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What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
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On a cross-country flight, point A is crossed at 1500 hours and the plan is to reach point B at 1530 hours. Use the following information to determine the indicated airspeed required to reach point B on schedule.
Distance between A and B 70 NM
Forecast
Distance between A and B 70 NM
Forecast
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| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere? | The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring. |
| On a cross-country flight, point A is crossed at 1500 hours and the plan is to reach point B at 1530 hours. Use the following information to determine the indicated airspeed required to reach point B on schedule. Distance between A and B 70 NM Forecast | 137 knots. |
| Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least | 1,000 feet and 3 miles. |
| If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs? | 700-foot increase in indicated altitude. |
| With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be | more susceptible to icing. |
| (Refer to figure 23.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1)? The wind is from 290° at 18 knots and the true airspeed is 85 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out. | 39 minutes. |
| Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow | across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable. |
| Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? Glider, Airship, Aircraft refueling other aircraft. | Glider |
| When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during | that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes. |
| (Refer to figure 22.) What is the estimated time en route from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4)? The wind is from 215° at 25 knots, and the true airspeed is 125 knots. | 34 minutes. |
| (Refer to figure 18.) According to the Weather Depiction Chart, the weather for a flight from southern Michigan to north Indiana is ceilings | greater than 3, 000 feet and visibility greater than 5 miles. |
| (Refer to figure 20.) Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to Hampton Roads Airport (area 2). | 332°. |
| Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that | the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more. |
| A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least | 25 knots. |
| Distance = | Rate x time |
| Ceiling = | Broken and overcast layers |
| To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the | fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps. |
| 9,500 feet | On altimeter #3 the 10,000-foot pointer is not quite to 10,000 feet. The 1,000-foot pointer is halfway between 9,000 and 10,000 feet, and the 100-foot pointer is on 500 feet. |
| Refer to Figure 22, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate at night over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are | 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud. Class e |
| A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on | August 31, 5 years later. |
| Refer to Figure 15.) What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM? | 12th 1800Z to 13th 2400Z. |
| (Refer to Figure 37.) Determine the approximate total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle. OAT 90°F Pressure altitude 4,000 ft Weight 2,800 lb Headwind component 10 kts | 1,775 feet |
| Refer to Figure 60.) How should the 500-pound weight be shifted to balance the plank on the fulcrum? | 1 inch to the left. 1. Find the moments left and right of the fulcrum, and set them equal to one another. left = right 500(X) = 250(20) + 200(15) 500X = 8,000 X = 16 inches |
| Refer to Figure 36.) What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220° at 30 knots? | 23 knots. |
| Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area? | With the controlling agency's authorization. |
| Refer to Figure 23, area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)? | 1,300 feet MSL. |
| Refer to Figure 23.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate direct from Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1) to Savannah VORTAC (area 3)? | 195°. |
| When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read | 0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT. |
| 1 quart aviation oil = | 1.875 lbs |
| What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace? | Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter. |
| With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft? | Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon. |
| (Refer to figure 34.) Calculate the moment of the airplane and determine which category is applicable. WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 310 --- Rear passengers 96 --- Fuel, 38 gal --- --- Oil, 8 qt --- -0.2 | 80.8, utility category. |
| The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by | terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night. |
| When the term 'light and variable' is used in reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast, the coded group and windspeed is | 9900 and less than 5 knots. |
| No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when | over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement. |
| When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable? | When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour. |
| What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied? | The fuel/air mixture becomes richer. |
| (Refer to figure 16.) The Chicago FA forecast section is valid until the twenty-fifth at | 0800Z. |
| (Refer to figure 26, area 3.) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than | 2,000 feet AGL. |
| Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2006. The next inspection will be due no later than | September 30, 2008. |
| CG= | Moment / weight |
| If Instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed.... | via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto Runway 9. |
| VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when fliying | More than 3,000 agl, based on magnetic course. |
| Airmen..... Category.....aircraft | Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air. |
| Airmen......Class.... aircraft | single-engine, multi-engine, land and sea. |
| Aircraft.......Category.....aircraft | Normal, utility, acrobatic |
| Aircraft.......Class.....aircraft | airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon. |
| medical under 40 | every five years |
| Objects can be dropped from plane if? | precautions are made to avoid injury or damage. |
| 2 or more aircraft approaching an airport for landing who has right of way | the lower altitude but shall not take advantage of this to over take another plane. |
| VFR class D visibility | 3 miles |
| constant speed Prop procedure to avoid undo stress on engine when power is being | increased, increase the rpm before increasing manifold pressure. |
| cumulus cloud base surface temp at 1,000 ft msl is 70 F and dew point 48 F | 6,000 f msl.......Temp- Dew Point / 4.4 * 1,000 + measured station altitude |
| The yellow demarcation bar indicates | a runway with displaced threshold that precedes the runway |
| pilot change of address without notifying FAA can still use privileges for ? | 30 days after date of move. |
| 100 hr inspection do 3,302.5 hours done 3,309.5 hrs next do | 3,402.5 hrs |
| definition of night | time between end of civil twilight evening and beginning of morning civil twilight. |
| what is true altitude | vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level |
| how do variations in temperature affect the altimeter | Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude. |
| Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates | true altitude at field elevation. |
| The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB | when requested |
| The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days. | 10 |
| May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody? | yes but only to protect the wrechage from further damage. |
| aircraft accident with substantial damage when should NTSB be notified. | immediately |
| aircraft annual inspection was performed july 12 this year when next due no later than | july 31 next year. |
| minimum flight visibility of vfr above 10,000 and no more than 1,200 agl in controlled airspace is | 5 miles |
| VFR above 10,000ft msl and more than 1,200 ft agl minimum horizontal distance from clouds is | 1 mile |
| VFR above 10,000 cloud clearance is | likely to see F-111 = f=five statue miles visibility, 1,000 below, 1,000 above and 1 mile between clouds. |
| VFR minimums in class D airspace are | 1,000 ft. agl ceiling, 3 miles visibility |
| altimeter set to barometric pressure....altimeter indicates | true altitude at field elevation |
| a altimeter change from 30.11 to 29.96 will change indication to | 150 ft. LOWER altitude indication |
| true altitude = pressure altitude | standard atmospheric conditions exist. |
| what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude. | colder than standard air temp OAT |
| dewpoint | temp at which air becomes saturated. |
| clouds, fog, or dew form when | water vapor condenses |
| ice pellets at surface = | temp inversion with freezing rain at higher altitudes |
| temp inversion = | stable air |
| A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristics | poor surface visibility |
| When may hazardous wind shear be expected? | In areas of low-level temp inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence. |
| What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms? | High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions. |
| Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm | Precipitation beginning to fall |
| A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temp inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 ft above the surface is at least | 25kts |
| In which situation is advection fog most likely to form | An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter. |
| Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog? | Steam fog....this forms in winter when cold, dry air passes from land over warm ocean waters |
| Fig 15. In the TAF from KOKC, the FM group is forecast for the hours from 1600Z to 2200Z with the wind from | 180 deg @ 10kts |
| To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the | In-flight Aviation Weather Advisories |
| The section of the area forecast entitled "VFR CLDS/WX" contains a general description of | Clouds and weather which cover an area greater than 3,000 sq miles and is significant to VFR flight operations |
| Fig 16 the Chicago FA forecast section is valid until the 25th at | 0800Z |
| What is indicated when a current Conective SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms | Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers. |
| Fig 19 area B... What is the top for precipitation of the radar return | 24,000 MSL |
| Fig 19 area B What type of weather is occurring in the radar return | light to moderate rain single contour area (light to mod) R = rain |
| fig 18 weather depiction chart from southern Michigan to northern Indiana is ceilings | > 3,000ft and visibility > 5 miles |
| Fig 28 aircraft departs an airport in eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport in central daylight time zone, the landing should be at what coordinated universal time?> | 1545Z |
| Rings of altitude for Class C and B are in | MSL |
| How should contact be established with an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station, and what service would be expected | Call flight watch on 122.0 for information regarding actual weather and thunderstorm activity along proposed route |
| Fig 23 area 3. The vertical limits of that portion of the Class E airspace designated as federal airway over Magee Airport are | 1,200 AGL to 17,999 MSL |
| Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts. | Airports with towers are in BLUE |
| FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by | ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office |
| Most Mid-air collisions occur during | clear days |
| normal radius of the outer area of class C airspace is | 20NM |
| All operations within Class C airspace must be in | an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability |
| Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot should | Contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories |
| Unicom freq at heliports | 123.05, 123.075 |
| Below FL180 en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on | 122.0 |
| Wingtip Vortices created only when an aircraft is | developing lift |
| wing tip vortices circulate in direction of | outward and upward |
| Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body cause | loss of muscular power |
| What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight | all traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance. |
| FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number | 70= airspace, 20=aircraft, 60-Airmen, 90 air traffic and general operating rules |
| what leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under VFR | continual flight into instrument conditions |
| When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff | when departing from a runway intersection |
| What information is contained in the Notices to Airman Publication (NTAP) | Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs |
| If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine | cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position. |
| (Refer to Figure 4.) The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is | The caution range (yellow arc) includes speeds which should only be flown in smooth air; the maximum speed in the caution range is 208 knots for this airplane |
| (Refer to Figure 28, illustration 7.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station? | Southeast. |
| (Refer to Figure 3.) Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 10,000 feet? | 1 and 2 only. |
| Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than | September 30, 2016. |
| FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number? | 70 20 -- Aircraft; 60 -- Airmen; 70 -- Airspace; and 90 -- Air Traffic and General Operating Rules |
| Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas? | An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. |
| (Refer to Figure 34.) Determine the aircraft loaded moment and the aircraft category. WEIGHT (LB) MOM/1000 Empty weight 1,350 51.5 Pilot and front passenger 380 -- Fuel, 48 gal 288 -- Oil, 8 qt -- -- | 79.2, normal category. |
| (Refer to Figures 32 and 33.) What effect does a 35-gallon fuel burn (main tanks) have on the weight and balance if the airplane weighed 2,890 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,452 at takeoff? | Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is aft of limits. |
| If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed | via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 9. |
| Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning | non-control information in selected high-activity terminal areas. |
| (Refer to Figure 82.) Altimeter 3 is indicating a VFR cruising altitude for which direction? | 080 degrees magnetic. |
| Which conditions result in the formation of frost? | The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing. |
| (Refer to Figure 40.) Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle. OAT Std Pressure altitude 4,000 ft Takeoff weight 2,800 lb Headwind component Calm | 1,750 feet. |
| (Refer to Figure 68.) The line from point A to point B of the wind triangle represents | true heading and airspeed |
| (Refer to Figure 24, and Figure 28.) The VOR is tuned to Bonham VORTAC (area 3), and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs (area 5). Which VOR indication is correct? | 7 |
| wind triangle | see figure in book |
| To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in | the same category and class of aircraft to be used. |
| (Refer to Figures 32 and 33.) What effect does a 35-gallon fuel burn (main tanks) have on the weight and balance if the airplane weighed 2,890 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,452 at takeoff? | Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is aft of limits. Consult the Moment Limits vs. Weight Table (FAA Figure 33). |
| Indicated Airspeed = | Calibrated airspeed or CAS |
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