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Net 120 Class Microsoft Windows 8.1

What are the buttons called in the Windows 8.1 edge UI that provide access to common operating system functions such as search and Settings B. Charms
What two actions will cause the All Apps button to appear,which will allow you to access a screen full of your tiles representing all of the applications installed on the Windows 8.1 computer? (Choose two answers.)
Which of the following methods is not a way to close unused apps that are still running on a Windows 8.1 computer? C. Press Windows + C on the keyboard
What keyboard combination can you use to open the Windows tool context menu, which contains options such as Power Options and Disk Management? C. Windows + X
Which edition of Windows 8.1 includes Office 2013 installed already but does not offer a choice of 32-bit or 64-bit versions? B. Windows RT
Considering the listed hardware specifications of your company's computers, which one of the listed specifications would disqualify the computer from being able to have the 64-bit edition of Windows 8.1 installed on it? C. 16 GB HDD free space
When considering an upgrade to Windows 8.1 , several critical questions must be considered. Which of the following is not one of these questions to consider? C. Should I back up user's data or leave it in place?
What is the minimum Windows 8.1 edition that you will need to use if you plan on joining the Windows 8.1 computer to an Active Directory domain? A. Windows 8.1 Pro
What name is used to describe the installation process where you boot from the Windows 8.1 setup disk and create or select a blank partition where the operating system will reside? B. Clean installation
From which of the following versions of Windows is it possible to perform an in-place upgrade to windows 8.1 Enterprise? (Choose all that apply) A. Windows 7 Professional C. Windows 8.1 Pro
When you perform an in-place upgrade to Windows 8.1 from Windows 7, what will be names of the "Windows" folders in Windows 7 and Windows 8.1? D. Windows 7: Windows Old; Windows 8.1: Windows
You have Windows 7 Home Basic installed on your computer. Which of the following editions of Windows 8.1 can you perform an in-place upgrade to? (Choose all that apply) A. Windows 8.1 D. Windows 8.1 Pro
You have Windows 7 Ultimate installed on your computer. Which of the following editions of Windows 8.1 can you perform an in-place upgrade to? (Choose all that apply) D. Windows 8.1 Pro
If you are currently running Windows 8.1 on your computer, what is the easiest way to upgrade to Windows 8.1 Pro? A. Use Anytime Upgrade
Why can you not use Anytime Upgrade to upgrade to Windows 8.1 Enterprise? D. It is only available to volume licensing customers.
Which of the following are requirements for Hyper-V? (Choose all that apply) B. Hardware-assisted virtualization C. X64-based processor D. Hardware data execution prevention (DEP)
Which of the following are requirements for Miracast? (Choose all that apply) A. A display driver that supports Miracast D. A wireless device that supports Virtual Wi-Fi and Wi-Fi Direct.
Which of the following are requirements for Secure Boot? D. A UEFI class 2 or Class 3 PC
Which basic security component is used to support Virtual Smart Cards? B. Trusted Platform Module
Which technology is used to encrypt consumer devices automatically when using a Microsoft account? B. Pervasive Device Encrytion
Which of the following is not a limitation of the MS-DOS boot environment that was eventually replaced with Windows PE? D. No boot from CD capability
How can you go about obtaining Windows PE 4.0 for usage in your organization? A. Download the Windows 8.1 Assessment and Deployment Kit
Which component of the Windows 8.1 Assessment and Deployment kit (ADK) enables administrators to migrate user profile information to newly installed Windows 8.1 workstations? B. user State Migration Tool
Computers running Windows PE will automatically shut down and reboot after how long? B. 72 hours
What name is given to a Windows PE installation on a computer with Windows 8.1 already installed? C. Windows Recovery Environment
In older versions of Windows, such as Windows XP, the boot.ini file wa used to provide the function that is now provided by what item? C. Boot Configuration Data (BCD) file
During what phase of the Windows 8.1 startup process is he Local Security Authority loaded? B. Logon phase
Before performing an upgrade to Windows 8.1, several tasks should be performed to ensure the procedure goes smoothly. Which of the following is not one of these tasks? D. Defragment the hard drive
Which of the following should be used to locate hardware inadequacies in the computer that might prevent a successful upgrade to Windows 8.1? B. Upgrade Assistant
In what scenario should you consider clicking the Go online to get the latest updates for installation option during an installation of Windows 8.1? C. if the computer is connected to the Internet and you expect that Windows will have the drivers for the network adapter
How can you quickly obtain an upgrade to install the Windows 8.1 media Center Pack on your Windows 8.1 computer? B. Use the Add features to Windows 8.1 application
When you use Bitlocker To Go on a Windows To Go USB drive, how is the internal TPM chip of the computer used? B. It is not used at all.
Where do you download and install the update, which will update a computer running Windows 8 to Windows 8.1? B. Windows Store
Which of the following steps best describes how features are added to Windows 8.1? D. perform a search for Add features and click Add features, Then type the appropriate product key.
Which of the following folders is not found as part of a default user profile? C. My Contacts
On which tab of an Active Directory user's account object would you configure a roaming profile path? B. Profile
What is the name used for the file that contains a mandatory profile? B. Ntuser.man
Your organization currently uses roaming profiles for all users. All users use Windows 7 computers. Windows 8.1 will be introduced shortly in your organization. Given the information presented, what issue should you be aware of? B. Windows 8.1 roaming profiles and Windows 7 roaming profiles are not compatible with each other.
You have a small num of Win XP comps in your org. You need 2 manually move as much data from the usr profile locs for these comps as possible to the new Win 8.1 comps these usrs will be rec shortly. Where in the file sys would you find the profile info? B. C:\Documents and Settings
Microsoft has created two different tools for migrating files and setting to new computers. Select the correct answer for two these tools. A. Windows Easy Transfer C. User State Migration Tool
In the scenario where you are installing Windows 8.1 on a new computer and plan to dispose of an old computer running Windows XP, which Windows Easy Transfer method would be most appropriate to use? A. side-byside
When using Windows Easy Transfer to transfer data form an older computer to a new windows 8.1 computer, which of the following storage mediums are acceptable for use? A. DVD B. USB flash drive
When performing a side-by-side migration using Windows Easy Transfer, which of the following connection methods are acceptable (Choose all that apply.) Not sure of answer A. Easy Transfer B. Removable USB hard drive C. Removable USB flash drive D. Network
What is the name of the USMT application that is used to save user profile data for a migration? D. scanstate.exe
The User State Migration Tool uses several files to control the migration process. What is the file format of these files? D. XML
What advantages are realized by storing user data on a network file share location versus on local workstation hard drives? (Choose all that apply.) A. Faster backups B. User mobility D. Simplified workstation replacement
When configuring folder redirection, which setting option could render the redirected contents inaccessible to the users at some point in the future? B. Policy Removal
When configuring the Setting options for folder redirection, which option should be selected to allow for security group-based redirection of user's folders? B. Advanced
U r an adm at corp. Usrs at yr corp use roam profs, which r store on cent file srver. U have usr who has dktop comp & lap, which r both running Wind 7. U upgr lap comp 2 Wind 8.1. Usr is having probs acc his prof when using his dktop comp. What is prob? A. When the user used Windows 8.1, the profile was upgraded, which is incompatible with Windows 7
To communicate with the operating system running on the computer, each device also requires a software element known as what? D. Device driver
you have opened the Properties dialog box for an installed printer on your computer system. On what tab will you find information that is specific to this piece of installed hardware n your computer system? C. Device Settings
Why are the device drivers for graphics adapters considered to be more problematic than drivers for other devices? (Choose all that apply.) A. The device driver is likely to be revised more often. C. The device driver is less likely to be included with the operating system. D. The device driver is more likely to cause compatibility or functionality problems
Normally, why do hardware manufacturers release new driver updates? (Choose all that apply.) B. To address problems with the previous driver release(s) D. To enhance performance of the device
What is the basic process employed to digitally sign a device driver or other piece of software? B. The device driver files are run through a hash algorithm and then encrypted using the publisher's private key.
What is the value of a protected checksum dependent upon? B. The contents of the data object
Which of the following statements are true regarding the behavior of Windows 8.1 64-bit editions and drivers? (Choose all that apply.) B. If the driver is not signed, Windows will not install it. D. If the driver has been modified after being signed, Windows will not install it.
what should you enter into the Run dialog box to open the Device Manager console? D. devmgmt.msc
On which tab of a driver's properties dialog box will you find information about the driver's provider and date of creation? D. driver
On which tab of a driver's properties dialog box will you find information about any conflicts the driver may be experiencing? B. Resources
After updating a device driver, the device has started to malfunction. What should you do first to try and resolve this issue? D. Roll back the driver
What is the net effect of deleting a device using Device Manager and then restarting the computer? B. The device will be detected by Window during the restart and Windows will try to reinstall it automatically
When Windows fails to correctly identify a detected device during the Windows installation, several things can happen. Which of these options is not one of the possible outcomes? C. The Windows installation program reboots the computer and attempts to identify the device again.
On which tab of a driver's properties dialog box will you find buttons that will allows you to update, rollback, or uninstall the device driver? D. Driver
Which of the following features allows you to add driver packages to WDS and then deploy them? B. dynamic driver provisioning
Which of the following utilities is used to add drivers to a computer running Windows 8.1? C. PnPUtil
When a specific file type, such as .mp3, can be opened by many different applications, how can you configure Windows 8.1 to use a specific application to open an .mp3 file that is double clicked? C. Use the Pick an application to open this file link in the Default Programs control panel.
You have PhotoShop Elements installed on your Windows 8.1 compute. you want PhotShop Elements to automatically be launched every time you plug in a memory card that contains photos. What setting do you need modify? B. Autoplay settings
Windows Installer uses what file format for single package application installations? C. msi
What is the executable file name for the Windows Installer application on a Windows 8.1 computer? B. Msiexec.exe
What Windows 8.1 feature prevents applications from executing code in prohibited areas? D. Data execution provention
What Windows 8.1 feature assigns one of four integrity levels to running processes? C. Mandatory integrity control
The Program Compatibility Troubleshooter will give you two options after attempting to determine what is preventing the program from running properly. What are these options? (Choose two answers.) A. Try Recommended Settings B. Troubleshoot Program
Windows 8.1 provides many emulation modes for older versions of Windows . Which of the listed modes is not available to select from? C. Windows 2000
In addition to being able to select an operating system to emulate, there are several other compatibility settings you can select from. Which of the following settings are available? (Choose all that apply.) A. Reduced color modes C. Disable Display Scaling On High DPI Images
Which of the following methods are available to administrators to prevent users from installing and using apps from the Windows Store? (Choose two answers.) A. Group Policy C. AppLocker
Which of the following is the name of the Group Policy setting used to control access to the Windows Store? B. Turn off the Store application
Which of the following is the central location included in Windows 8.1 for the distribution and purchase of Windows apps. D. Windows Store
What is the largest danger that high-capacity removable storage devices pose to an enterprise network? B. Data can be taken out of the network without authoriaztion
When using the Allow/Prevent installation of devices that match any of these device IDs setting in the Device Installation Restrictions folder of a GPO, what other setting must you ensure you also configure to provide the intended results? B. Prevent installation of devices not described by other policy settings
To exclude just MP3 players and digital cameras from being installed on your organization's computers, which Removable Storage Access setting should you configure to deny? C. WPD Devices
In order to use the Custom Classes: Deny read/write access setting of the Removable Storage Access policy settings, what will you need to know about each device to which you wish to allow read or write access? B. The device GUID
What disadvantage is encountered when using Software Restriction Policies? C. They must be configured manually
Software restriction policies can work in three ways, based on the settings you choose for each of the rules. Which of the following is not one of the settings to choose from? A. Allowed
When none of our configured Software Restriction Policies are matched, what happens? C. The settings in the default rule are used.
There are four types of rules in AppLocker. Which of the following is not one these rule types? B. Downloaded App rules
Which of the following operating systems are capable of utilizing AppLocker rules? (Choose all that apply) A. Windows & C. Windows Server 2012 d. Windows 8.1
When configuring AppLocker rules, you can opt to either allow or block access to specific resources based on three criteria. Which of the following is not one of those criteria? C. Source
When creating AppLocker rules manually, you will need to supply several pieces of information to fully configure the rule. Which of the following are pieces of information that you will need to supply? (Choose all that apply.) A. Exceptions B. Action C. User or group D. Conditions
Which of the following is not an AppLocker rule collection type available for usage when creating AppLocker rules? B. Unsigned files
When you create your first new rule in AppLocker, what will happen if you do not have the default rules in place? B. You will be prompted to create the default rules
When creating AppLocker rules, which option should you choose first to start the option to allow all currently installed Windows apps to urn, with the exception of one that you will select later? B. Automatically Generate Rules
Why does AppLocker need to create the "Default Rules"? B. So that you won't inadvertently block key Windows paths for execution
Which of the following is the default configuration of AppLocker? B. All applications can run
Using a single Microsoft account, on how many windows 8.1 devices can you install a specific Windows app? B. 5
What feature of Windows 8.1 can be used to restrict access to specific Windows Store content? B. AppLocker
Which AppLocker rule collections should you use to prevent users from installing new commercial software on you organization's computers? (Choose all that apply.) A. Executable files C. Windows installer files
How can you configure Window 8.1 to be used as a kiosk? D. Create a local account specifially for that purpose, and you associate it with an app that you have already installed.
What feature does IE 11 offer that enables it to correctly display pages that were developed using older technologies? C. Compatibility View
IE 11 supports multiple types of add-ons that can be used to extend the functionality of IE 11. which of the following is not a supported add-on type? D. Shell Extensions
Before you can change the default search engine of IE 11 from Bing to something else, such as Google, what must you first do? B. Install the appropriate add-on
IE 11 includes some default accelerators that allow you to do some common tasks. which of the listed accelerators are included by default in IE 11? (Choose all that apply.) B. find on a map C. Translate to another language
What code placed into a web page will automatically cause IE 11 to render it in compatibility view using IE 7 standards? B. <meta content="IE=7" />
What is the name of the mode that IE 11 operates in by default that is designed to prevent attackers that penetrate the computer's defenses from accessing vital system components? D. Protected mode
What is the name of the security feature in Windows 8.1 that assigns various integrity access levels to processes running on the computer? C. Mandatory integrity control
By default, IE 11 is granted access to which area of the computer? A. The Temporary Internet Files\Low folder and the HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software Microsoft\Internet Explorer/LowRegistry registry key.
Which of the following is not one of the methods that the SmartScreen Filter uses to identify potential phishing web sites? C. Group Policy
Which IE tab is used to delete cookies? C. Privacy
Which IE tab is used to delete cookies? A. General
You visited a site using Internet Explorer 11. Suddenly, 5 IE windows appear, advertising various products and services in which you are not interested. How can you prevent these from appearing in the future? D. Turn on Pop-up Blocker
What keeps the parent operating system separate from that of the virtual machines that are running on that host? B. The Hypervisor
Before Hyper-V can be used, there are several requirements that must be met. Which of these is not one of those requirements (Choose al that apply.) A. Windows 8.1 Enterprise edition D. Rapid Virtualization Indexing (RVI) BIOS
What PowerShell cmdlet can you use to enable Hyper-V? D. Enable-WindowsOptionalFeature -online -FeatureName Microsoft-Hyper-V-all
What Hyper-V feature helps you use physical memory more efficiently for your VMs? B. Dynamic Memory
How many VMs can you install on Windows 8.1 Enterprise before you need to start acquiring licenses? A. 0
Checkpoint data files are stored using what file format? D. .avhd
When checkpoints are deleted, when is the space the checkpoint previously consumed on disk released back to the operating system? C. Immediately
Which Hyper-V virtual switch feature provides protection against a malicious virtual machine attempting to steal IP addresses from other virtual machines? A. ARP/ND poisoning (spoofing) protection
Which Hyper-V virtual switch feature allows administrators to create isolated tenant communities? D. Isolated (private ) VLAN
There are three types of Hyper-V virtual switches. Which of the following is not one of these types? C. Internet
How large can a VHD virtual disk be? A. 2 TB
The newer VHDX virtual disk file format offers several advantages over the VHD file format. Which of these is not one of those features? C. Smaller block sizes for dynamic and differening disks
In OSI model, which layer is at the bottom and represents the hardware that forms the network? B. Physical
Most cabled networks today use what type of cabling? B. Un-shielded twisted pair
Which of the following is a characteristic of a packet-switching network? A. Individual packets may take any number of unique paths from source to destination.
The process of applying a header and footer to a data packet is known as what? B. Encapsulation
What protocol do most devices currently use at the Network layer? C. TCP/IP
What feature of Windows 8.1 allows a computer to function as a router, providing Internet access to other computers in the same location? B. Internet Connection Sharing
What protocol is responsible for the end-to-end transmission of a packet, to its final destination on a network? D. IP
IPv4 addresses are how long? A. 32 bits
What governing organization defines networking protocols such as TCP/IP? A. Internet Engineering Task Force
What is the correct binary representation of the IP address D. 11000000.10100000.00001010.00000010
Which IPv4 IP class provides for 126 unique networks, each having up to 16,777,214 hosts? A. Class A
What does the IP address of with a subnet mask of represent? B. A Network Address
Which of the following represent valid IPv6 addresses? D. FDC0::02BD:FF:BECB:FEF4:961D
Firewalls typically base their filtering on the TCP/IP characteristics at the network, transport, and application layers using what information? (Choose all that apply.) A. IP addresses B. Ports C. Protocol Numbers
Which troubleshooting utility allows you to generate DNS request messsages and transmit them to specific DNS servers on teh network D. nslookup
What type of attack is occurring when attackers are replaying data packets on a wireless network? C. Data Tampering
A 2x2 MIMO device has how many total transceivers? B. Four
The original WPA implementation utilized what encryption method? D. TKIP
802.11n wireless net equip uses 2, 3, or more diff freq for trans & subsequent rec of traffic. The sending sys splits its data into mult signals for trans, & rec device reassembles the signals into a single data stream. What is the name of the process? B. Spatial multiplexing
The 802.11n wireless networking protocol specifies what approximate values for indoor and outdoor range? B. ~70 meters, ~ 250 meters
Why should you not deploy a wireless network using WEP for security? C. WEP is insecure due to very weak cryptographic protocols.
What command can you issue from the command line to view all configured wireless networks on your Windows 8.1 computer? C. netsh wlan show profiles
Within the Windows UI, what option will you need to select to delete a wireless network profile? D. Forget this network
Location-aware printing utilizes what two services to determine network information and the current location of the Windows 8.1 computer? (Choose two) B. Network Location Awareness service D. Network List Service
What types of attack is occurring when attackers gain access to otherwise restricted network resources, using a wireless network? B. Masquerading
What term is given to software that includes viruses, Trojan horses, worms, spyware, and adware? B. Malware
In most cases, how is malware introduced into a computer system? C. Through a deliberate act of the computer's user
Which of the following items is not found in the Security section of the Windows 8.1 Action Center? B. Automatic maintenance
The Windows Firewall in Windows 8.1 can have rules configured that allows traffic to flow in which direction(s)? C. Both inbound and outbound
Which of the following is not an item that can be used when building Windows Firewall rules? C. Packet sequence numbers
When using Win firewall with Adv Sec console, u will c 3 distinct net locs that impact behavior of Win Firewall. Which of foll is not 1 of these net locs used by Win Firewall. Which of foll is not 1 of these net locs used by the Windows Firewall? A. Default
A Windows Firewall policy file has what file extension? C. .wfw
When do data protection technologies such as the Windows 8.1 Encrypting File system (EFS) and BitLocker protect data? B. Only when the data is stored on a disk
A 2x2 MIMO device has how many total transceivers? B. Four
What two options are available to access a remote computer using a Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in? (Choose Two) B. Create a custom console with snap-ins directed to other systems C. Redirect an existing snap-in to another system
Why do some snap-ins, such as the Active Directory Domain Services consoles, not provide a means to redirect the console to another computer? B. The console will automatically locate a domain controller.
What makes connecting to a remote computer by redirecting an existing console an inefficient method over time? D. You can access only one computer at a time.
What is the name of the feature that enables an administrator, trainer, or technical specialist at one location to connect to a distant user's computer, chat with the user, and either view all the user's activities or take complete control of the system? C. Remote Assistance
What name(s) is/are given to the person connecting to a remote client using Remote Assistance? (Choose all that apply.) A. Expert B. Helper
Remote Assistance offers several methods to send the invitation for assistance. Which of the following is not one of those options? D. Use Remote Desktop
Remote Assistance requires that access to what port be available on the requesting client? D. 3389
While a Remote Assistance session is in progress, what keyboard key(s) can the requestor press to terminate the connection? B. ESC
How many inbound Remote Desktop connections will Windows 8.1 allow? B. One
Windows Remote Management is a Windows 8.1 service that enables administrators to execute commands on remote computers using what two methods? (Choose two) C. Windows PowerShell D. Windows Remote Shell
When the computer's network profile is set to a specific firewall location when you attempt to configure WinRM for the first time, WinRM will fail to configure the required firewall exception. What network profile location causes this problem? C. Public
To execute a PowerShell command on a remote computer, you must do what two things? B. Use the Invoke-Command cmdlet. C. Open an elevated PowerShell session.
Which troubleshooting tool enables you to connect to a user's remote computer, view and interact with the user's screen, and chat with the user? B. Remote Assistance
Which port is used by Remote Assistance and Remote Desktop? B. TCP 3389
Which program enables you to connect to a remote computer, including servers with no interaction required from the remote computer? A. Remote Desktop
Which of the following requires invitations in order to use it? B. Remote Assistance
You need to connect to a customer so that you can help her with a software problem. Which tool can use to generate a temporary password that can be used to connect to her computer using Remote Assistance? A. Easy Connect
Windows 8.1 provides three basic methods for sharing the files and folders on the computer. Which of the listed items is not one of these methods? C. All folder sharing
Which of the following statements is true of Public folder sharing? D. Places all shared files in a single location
For users at home, which file sharing is most likely the simplest to set up and use? C. Homegroup sharing
How do you start the process to modify the default homegroup sharing configuration? B. Select one of your shared libraries in File Explorer and click Share in the toolbar.
If you plan to activate Public folder sharing in Windows 8.1, what must be done before you can select the Turn on sharing so anyone with network access can read and write files in the Public folders option on the Advanced sharing settings control panel? D. Enable Network Discovery.
It is possible to create a share that is invisible to users browsing the network simply by appending what character to the end of the share name? B. $
Which of the following statements are true concerning share permissions ? (Choose all that apply) B. For drives formatted with the FAT/FAT32 file system, share permissions are the only option available. C. They determine the type of access that others will have to the folder when they connect to it over the network.
What is the net effect of the following combo of share & NTFS permissions when the share is accessed over the net? * Share permission (Share tab) - Sales group: Full Control * NTFS permission (Security tab) - Sales group: Read & Execute, Modify, Write B. Members of the Sales group will be able to edit content and delete files.
Which of the following printer-related terms refers to the actual physical hardware that prints data? D. Print Device
When you connect a print device directly to a Windows 8.1 computer, what components of the printing architecture are provided by the computer? (Choose all that apply.) B. Printer C. Print server D. Printer driver
To shr a printer on a Wind 8.1 comp, you must enable appropriate settings in the Net and Sharing Center, just as you have to do to share files and folders. To share printers, which Sharing and Discovery settings must be turned on? (Choose all that apply) A. Network Discovery D. File and Printer Sharing
By default, which accounts are assigned the Print permission? B. Every account assigned to the Everyone special identity
What is the first step that you must perform if you wish to give certain users in your organization priority access to a print device so that when a print device is busy, their jobs are processed before those of other users? B. Create multiple printers.
What is the first step to create a printer pool? A. Install multiple identical print devices.
An access control list (ACL) is a collection of individual permissions, which are called what? B. Access control entries
How many basic and advanced permissions does NTFS provide for assignment to a folder or file? D. 6 basic, 14 advanced
Regarding NTFS permissions, when you copy NTFS files or folders from one volume to another, which of the following statements is true? D. The permissions are not retained and permissions set at destination are applied.
Regarding NTFS permissions, when you move NTFS files or folders from one volume to another, which of the following statements is true? A. The permissions are retained if the source and destination are on the same NTFS volume.
When examining effective access, there are three rules that must be understood. Which of the following statements is true? A. Implicit permissions break permissions inheritance.
When using the iacls.exe utilit, what flag(e.g.,/?) is used to specify that the command should be executed on all files and subfolders contained in the starting folder location? D. /T
What is the maximum support file name length in the NTFS file system? C. 255 characters
To use EFS on a file or folder, which of the following conditions must you first meet? (Choose all that apply) A. You must be using an NTFS volume. C. you must decompress the file or folder first.
If you apply a change to a folder to enable EFS for the folder only, what happens to the files currently in the folder? B. The files currently in the folder are not encrypted
What do NTFS quotas provide an administrator? C. The ability to limit the quantity of storage space utilized by users on the volume.
When deciding what your auditing policy should be, there are some key things to consider to help you decide which computers, resources, and events you want to audit. Which of the items listed is not one of the items typically considered? A. Allow users of computers the ability to manage the logs on those computers
What two basic steps must be performed to fully configure auditing for file or folder access? Not Sure of Answer A. Create and configure an audit policy B. Assign users to perform audits to the local Administrators group C. Enable auditing on the files of folders D. Join the computers to be audited to an Active Directory domain
Digital certificates, smart cards, picture passwords, and biometics are used to perform what action? D. Authentication
Which of the following items is not supported as a method of authentication in Windows 8.1? D. One-time passwords
Generally speaking, which of the following password conditions is not considered to be part of a strong password? D. A predictable password
A picture password is made up of what components? (Choose all that apply.) A. A picture D. A Gesture
Where are user accounts stored for computers that are in a workgroup? B. Security Accounts Manager
Which of the following is not an allowed gesture for a picture password? D. Arcs
During the installation of Windows 8.1, a built in Administrator account is created on the computer. Which of the following statements is true concerning this account? (Choose all that apply.) A. The account is disabled C. The account has no password set.
The Network Service special identity allows services, configured to run as a network service, permissions on the computer equivalent to what built-in group? B. Users
What type of account is required to purchase apps from the Windows Store? C. A Microsoft Account
Which two of the listed account control options are mutually exclusive? A. User must change password at next logon D. Password never expires
What must you do , at a minimum, before you can manage domain objects on a Windows 8.1 workstation? B. Install the Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows 8.1
What is the term used when a password is obtained through tricking a user into giving it to another party? C. Social Engineering
When the Password Must Meet Complexity Requirements setting is enabled, which of he listed required are now enforced for passwords? (Choose all that apply.) A. Must include characters from at least three of the following four categories: uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers and symbols B. Must be at least six characters long C. Must not use any part of the organization's name
What command-line utility could be used to elevate privileges in a script? C. runas.exe
What negative side effects will occur if an administrator resets the password for a local account? (Choose all that apply) C. The user loses access to certificates in the personal certificate store. D. The user loses access to data on network shares.
You want to deploy two-factor authentication and smart card technology while keeping costs low. You have a laptop that includes a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip. Which technology should you use? B. Virtual Smart Cards
You want to implement Virtual Smart Cards. What is the minimum hardware that you need? C. TPM version 1.2 or higher
Which of hte following Windows components must be enabled before you can use Protected Mode in IE? A. UAC
Which of the following terms best describes when your desktop is dimmed and you must approve or deny a UAC request? A. Secure desktop
What is the intended function of the User Account Control (UAC) feature in Windows? C. Preventing unauthorized changes to your computer?
When UAC is configured, how many tokens will an administrator account holder receive when she logs in to the computer? B. Two
What is the default setting for UAC in Windows 8.1? B. Notify me only when apps try to make changes to my computer
How can you fully disable UAC in Windows 8.1? D. Manually edit the registry.
After changing the configuration of the User Account Control: Run all administrators in Admin Approval Mode setting, what must next be done to make the change effective? D. Reboot the Computer
Which program or component is used to change the computer name? B. System properties
A server that is not running as a domain controller is known as a _________________________. A. member server
Which of the following terms best describes a collection of computers in which all of the computers utilize a central directory service for authentication and authorization? C. Domains
Which of the following is used to get applications from the Windows Store, to back up important data and files to free cloud storage, and to sync photos between multiple devices? D. Microsoft account
You must deploy at least one or more BranchCache-enabled servers at your main office to enable BrandCache . Which of hte following server types is not an option as a BranchCache-enabled server? A. FTP servers
Which of the follow benefits is not provided when BranchCache is used? D. Users access data over the faster WAN link
When using distributed-cache mode for BranchCache, where is the cache hosted in the branch office? C. On Windows 8.1 computers in the branch office
To use BranchCache, what operating system must your client workstations be running? (Choose all that apply.) A. Windows 7 D. Windows 8.1
If you have Windows 8.1 Pro workstation clients on your network, what single BranchCache protocol will they be limited to using? D. BITS
What is the main difference between BranchCache version 1 and version 2? C. BranchCache V1 uses large, fixed-length file segments, while V2 uses smaller segments of variable length.
On your Windows Server 2012 server, what must you do to enable HTTP and BITS support for BranchCache? D. Install the BranchCache feature.
By default, what is the maximum amount of disk space that will be allocated to the BranchCache data cache? C. 5%
What advantage does the usage of SSTP for VPN connections offer firewall administrators? A. It uses a commonly open port.
For VPN connections involving Windows clients, what is typically the preferred protocol? B. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
What is the minimum client operating system required to use Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol (SSTP) VPN connections? D. Windows Vista SP1
Windows 8.1 supports multiple types of EAP-based authentication for VPN connections. Which of these is not supported for VPN connections? D. EAP-TLS
Which VPN protocol does not support using Password Authentication Protocol (PAP), Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP), and Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol Version @ (MSCHAPv2), or a certificate for authentication?+ D. Internet Key Exchange, Version 2 (IKEv2)
When creating sec health validators (SHVs that ensure that all clients meet a min set of criteria before allowing them 2 connect, admin have a variety of options 2 select from. Which of the following options are available? (Choose all that apply) A. up-to-date anti-spyware protection B. A properly functioning firewall C. Up-to-date anti-virus protection D. Installation of the latest Windows updates
Which of the following items would not meet the requirements for a DirectAccess server? B. A connection to the Internet through a NAT proxy
How many devices does Broadband Tethering support? D. Up to 10
Which of the following is necessary in order to connect to a mobile device running Windows 8.1 that uses Broadband Tethering? C. A network name and password
Created by: amipotasnick