true?	>>The two pronuclei divide.
The decidua basalis is	destines to remain in the uterus after the birth of the infant
Blastocyst	Begins at week nine
Fetus	>>Begins at week nine
Gastrula	Begins at week nine
Morula	Begins at week nine
Zygote	Begins at week nine
Bones	Ectoderm
Brain	>>Ectoderm
Liver	Ectoderm
Ductus arteriosus	Carries blood to and from placenta
Ductus venosus	Carries blood to and from placenta
Ligamentum venosum	Carries blood to and from placenta
Ligamentum arteriosum	Carries blood to and from placenta
Umbilical cord	>>Carries blood to and from placenta
Foramen ovale	2
Number of umbilical arteries	>>2
Number of umbilical veins	2
Fossa ovalis	2
Umbilical artery	2
Umbilical vein	2
Estrogen	>>Rises throughout pregnancy
Progesterone	Rises throughout pregnancy
Oxytocin	Rises throughout pregnancy
hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)	Rises throughout pregnancy
Relaxin	Rises throughout pregnancy
Ovulation	Forms embryo proper
Implantation begins	Forms embryo proper
Inner cell mass	>>Forms embryo proper
Trophoblast	Forms embryo proper
Embryo	Forms embryo proper
Fertilization	Forms embryo proper
End of 8 weeks	Most bones distinct and joint cavities apparent
9 - 12 weeks	Most bones distinct and joint cavities apparent
13 -16 weeks	>>Most bones distinct and joint cavities apparent
17 - 20 weeks (5th month)	Most bones distinct and joint cavities apparent
7th month	Most bones distinct and joint cavities apparent
8-9th month	Most bones distinct and joint cavities apparent
Fertilization	Maternal and paternal DNA mix
Penetration	Maternal and paternal DNA mix
Amphimixis	>>Maternal and paternal DNA mix
Implantation	Maternal and paternal DNA mix
Protective water-filled sac surrounding the embryo.	Chorion
Extraembryonic membrane that develops from the trophoblast and some extraembryonic mesoderm, and forms part of the placenta.	>>Chorion
Site of early blood cell production, and forms part of the gut (digestive tube).	Chorion
Structure in humans that is the structural base for the umbilical cord; the solid waste disposal site in nonplacental animals.	Chorion
Leads to the development of a morula and then a blastocyst.	Gastrulation
Embedding of the blastocyst in the uterine wall.	Gastrulation
Leads to the formation of the first cell of the new individual.	Gastrulation
Leads to the establishment of the three primary germ layers.	>>Gastrulation
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809369_dynA.jpg	TT
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809369_dynB.jpg	TT
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809369_dynC.jpg	>>TT
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/2809369_dynD.jpg	TT
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig291.jpg	Blank square genotype = GG
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig291.jpg	Offspring genotype ratio = 1:1:1:1
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig291.jpg	Phenotype ratio (C is dominant) = 1:1:1:1
http://www.ywmarketing.com/APHY102/Fig291.jpg	Phenotype ratio (C incomplety dominant) = 1:1:1:1
Alternative forms of genes are called	telomeres.
Humans have ____ pairs of chromosomes.	60
What type of allele will be expressed if both dominant and recessive alleles are present for a given trait?	Autosomal
Which of the following events in reproduction does NOT contribute to an increase in variation among the offspring?	>>64 & Meiosis
Which process listed below separates linked genes during meiosis?	Genomic restructuring
The form of inheritance in which the heterozygous state is expressed as an intermediate is	sex-linked.
A person who inherits the A and the O blood type alleles will possess which blood type?	AB
Males tend to inherit more sex-linked conditions because	there is no corresponding alleles on their X chromosomes.
A change in the genetic structure of a gene is called	deletion.
Extrachromosomal inheritance involves genes passed on by the mother's	>>mitochondria.
The most common form of fetal testing is	gene therapy.
The expression of genes is called the	>>phenotype.
Traits that display continuous phenotypic variation are usually determined by this form of inheritance	sex-linked.
Which of the following is NOT a source of genetic variation?	>>Mitosis
What is the probability of having a recessive trait child if both parents are heterozygous for the trait?	100%
Which trait is determined by recessive genes?	Astigmatism
A type of treatment useful in correcting single gene disorders is	amniocentesis.
Heterozygous individuals that may pass on recessive, abnormal conditions are referred to as	recessively compromised.
Genes that are located on the same chromosome are said to be	syncopated.
In the human blood type AB, the alleles are	dominant.
Which of the following disorders are NOT inherited as simple recessive traits?	>>Down syndrome
If a male inherits a sex-linked gene for color blindness	it will never be expressed.
The appearance of freckles is considered	the genotype.
A person without a Y chromosome will	show both male and female characteristics.
During which stage of the cell cycle are genes and chromosomes duplicated?	prophase
The 46 chromosomes of a zygote come from	the egg.
A karyotype is a complete	>>diploid complement display of homologous chromosome pairs.
Any two matched genes that are __________ are called alleles.	>>at the same locus on homologous chromosomes
If the allele for brown hair was represented as "B" this would mean that	>>brown hair was a dominant trait.
What determines the frequency of a trait in the general population?	the number of doses of the gene in the couple
The number of different gametes that can be produced in a male, based on independent assortment alone, equals _____.	>>223
All of the following events produce variations in an individual's genotype except:	random fertilization of oocytes by sperm
Most human traits are determined by	>>multiple alleles.
Which of the following human traits are not dictated by dominant alleles?	widow's peak
All of the following about Huntington's disease is true except:	It is caused by a delayed-action gene that is expressed when the affected individual is about 40.
Heterozygous parents who have had one offspring with a recessive disease will have a ___ chance of their second child being born with the same recessive condition.	>>25%
The ABO blood group is determined by	>>multiple-gene expression.
Which of the following genes is found exclusively on the Y chromosome?	cone pigments
Height is controlled by	one gene pair.
A phenocopy occurs when	an individual who is created by making an exact copy of another's genotype.
In females, one of the X-chromosomes is inactivated by	the number of dominant genes present on each X chromosome.
The difference in the expression of schizophrenia seen in identical twins can be attributed to	the affect of other genes that lie near the gene affected for this condition.
Which of the following conditions is thought to be caused by a mutation in mtDNA?	Prader-Willi syndrome
Which of the following methods for the detection of genetic abnormalities in the fetus could be done the earliest and give the most accurate results?	Testing the parents to determine if either of them are carriers for certain genetic abnormalities.
Two alleles expressing exactly the same information for a trait are designated as	hemizygous
Dominant alleles are so called because under most circumstances they	code only for tallness and dark skin
Recessive genes are usually expressed in humans only when	they are coding for skin color
Those characteristics that can be determined on superficial inspection of an individual are known as	genotypic
The number of gamete types from independent assortment of the homologues during meiosis in humans would be:	21 x 2 (42)
A female infant is born with several hundred oocytes, each one genetically unique. This is due to	mutation
If we are to consider the variation resulting only from independent assortment and random fertilization, any resulting offspring represents about one out of	64 zygotes possible
Mitosis differs from meiosis because in meiosis we observe	>>tetrads
The reason recessive genetic disorders are more frequent than disorders inherited as dominant is that	dominant genetic disorders are never expressed in males
The gene responsible for the condition known as sickle -cell anemia demonstrates	>>incomplete dominance
An example of multiple allele inheritance is	>>the ABO blood group
Which of the following is true concerning environmental influence on genetic expression?	It is impossible to alter in any way the expression of a gene in humans.
Sex chromosomes of a normal male are	XX
A woman has blond hair and brown eyes. This statement is best described as indicating	allelic pairs
A chromosomal aberration in which part of a chromosome is lost is known as	>>deletion
Inheritance of stature (height) in humans is probably due to	polyploidy
Huntington's disease is an example of a(n)	gene.
An individual who is heterozygous for a particular trait, yet expresses both alleles of that trait, is an example of	dominance
______ is the most common type of fetal testing.	Blood chemistry
Huntington's disease involves	hypersecretion of growth hormone
One possible scientific explanation for siblings having very different skin color is	>>polygene inheritance, which results in continuous phenotypic variation between extremes
Which of the following statements is true concerning screening?	Screening is illegal in over half of the world.
The diploid genome contains chromosomes from	the father only
Amy's hand was exposed to X rays. A gene in a skin cell of her hand mutated. This mutant gene	will definitely cause skin cancer
Select the incorrect statement about Chromosomes and genes.	>>Genes on neighboring but different chromosomes are called linked.
The main way a recessive allele would be expressed even when only one copy is present would be	dominance
A couple whose blood types are A (IAi) and B (IBi) may have a child with which of the following blood types?	AB only
Gene mutations in the sex chromosomes of the human would tend to become visibly expressed	>>more frequently in males
For which of the following are newborn infants not routinely screened at birth?	PKU
Dominant-recessive	Blood types are an example of a trait expressed this way
Incomplete	Blood types are an example of a trait expressed this way
Multiple-allele	>>Blood types are an example of a trait expressed this way
Polygenic	Blood types are an example of a trait expressed this way
Sex-linked	Blood types are an example of a trait expressed this way
Allele	>>An alternative gene form
Genome	An alternative gene form
Genotype	An alternative gene form
Homozygous	An alternative gene form
Phenotype	An alternative gene form
Albinism, if both parents are heterozygous for the albino gene	0
Huntington's, if one parent is heterozygous for Huntington's gene	0
Sickle cell anemia, if one parent is heterozygous for sickle cell gene	>>0%
Polygenic	Hemophilia
Multiple-allele	Hemophilia
Dominant-recessive	Hemophilia
Sex-linked	>>Hemophilia
Genes for cone pigments (eye)	>>X chromosome
SRY gene	X chromosome
Gene for skin pigmentation (melanin)	X chromosome
A cell from a person with trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome) contains	>>Abnormal chromosome number
A sperm cell is produced by	Abnormal chromosome number
A blastocyst is produced by	Abnormal chromosome number
An ovum contains	Abnormal chromosome number
A zygote contains	Abnormal chromosome number
Mother is type O and father type A	Type O only
Mother is AB and father type O	Type O only
Mother is B and father is type AB	Type O only
Mother is O and father is type O	>>Type O only
XX	>>Normal female
XY	Normal female
XXY	Normal female
XO	Normal female
XYY	Normal female
Actual genetic makeup.	Recessive
A chromosome pair that may be very different in size.	Recessive
Genes not expressed unless they are present in homozygous condition.	>>Recessive
Situation in which an individual has identical alleles for a particular trait.	Recessive
Lack of skin pigmentation.	Achondroplasia
Rare type of dwarfism resulting from an impaired ability of the fetus to form cartilage bone.	>>Achondroplasia
An unremitting, fatal nervous system disease involving degeneration of the basal nuclei.	Achondroplasia
A condition of excessive mucus production.	Achondroplasia
A disorder of brain lipid metabolism.	Achondroplasia
Genes for the same trait that have different expressions.	Heterozygous
The gene allele that suppresses or masks the expression of the other allele.	Heterozygous
Situation in which an individual has different alleles making up the genotype for a particular trait.	>>Heterozygous
Chromosomes regulating most body characteristics.	Heterozygous

Created by: yellowwood

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