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Comp TIA A+ 220-801 220-802 Q&A

QuestionAnswer
1. When configuring a motherboard, what information is needed to find the correct user guide for a motherboard? When configuring a motherboard, what information is needed to find the correct user guide for a motherboard?
2. What program can easily make changes to the setup values stored in CMOS RAM? A program in BIOS, called BIOS setup or CMOS setup, can easily make changes to the setup values stored in CMOS RAM.
3. A new standard that is slowly replacing the BIOS standard serves as an interface between firmware on the motherboard and the operating system. It improves on processes for booting, handing over the boot to the OS, and loading device drivers and applica Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) is an interface between firmware on the motherboard and the operating system and improves on processes for booting, handing over the boot to the OS, and loading device drivers and applications before the OS loa
4. After the OS is installed, the boot sequence should typically be changed to boot first from which hardware device? After the OS is installed, to prevent accidental boots from a DVD or other media, change setup BIOS to boot first from the hard drive.
5. A(n) _________________________ is two small posts or metal pins that stick up off the motherboard that is open or closed; it is open if it has no cover and closed when it has a cover on the two pins. A jumper is two small posts or metal pins that stick up off the motherboard that is open or closed. An open jumper has no cover, and a closed jumper has a cover on the two pins.
6. Which statement is correct regarding supervisor and power-on passwords? Jumpers can be set to clear both passwords.
7. What term refers to the process of upgrading or refreshing the programming stored on the firmware chip? The process of upgrading or refreshing the programming stored on the firmware chip is called updating the BIOS or flashing BIOS.
8. Which statement concerning BIOS updates is correct? Update your BIOS only if you’re having a problem with your motherboard or there’s a new BIOS feature you want to use.
9. How does one access the BIOS setup program? You access the BIOS setup program by pressing a key or combination of keys during the boot process.
10. What name is used to describe ports that come directly off the motherboard? Ports coming directly off the motherboard are called on-board ports or integrated components.
11. What are the three most popular motherboard form factors? The most popular motherboard form factors are ATX, microATX (a smaller version of ATX), and Mini-ITX (a smaller version of microATX).
12. Which of the following form factors lowers the total cost of a system by reducing the number of expansion slots on the motherboard, reducing the power supplied to the board, and allowing for a smaller case size? MicroATX reduces the total cost of a system by reducing the number of expansion slots on the motherboard, reducing the power supplied to the board, and allowing for a smaller case size.
13. Which computer component houses the power supply, motherboard, expansion cards, and drives? The computer case, sometimes called the chassis, houses the power supply, motherboard, processor, memory modules, expansion cards, hard drive, optical drive, and other drives.
14. Which Intel socket is used in high-end gaming and server computers? The LGA2011 is used in high-end gaming and server computers and might require a liquid cooling system.
15. Which of the following is currently the most popular Intel socket? The LGA1155 is currently the most popular Intel socket.
16. USB 2.0 is an example of a type of bus that does not run in sync with the system clock. What type of bus is this? A bus that does not run in sync with the system clock is called an expansion bus.
17. Which type of bus is primarily used today and is characterized as running in sync with the system clock? Most buses today are local buses, meaning that they run in sync with the system clock.
18. Which statement regarding PCI buses is correct? The first PCI bus had a 32-bit data path, supplied 5 V of power to an adapter card, and operated at 33 MHz.
19. What term is sometimes used interchangeably with throughput? Throughput is sometimes called bandwidth.
20. Which of the following is focused on the server market, and therefore, unlikely to be seen in desktop computers? PCI-X focused on the server market; therefore, it’s unlikely you’ll see PCI-X slots in desktop computers.
21. Which statement is correct regarding the PCI Express (PCIe) bus? PCI Express uses a serial bus, which is faster than a parallel bus because it transmits data in packets similar to how an Ethernet network, USB, and FireWire transmit data.
22. What is used at each end of the SCSI chain to reduce the amount of electrical “noise,” or interference on a SCSI cable? To reduce the amount of electrical “noise,” or interference, on a SCSI cable, each end of the SCSI chain has a terminating resistor.
23. What is a transfer method that transfers data directly from the hard drive to memory without involving the CPU? DMA transfers data directly from the drive to memory without involving the CPU.
24. Which of the following may include several internal connectors, including parallel ATA (PATA) connectors (also called IDE connectors), a floppy drive connector, serial ATA (SATA) connectors, SCSI connectors, a USB connector, and/or a FireWire (IEEE 13 A motherboard might have several internal connectors, including parallel ATA (PATA) connectors (also called IDE connectors), a floppy drive connector, serial ATA (SATA) connectors, SCSI connectors, a USB connector, or a FireWire (IEEE 1394) connector.
25. Which statement is correct regarding a PCI riser card? The riser card installs in the slot and provides another slot at a right angle.
26. A drive receives power by a power cable from the power supply and communicates instructions and data through a cable attached to the motherboard. Which is the faster of the two standards that hard drives, optical drives, and tape drives use for both o Two standards that hard drives, optical drives, and tape drives use for both types of connections are the faster serial ATA (SATA) standard and the slower and older parallel ATA (PATA) standard.
27. Which statement regarding expansion cards is correct? An expansion card, also called an adapter card, is a circuit board that provides more ports than those provided by the motherboard.
28. What is the term for the memory slots on the motherboard that hold memory modules? A motherboard has memory slots, called DIMM (dual inline memory module) slots, to hold memory modules.
29. A hard drive, also called a hard disk drive (HDD), _________. A hard drive, also called a hard disk drive (HDD), is permanent storage used to hold data and programs.
30. What is the main motherboard power connector used today? The 24-pin P1 connector, also called the 20+4 pin connector, is the main motherboard power connector used today.
31. What type of port is capable of transmitting both digital and analog video? A DVI (Digital Video Interface) port transmits digital or analog video.
32. What type of port is used for high-speed multimedia devices such as a digital camcorder? A FireWire port (also called an IEEE1394 port, pronounced “I-triple-E 1394 port”) is used for high-speed multimedia devices such as digital camcorders.
33. What type of port transmits digital video and audio (not analog transmissions), and is slowly replacing VGA and DVI ports on personal computers? A DisplayPort transmits digital video and audio (not analog transmissions) and is slowly replacing VGA and DVI ports on personal computers.
34. When processors began to require more power, the ATX Version 2.1 specifications added a 4-pin motherboard auxiliary connector near the processor socket to provide an additional 12 V of power. A power supply that provides this 4-pin 12 volt power cord A power supply that provides this 4-pin 12 volt power cord is called an ATX12V power supply.
35. What type of connector is used for IDE (PATA) drives? A 4-pin Molex connector is used for IDE (PATA) drives.
36. What type of connector provides an extra +12 V for high-end video cards using PCI Express, Version 2 standard? The 8-pin PCIe connector provides an extra +12 V for high-end video cards using PCI Express, Version 2.
37. Wires leading from the front of the computer case to the motherboard are called the __________. Wires leading from the front of the computer case to the motherboardare called the front panel connectors.
38. A connector leading from the front of the computer case to the motherboard, labeled as Reset SW, _________. Reset SW is the switch used to reboot the computer.
39. A connector leading from the front of the computer case to the motherboard labeled as HDD LED __________. HDD LED controls the drive activity light on the front panel that lights up when any SATA or IDE device is in use.
40. What are the two major manufacturers of processors? The two major manufacturers of processors are Intel and AMD.
41. The ability of a system to do more than one thing at a time is accomplished by several means. One method involves multiple processors installed in the same processor housing. What is this called? Multiple processors can be installed in the same processor housing (called multi-core processing).
42. Today’s processors all have some memory on the processor chip (called a die). Memory on the processor die is called ___________. Memory on the processor die is called Level 1 cache (L1 cache).
43. Which statement regarding static RAM (SRAM) is correct? SRAM is faster than DRAM because it does not need refreshing; it can hold its data as long as power is available.
44. Most processors on the market today support virtualization. How is this feature enabled? Most processors sold today support virtualization; the feature must be enabled in BIOS setup.
45. All Intel or AMD desktop and laptop processors on the market today are hybrid processors. Which statement regarding a hybrid processor is correct? A hybrid processor can use a 32-bit operating system or a 64-bit OS.
46. Which statement regarding Hyper-Threading and HyperTransport is correct? To handle two threads, the processor requires extra registers, or holding areas, within the processor housing that it uses to switch between threads. In effect, you have two logical processors for each physical processor or core. Intel calls this technolo
47. A graphics processing unit (GPU) is a processor that manipulates graphic data to form the images on a monitor screen. An integrated GPU is _________________________. The GPU might be on a video card on the motherboard, or embedded in the CPU package. When inside the CPU package, it is called integrated graphics.
48. Which statement is correct? You can view the actual processor frequency and the clock speed using the BIOS setup screens.
49. What are the two components of a cooler that sits on top of the CPU? The cooler sits on top of the processor and consists of a fan and a heat sink.
50. Which statement regarding the thermal compound used with the cooler is correct? The thermal compound transmits heat better than air and makes an airtight connection between the fan and the processor.
51. What is the advantage of a fan connector with four holes? A 4-pin header on the motherboard supports pulse width modulation (PWM) that controls fan speed in order to reduce the overall noise in a system.
52. Keeping computer components from overheating via _________________________ consists of a small pump that sits inside the computer case, and tubes that move liquid around components and then away from them to a place where fans can cool the liquids. With liquid cooling, a small pump sits inside the computer case, and tubes move liquid around components and then away from them to a place where fans can cool the liquid.
53. What determines the size of the power supply and the placement of screw holes and slots used to anchor the power supply to the case? The form factor of a power supply determines the size of the power supply and the placement of screw holes and slots used to anchor the power supply to the case.
54. A rail is the term used to describe each voltage line of the power supply. What is the most common rail used, especially in high-end gaming systems? A rail is the term used to describe each voltage line of the power supply. The +12 V rail is the most used, especially in high-end gaming systems.
55. Which statement is correct regarding power supply considerations? To know what size power supply you need, add up the wattage requirements of all components, and add 30 percent.
56. What component draws the most power in a system? Video cards draw the most power in a system, and they draw from the +12 V output.
57. Which statement regarding dual voltage options is correct? If you ever need to change the dual-voltage selector switch, first turn off the computer and unplug the power supply.
58. Suppose that one physical machine is hosting multiple activities that are normally performed on multiple machines. This process is known as _________________________. Virtualization is when one physical machine hosts multiple activities that are normally done on multiple machines.
59. A customized system has the following specifications: multicore processor, adequate RAM (because each machine ties up its assigned RAM), and adequate hard drive space for each OS. This best describes a(n) _________________________. The requirements for a desktop computer that will be used to run multiple virtual machines are as follows:
60. A customized system has the following specifications: a powerful processor with at least 8 GB of RAM, a high-end video card or possibly dual video cards, high-end sound card, and liquid cooling. This best describes a(n) _________________________. Each VM has its own virtual processor, so the processor should be a multicore processor. You need extra amounts of RAM when a computer is running several VMs. Each VM must have an operating system installed, with adequate hard drive space for each VM.
61. A customized system includes the following features: application software, e.g., Windows Media Center, HDMI port, cable TV input, satellite TV input, Internet access, remote control, SSD hard drive and a low-speed fan to minimize background noise, and App software. The app controls the user interface and plays and rec music and vid. HDMI port to connect vid output to tv. Use a high-quality HDMI cable. Cable TV input. The best sol is to use a TV tuner card to connect the TV coax cable directly to comp.
62. Slingbox by Sling Media represents one popular type of __________. One popular type of home server PC is Slingbox by Sling Media.
63. What type of customized system would be most useful to an engineer working with CAD software to design bridges, an architect who designs skyscrapers, a graphics designer who creates artistic pages for children’s books, and/or a landscape designer who A person who uses graphics or CAD/CAM (computer-aided design/computer-aided manufacturing) workstations might include an engineer working with CAD software to design bridges, an architect who designs skyscrapers, a graphics designer who creates artistic p
64. What feature is indicative of an ultra-high-end customized CAD workstation? To provide the best 3D graphics experience, use a high-end video card. The Quadro family of graphics processors has the best performing GPUs on the market, and the Quadro 6000 is the best Quadro currently sold.
65. Which statement is correct with reference to a mid-range to high-end audio and video editing workstation? Most users will require dual or triple monitors. You might need to consider dual video cards for optimum video performance or for more than two video ports.
66. What is one reason that Windows Home Server 2011 might be considered a better choice as the OS of a home server PC than Windows 7 OS? Windows 7 can be used as the OS, but Windows Home Server 2011 provides the additional security features needed to better secure a home network. In addition, if the customer plans to use the PC to back up files on client computers, know that Windows Home S
67. What type of customized system would be most likely to feature the following hardware components: Intel Core i5 processor, 8 GB RAM, hardware RAID implemented on the motherboard, network port rated for Gigabit Ethernet (1000 MBPS), a USB printer, and Features and hardware you need to consider when customizing a home server PC include: Use a processor with moderate power; Storage speed and capacity need to be maximized; Network transfers need to be fast; Printer sharing; Onboard video works well
68. What distinguishes a zero client from either a thick client or a thin client? A zero client, also called a dumb terminal, is built by the manufacturer. It does not have an OS and is little more than an interface to the network with a keyboard, monitor, and mouse.
69. You are configuring a thin client that is receiving a virtual desktop from a server. What application would be most likely to be supported on this client? A thin client is a computer that has an operating system but has little computer power and might only need to support a browser used to communicate with the server.
70. A regular desktop computer or laptop that is sometimes used as a client by a virtualization server is called a(n) __________. A thick client, also called a fat client, is a regular desktop computer or laptop that is sometimes used as a client by a virtualization server.
71. Intel recommends liquid cooling methods for which of the following sockets? When using the LGA2011 socket, liquid cooling is a Microsoft recommendation.
72. What is a type of memory that loses its data rapidly, requiring the memory controller to refresh it several thousand times a second? DRAM loses its data rapidly, and the memory controller must refresh it several thousand times a second.
73. What temporarily holds data and instructions as the CPU processes them, and is stored on memory modules that are installed in memory slots on the motherboard? Random access memory (RAM) temporarily holds data and instructions as the CPU processes them. RAM is stored on memory modules, which are installed in memory slots on the motherboard.
74. What type of memory module is used by all new desktop motherboards on the market today? All new motherboards for desktops sold today use a type of memory module called a DIMM (dual inline memory module).
75. SO-DIMM memory modules are used in ___________. Laptops use a smaller version of a DIMM called a SO-DIMM (small outline DIMM and pronounced “sew-dim”).
76. A certain memory module has the fastest memory currently available, supports quad, triple, or dual channels, or can be installed as a single DIMM. What type of memory module is this? 240-pin DDR3 DIMM is currently the fastest memory. It can support quad, triple, or dual channels or be installed as a single DIMM.
77. What type of memory module has one notch near the center of the edge connector and supports dual channels, or can be installed as a single DIMM? 240-pin DDR2 DIMM can support dual channels or be installed as a single DIMM. It has one notch near the center of the edge connector.
78. What type of memory module has one offset notch, supports dual channels, or can be installed as a single DIMM? 184-pin DDR DIMM can support dual channels or be installed as a single DIMM. It has one offset notch.
79. What was the first DIMM to run synchronized with the system clock? The first DIMM to run synchronized with the system clock was synchronous DRAM (SDRAM), which has two notches and uses 168 pins.
80. ________________, an older type of module designed by Rambus, Inc., has 184 pins and two notches near the center of the edge connector. RIMM has 184 pins and two notches near the center of the edge connector.
81. Which statement regarding older RAM technology is correct? Even though an older RAM technology is no longer used by new motherboards, RAM manufacturers continue to produce the older RAM because older motherboards require these replacement modules. SIMMs and RIMMs are now obsolete.
82. Which type of slot contains a single lane for data, which is actually four wires? A PCI Express ×1 slot contains a single lane for data; this lane is actually four wires.
83. Which type of memory module runs twice as fast as regular SDRAM, and processes data when the system clock beat rises and again when it falls? DDR runs twice as fast as regular SDRAM, has one notch, and uses 184 pins. Instead of processing data for each beat of the system clock, as with regular SDRAM, it processes data when the beat rises and again when it falls, doubling the data rate of memory
84. Sandy Bridge technology introduced ___________, in which the processor can access four DIMMs at the same time. Sandy Bridge technology introduced quad channels, where the processor can access four DIMMs at the same time.
85. For dual, triple, or quad channels to work, the ___________ and the DIMM must support the technology. For dual, triple, or quad channels to work, the motherboard and the DIMM must support the technology.
86. Suppose a board has four DIMM slots with four DIMMs installed and has two dual memory channels, Channel A and Channel B. Which statement is correct? When setting up dual channeling, the pair of DIMMs in a channel must be equally matched in size, speed, and features, and it is recommended they come from the same manufacturer.
87. Which statement is correct? To get the highest performance, memory slots are placed on either side of the processor in order to shorten the length of the memory bus.
88. A measure of the total bandwidth of data moving between the module and the CPU is called ____________. A PC rating is a measure of the total bandwidth of data moving between the module and the CPU.
89. A network printer is identified on the network by its ________. A network printer is identified on the network by its IP address
90. A DIMM with memory chips installed on both sides of the module is called a ___________. A DIMM can have memory chips installed on one side of the module (called single-sided) or both sides of the module (called double-sided).
91. Which statement regarding error-checking technology (ECC, or error-correcting code) is correct? ECC memory costs more than non-ECC memory, but it is more reliable.
92. Which statement regarding parity is correct? Later, when the byte is read back, the memory controller checks the odd or even state.
93. Which statement regarding a Rambus memory module (RIMM) is correct? With RIMMs, each memory slot on the motherboard must be filled to maintain continuity throughout all slots.
94. Which statement regarding memory performance is correct? If you install modules of different speeds in the same system, the system will run at the slowest speed or might become unstable.
95. How can detailed information about a system’s memory configuration and amount be obtained? BIOS setup reports the memory configuration and amount.
96. What is the maximum amount of RAM that can be used with a 32-bit OS? The limit for a 32-bit OS is 4 GB installed RAM.
97. When installing adapter cards, what is the primary reason that an empty slot should be left between cards? To help with airflow, try to leave an empty slot between cards. In particular, try to leave an empty slot beside the video card, which puts off a lot of heat.
98. When installing a video card, error messages about video appear when Windows starts, indicating a possible conflict with onboard video. What can be done to correct this conflict? Error messages about video appear when Windows starts. This can be caused by a conflict in onboard video and the video card. Try disabling onboard video in Device Manager.
99. _____ refers to sound ports embedded on a motherboard. A sound card (an expansion card with sound ports) or onboard sound (sound ports embedded on a motherboard) can play and record sound, and then save it in a file.
100. An expansion card with sound ports is called a(n) __________. A sound card (an expansion card with sound ports) or onboard sound (sound ports embedded on a motherboard) can play and record sound, and save it in a file.
101. A port receives input from a TV cable and lets you view television on your computer monitor. This port is on what type of card? A TV tuner card can turn your computer into a television. A port on the card receives input from a TV cable and lets you view television on your computer monitor.
102. What type of adapter card captures video input and saves it to a file on the hard drive? A video capture card lets you capture video input and save it to a file on your hard drive.
103. What is the most likely sequence of steps when installing a card that captures video input? When installing a TV tuner or capture card, you will most likely install the drivers, install the card, and then install the application software that comes bundled with the card. You can then configure and manage the card using the applications.
104. What type of monitor was first used in television sets, takes up a lot of desk space, and is now largely obsolete? The CRT (cathode-ray tube) monitor was first used in television sets, takes up a lot of desk space, and is now largely obsolete.
105. First used in laptops, what type of monitor produces an image using a liquid crystal material made of large, easily polarized molecules? The LCD (liquid crystal display) monitor, also called a flat-panel monitor, was first used in laptops.
106. What type of monitor provides high contrast and high-quality color, is expensive and heavy, and is generally only available in large commercial sizes? A plasma monitor provides high contrast with better color than LCD monitors.
107. What technology provides a better range and accuracy of color and uses less power than earlier technologies, and is generally used to provide backlighting in a flat-panel monitor? Backlighting is used to light the LCD panel. The trend for most monitor manufacturers is to use LED backlighting, which provides a better range and accuracy of color and uses less power than earlier technologies.
108. A certain monitor is used by digital cameras, camcorders, mobile devices, and other small portable electronic devices because it can produce deeper blacks, provide better contrast, work in darker rooms, and use less power than can an LCD monitor. Wha An OLED (Organic Light-emitting Diode) monitor uses a thin LED layer or film between two grids of electrodes. OLED screens provide better contrast, work in darker rooms, and use less power than an LCD monitor.
109. What is referred to as response time, or more specifically, the time it takes for a monitor to build one screen, measured in ms (milliseconds) or Hz (hertz)? The refresh rate, also called the response time, is the time it takes for a monitor to build one screen, measured in ms (milliseconds) or Hz (hertz).
110. What refers to the number of spots or pixels on a screen that can be addressed by software? The resolution is the number of spots or pixels on a screen that can be addressed by software.
111. What term describes the number of pixels built into the LCD monitor? The native resolution is the number of pixels built into the LCD monitor.
112. Monitor brightness is measured in cd/m2 (candela per square meter), which is the same as __________ per square meter. Brightness is measured in cd/m2 (candela per square meter), which is the same as lumens/m2 (lumens per square meter).
113. What type of slot provides the fastest speed for a video card? A video card can use an AGP, PCI, or PCI Express slot on the motherboard. The fastest slot to use is a PCIe x16 slot.
114. What port, sometimes called a DB-15 port, is the standard analog video port and transmits three signals of red, green, and blue (RGB)? The 15-pin VGA port is the standard analog video port and transmits three signals of red, green, and blue (RGB).
115. What variation of DVI supports both analog and digital signals? The DVI-I port supports both analog and digital signals.
116. Which statement regarding composite video is correct? Composite video does not produce as sharp an image as VGA video or S-Video.
117. The Type A 19-pin __________ connector, used on most computers and televisions, transmits both digital video and audio (not analog). The HDMI standards allow for several types of HDMI connectors. The best known, which is used on most computers and televisions, is the Type A 19-pin HDMI connector.
118. A 6-pin variation of S-Video is seen on some older video cameras and looks like a PS/2 connector used by a keyboard or mouse. What is this called? A few older video cameras use a 6-pin variation of S-Video. The connector is called a MiniDin-6 connector and looks like a PS/2 connector used by a keyboard or mouse.
119. A ThinNet (10Base2) cable system uses coaxial cable with a(n) ______ connector. 10Base2 (ThinNet) 10 Mbps: Coaxial cable uses a BNC connector.
120. A Fast Ethernet cable system uses twisted pair cable with a(n) ___________ connector. 100BaseT (Fast Ethernet): Twisted pair (UTP or STP) uses an RJ-45 connector.
121. Which statement regarding internal drive interfaces is correct? The two most popular internal drive interfaces are Parallel ATA (PATA) and Serial ATA (SATA).
122. Which of the following correctly pairs the standard with its transfer speed? SATA III or SATA3: 6 Gb/sec
123. Which statement regarding solid state drives (SSDs) is correct? Solid state drives are much more expensive than magnetic hard drives, but they are faster, more reliable, last longer, and use less power than magnetic drives.
124. The disks of a magnetic hard drive rotate on a spindle. What four speeds are associated with spindles in hard drives? The spindle rotates at 5400, 7200, 10,000, or 15,000 RPM (revolutions per minute).
125. What are the three sizes of Secure Digit (SD) cards, which are used in digital cameras, tablets, cell phones, MP3 players, digital camcorders, and most laptops? SD cards come in three physical sizes: Full-size SD, MiniSD, and MicroSD.
126. What type of flash memory card inserts in a CF slot on a digital camera, has a compact design (about the size of a postage stamp), and currently holds up to 8 GB of data? The xD-Picture Card has a compact design (about the size of a postage stamp), and currently holds up to 8 GB of data.
127. What type of RAID uses two or more physical disks to increase the disk space available for a single volume, and writes to the physical disks evenly across all disks? RAID 0 also uses two or more physical disks to increase the disk space available for a single volume. RAID 0 writes to the physical disks evenly across all disks so that no one disk receives all the activity, and therefore improves performance.
128. What type of RAID stripes data across three or more drives and uses parity checking, so that if one drive fails, the other drives can re-create the data stored on the failed drive by using the parity information? RAID 5 stripes data across three or more drives and uses parity checking, so that if one drive fails, the other drives can re-create the data stored on the failed drive by using the parity information.
129. Which statement regarding RAID 10 is correct? It takes at least four disks for RAID 10. Data is mirrored across pairs of disks.
130. Which statement regarding tape drives and tape cartridges is correct? An internal tape drive can interface with a computer using a SCSI, PATA, or SATA connection.
131. Which statement regarding floppy disk installation is correct? When connecting the data cable, align the edge color of the ribbon cable with pin 1 on the motherboard connector.
132. You can update the drivers for storage devices or I/O devices to solve problems with the devices or to add new features. What program is used for these updates? Device manufacturers often release updates to device drivers. Update the drivers to solve problems with the device or to add new features. You can use Device Manager in Windows to manage devices and their drivers.
133. Which statement regarding a device’s speed, port, and/or slot is correct? A TV tuner card in a PCI slot will not work as fast as a TV tuner card in a PCI Express slot because of the different speeds of the slots.
134. Which of the following is the correct ordering of ports or wireless connections, from the fastest maximum speed to the slowest speed? Wi-Fi 802.11n (RF of 2.4 GHz or 5.0 GHz): Up to 500 Mbps Wi-Fi 802.11g (RF of 2.4 GHz): Up to 54 Mbps Wi-Fi 802.11b (RF of 2.4 GHz): Up to 11 Mbps
135. Which of the following correctly matches the port with its maximum cable length, or the wireless connection with its wireless range? FireWire 800 (also called 1394b): Cable lengths up to 100 meters
136. Which of the following correctly matches the USB connector type with its description? This USB 3.0 B-Male connector is used by SuperSpeed USB 3.0 devices such as printers or scanners.
137. A network port is also called a(n) _________ port. A network port, also called an Ethernet port, or an RJ-45 port, is used by a network cable to connect to the wired network.
138. Which type of signal is characterized by a continuous signal with infinite variations? Analog means a continuous signal with infinite variations.
139. A PS/2 port _______. On a PC, the purple port is for the keyboard, and the green port is for the mouse.
140. All PATA standards since ATA-2 support the configuration of four IDE devices in a system, which is called ______________. All PATA standards since ATA-2 support this configuration of four IDE devices in a system, which is called the Enhanced IDE (EIDE) standard.
141. A(n) __________________ must follow the ATAPI (Advanced Technology Attachment Packet Interface) standard in order to connect to a system using an IDE connector. An optical drive must follow the ATAPI (Advanced Technology Attachment Packet Interface) standard in order to connect to a system using an IDE connector.
142. What type of port is a 25-pin female port used by older printers? A parallel port is a 25-pin female port used by older printers.
143. Which statement regarding the SCSI interface is correct? All the devices and the host adapter form a single daisy chain.
144. Which statement regarding SCSI standards and connectors is correct? The most popular SCSI connectors are 50-pin, A-cable connectors for narrow SCSI, and 68-pin, P-cable connectors for wide SCSI.
145. FireWire 800 or 400, eSATA, and SuperSpeed or Hi-Speed USB are common standards for _________________________. For external drives, common standards are eSATA, FireWire 800 or 400, and SuperSpeed or Hi-Speed USB.
146. Which statement regarding IEEE 1394 connections is correct? FireWire uses serial transmissions, and FireWire devices are hot-swappable.
147. With reference to a mouse or keyboard installation, which statement is correct? To uninstall a USB device such as the USB keyboard, click Uninstall a program in the Control Panel.
148. A _________________________, used to scan barcodes on products at the point of sale (POS) or when taking inventory, may be installed as a wireless connection, a serial port, a USB port, or a keyboard port. A barcode reader is used to scan barcodes on products at the point of sale (POS) or when taking inventory. The reader might use a wireless connection, a serial port, a USB port, or a keyboard port.
149. Which statement regarding biometric devices is correct? Fingerprint readers can look like a mouse and use a wireless or USB connection, or they can be embedded on a keyboard, flash drive, or laptop case.
150. Images stored on digital cameras and camcorders ______________. Using embedded memory or flash memory cards, you can connect the device to your computer using a USB or FireWire port and cable.
151. A webcam ______. Use the setup CD to install the software and then plug in the webcam to a USB port.
152. Which statement regarding MIDI devices and standards is correct? MIDI standards are used to connect electronic music equipment, such as musical keyboards and mixers, or to connect this equipment to a PC for input, output, and editing.
153. Which of the following statements regarding touch screens is correct? As an add-on device, the touch screen has its own AC adapter to power it.
154. Which statement regarding KVM (Keyboard, Video, and Mouse) switches is correct? Switch between computers by using a hot key on the keyboard, buttons on the top of the KVM switch, or a wired remote.
155. What two types of slots use a retention mechanism to help stabilize a heavy card? AGP and PCIe x16 slots use a retention mechanism in the slot to help stabilize a heavy card.
156. A graphics tablet, also called a(n) _________________________, is an input device that is used to hand draw and is likely to connect by a USB port. A graphics tablet, also called a digitizing tablet or digitizer, is used to hand draw and is likely to connect by a USB port.
157. Which of the following statements regarding device drivers is correct? For an unstable motherboard, you can try downloading and installing updated chipset drivers and other drivers for onboard components.
158. Which statement regarding the CMOS battery is correct? Make sure the replacement battery is an exact match to the original or is one the motherboard manufacturer recommends for the board.
159. The Intel i800 series of chipsets use the Accelerated Hub Architecture. Which statement regarding this architecture is correct? Beginning with the release in 2006 of the Intel i800 series of chipsets, a hub using the Accelerated Hub Architecture is used to connect buses. This hub has a fast and slow end, and each end is a separate chip on the motherboard.
160. Which statement regarding a TPM (Trusted Platform Module) chip is correct? BitLocker Encryption in Windows 7/Vista is designed to work with a TPM chip; the chip holds the BitLocker encryption key (also called the startup key). If the hard drive is stolen from the computer and installed in another computer, the data would be safe
161. Which statement regarding BIOS setup and monitoring is correct? BIOS settings might offer several security features. For example, Event Logger allows you to enable event logging, which logs when the case is opened. To use the feature, you must use a cable to connect a switch on the case to a header on the motherboard.
162. Which statement regarding dual monitors is correct? Boot the PC and enter BIOS setup. If BIOS setup has the option to select the order in which video cards are initialized, verify that the currently installed card is configured to initialize first.
163. A(n) _________________________ printer connects directly to a computer by way of a USB port, parallel port, serial port, or wireless connection (Bluetooth, infrared, or Wi-Fi). A local printer connects directly to a computer by way of a USB port, parallel port, serial port, or wireless connection (Bluetooth, infrared, or Wi-Fi).
164. A(n) _________________________ printer has an Ethernet port to connect directly to the network, or uses Wi-Fi to connect to a wireless access point. A network printer has an Ethernet port to connect directly to the network or uses Wi-Fi to connect to a wireless access point.
165. Which statement regarding dial-up modems is correct? Modem cards in desktop computers provide two phone jacks, called RJ-11 jacks, so that one can be used for dial-up networking and the other jack can be used to plug in an extension telephone.
166. Which statement regarding file systems is correct? Installing a new file system on a device is called formatting the device, and the process erases all data on the device.
167. _____________, which can be managed in the Windows 7 Devices and Printers window, is the process of placing print jobs in a print queue so that an application can be released from the printing process before printing is completed. Several print jobs can accumulate in the queue; this process is called spooling. To manage the printer queue, double-click the printer icon in the Windows 7 Devices and Printers window.
168. After a printer is installed, use the printer’s ______________ dialog box to manage printer features (e.g., paper size installed in each input tray bin) and hardware devices (e.g., stapler or stacker unit) installed on the printer. After a printer is installed, use the printer Properties box to manage printer features and hardware devices installed on the printer.
169. Which statement about the categories of parallel ports is correct? A parallel port is sometimes called a Centronics port, named after the 36-pin Centronics connection used by printers.
170. Which of the following actions should be considered or pursued if a problem occurs with an installation using a parallel port? If you have a problem with the installation that is using a parallel port, consider that the port might not be configured correctly in BIOS setup or that there is a problem with the parallel cable.
171. If the processor requests something from a slow device and the device is not ready, the device issues a(n) ____________, which is a command to the processor to wait for slower devices to catch up. If the processor requests something from a slow device and the device is not ready, the device issues a wait state, which is a command to the processor to wait for slower devices to catch up.
172. ____________ is the term for a set of chips on the motherboard that works closely (and is compatible) with the processor in order to collectively control the memory, buses on the motherboard, and some peripherals. A chipset is a set of chips on the motherboard that works closely with the processor to collectively control the memory, buses on the motherboard, and some peripherals.
173. Which statement regarding the system clock and system operations is correct? The chipset sends out a continuous pulsating electrical signal on one line of the system bus. This one system clock line, dedicated to carrying the pulse, is read by other components on the motherboard (including the processor, bus slots, memory slots, an
174. What units are used to measure the speed of memory, the Front Side Bus, or the processor? The speed of memory, Front Side Bus, processor, or other component is measured in hertz (Hz), which is one cycle per second; megahertz (MHz), which is one million cycles per second; and gigahertz (GHz), which is one billion cycles per second. Common ratin
175. What is the width of a bus (e.g., 8, 16, 32, 74, and 128 bits) called? The width of a data bus is called the data path size. Some buses have data paths that are 8, 16, 32, 64, 128, or more bits wide.
1. Most communication between computers on a network or the Internet uses the _________________________ model. A. multicast B. peer-to-peer C. client/server D. multicast C Most communication between computers on a network or the Internet uses the client/server model.
2. What term is used to describe the methods and rules used for communication? A. Standards B. Guidelines C. Models D. Protocols D The methods and rules used for communication are called protocols.
3. When data is transmitted on a network, what information is stored in a packet? A. Bandwidth B. Payload C. Data throughput D. Protocols B Packets contain data (called the payload) and information at the beginning of the packet (called the IP header).
4. Before data is transmitted on a network, it is first broken up into _________________________. A. octets B. segments C. subnets D. switches B Before data is transmitted on a network, it is first broken up into segments.
5. What term describes any device or computer that network traffic can use to leave one network and go to a different network? A. NIC B. Switch C. Gateway D. Network card C A gateway is any device or computer that network traffic can use to leave one network and go to a different network.
6. What is a six-byte number that uniquely identifies a network adapter? A. IP address B. Access point C. MAC address D. Port address C Every network adapter has a 48-bit (6-byte) number hard-coded on the card by its manufacturer that is unique for that device. The number is written in hex and is called the MAC (Media Access Control) address.
7. What device manages traffic between two or more networks and can help find the best path for traffic to get from one network to another? A. Router B. Gateway C. Hub D. Port A A router is a device that manages traffic between two or more networks and can help find the best path for traffic to get from one network to another.
8. Which of the following is a network bound by routers or other gateway devices? A. LAN B. Subnet C. SMTP D. Wi-Fi A A local area network (LAN) is a network bound by routers or other gateway devices.
9. Computers on the same LAN communicate using _________________________. A. port addresses B. MAC addresses C. IP addresses D. Ethernet addresses B Computers on the same LAN use MAC addresses to communicate.
10. Computers on different LANs communicate over the Internet using _____________________. A. Ethernet addresses B. MAC addresses C. IP addresses D. port addresses C Computers on different LANs use IP addresses to communicate over the Internet.
11. Which of the following is a 32-bit or 128-bit string that is assigned to a network connection when a connection is first made? A. Access point B. MAC address C. Port address D. IP address D An IP address is a 32-bit or 128-bit string that is assigned to a network connection when the connection is first made.
12. A private network that uses TCP/IP protocols is called a(n) _________________________. A. access point B. intranet C. client/server network D. peer-to-peer network B An intranet is any private network that uses TCP/IP protocols.
13. Suppose that several local networks are tied together in a subsystem of a larger intranet. What term refers to this group of small local networks? A. Subnet B. Port C. Segment D. DMZ A When several local networks are tied together in a subsystem of the larger intranet, this group of small local networks is called a subnetwork or subnet.
14. Each client and server application installed on a computer listens at a predetermined address that uniquely identifies the application on the computer. What is this address called? A. Access point B. MAC address C. Port address D. IP address C Each client and server application installed on a computer listens at a predetermined address that uniquely identifies the application on the computer. This address is a number and is called a port number, port, or port address.
15. Which stmt about IP/MAC is true? A.IP is embedded on a network adapter at the factory. B.MAC addr are assigned manually or by software. C.Dynamic IP is assigned each time it connects to network. D.Dynamic IP is permanently assigned to the comp. C A dynamic IP address is assigned by a server each time it connects to the network.
16. A computer attempts to initiate a connection to a network and request an IP address. Which of the following provides this address? A. Web server B. Web browser C. Email server D. DHCP server D A DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) server gives an IP address to a computer when it first attempts to initiate a connection to the network and requests an IP address.
17.1A computer or other device (such as a network printer) that requests an address from a DHCP server is called a _________________________. A. DHCP client B. neighbor port C. subnet server D. DHCP host A A computer or other device (such as a network printer) that requests an address from a DHCP server is called a DHCP client.
18. Which regarding IP is correct?A. An IP has 36 bits or 148 bits. B. Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) uses an IP address with 128 bits. C. The Internet Assigned Numbers Auth keeps track of assigned IP. D. A 32-bit IP is organized into two groups of 16 C The Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA at iana.org) is responsible for keeping track of assigned IP addresses and has already released all its available 32-bit IP addresses.
19. Which statement regarding the portions of an IP address is correct? A. The largest possible 8-bit number is 1111111. B. The first part of an IP address identifies the host.C. The last part of an IP address identifies the network.D. When data is route D When data is routed over the Internet, the network portion of the IP address is used to locate the right network.
20. The IP address 150.35.0.1 belongs to which class? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D B Class B networks range from 128.0.x.y to 191.255.x.y.
21. The IP address 200.80.15.1 belongs to which class? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D C Class C networks range from 192.0.0.x to 223.255.255.x.
22. What class is used for multicasting? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D D Class D addresses begin with octets 224 through 239 and are used for multicasting.
23. Which of the following is considered a loopback address? A. 255.255.255.255 B. 0.0.0.0 C. 127.0.0.1 D. 150.35.0.3 C IP address 127.0.0.1 indicates your own computer and is called the loopback address.
24. Consider a string of ones followed by a string of zeros. The ones say, “On our network, this part of an IP address is the network part,” and the group of zeros says, “On our network, this part of an IP address is the host part.” What is this address c A A subnet mask is a string of ones followed by a string of zeros. The ones in a subnet mask say, “On our network, this part of an IP address is the network part,” and the group of zeros says, “On our network, this part of an IP address is the host part.”
25. Which of the following is used with IPv4 to identify the network and host portions of an IP address? A. Subnet ID B. Hosts file C. Subnet mask D. Loopback address C The subnet mask used with IPv4 identifies which part of an IP address is the network portion and which part is the host portion.
25. Which of the following is used with IPv4 to identify the network and host portions of an IP address? A. Subnet ID B. Hosts file C. Subnet mask D. Loopback address B For two IP addresses to be in the same subnet, the first two octets and the first four bits of the third octet must match.
27. IP addresses that are available to the Internet are called _________________________. A. Subnet masks B. MAC addresses C. Host addresses D. Public IP addresses D The IP addresses available to the Internet are called public IP addresses.
28. What is a TCP/IP protocol that substitutes the public IP address of the router for the private IP address of the other computer when these computers need to communicate on the Internet? A. SNMP B. NAT C. DHCP D. FTP B NAT is a TCP/IP protocol that substitutes the public IP address of the router for the private IP address of the other computer when these computers need to communicate on the Internet.
29. Which statement regarding Internet standards is correct? A. ICANN, a nonprofit organization, is responsible for many Internet standards. B. Internet standards are proposed to the networking community in the form of an RFC (Request for Comment). C. B Internet standards are proposed to the networking community in the form of an RFC (Request for Comment).
30. What term refers to a local area network (LAN) or wide area network (WAN) bounded by routers? A. Neighbor B. Interface ID C. Link D. Interface C A link, sometimes called the local link, is a local area network (LAN) or wide area network (WAN) bounded by routers.
31. What is a node’s attachment to a link? A. Neighbor B. Interface ID C. Node point D. Interface D An interface is a node’s attachment to a link.
32. The last 64 bits or 4 blocks of an IP address that identifies the interface is called a(n) _________________________. A. neighbor B. interface ID C. link D. access ID B The last 64 bits or 4 blocks of an IP address identify the interface and are called the interface ID or interface identifier.
33. Which statement regarding networked computers is correct? A. If a computer first connects to a network and is unable to lease an IP address from the DHCP server, it uses an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA) in the address range 169.254.x.y. B. A A If a computer first connects to the network and is unable to lease an IP address from the DHCP server, it uses an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA) in the address range 169.254.x.y.
34. What protocol was developed for IPv6 packets to travel over an IPv4 network? A. Teredo B. TCP/IP C. DHCP D. Telnet A Three tunneling protocols have been developed for IPv6 packets to travel over an IPv4 network: ISATAP, Teredo, and 6TO4.
35. What identifies a single interface on a network? A. Multicast address B. Subnet ID C. Port address D. Unicast address D A unicast address identifies a single interface on a network.
36. Which statement regarding local and global addresses is correct? A. A link-local address is used to identify a specific site within a large organization. B. A global unicast address cannot be routed on the Internet. C. Link-local addresses are allo D Using IPv6, a subnet is, therefore, identified as one or more links that have the same 64 bits in the IP address prefix. This definition implies that a local link is itself a subnet.
37. What address prefix is used for most global unicast addresses? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/64 D. FF00::/8 A Most global addresses begin with the prefix 2000::/3, although other prefixes are being released.
38. Most multicast addresses use which of the following address prefixes? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/64 D. FF00::/8 D Most multicast addresses use the address prefix FF00::/8.
39. Which statement about networks is correct? A. A workgroup is a group of computers on a client/server network that are sharing resources. B. A domain name identifies a network. C. The process of associating a character-based name with an IP address B A domain name identifies a network.
40. What term describes the process of associating a character-based name with an IP address? A. Name resolution B. Port triggering C. Multicasting D. Name forwarding A The process of associating a character-based name with an IP address is called name resolution.
41. For TCP to guarantee delivery, it must use network protocols to establish a session between client and server to verify that communication has taken place. What protocols are used for this purpose? A. FTP B. IP C. Telnet D. Ethernet B For TCP to guarantee delivery, it uses IP protocols to establish a session between client and server to verify that communication has taken place.
42. Which statement regarding data transmission is correct? A. Telnet transmissions are encrypted. B. HTTPS is used by web browsers and servers to encrypt the data before it is sent and then decrypt it before the data is processed. C. The POP3 protocol B HTTPS is used by web browsers and servers to encrypt the data before it is sent and then decrypt it before the data is processed.
43. Which statement regarding protocols is correct? A. FTP is the protocol used by Windows to share files and printers on a network. B. The Secure Shell (SSH) protocol is used to pass login information to a remote computer and control that computer over B The Secure Shell (SSH) protocol is used to pass login information to a remote computer and control that computer over a network.
44. FTP clients receive data on which of the following ports? A. 20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 23 220-801 A+ Objective 2.4 Explain common TCP and UDP ports, protocols, and their purpose A The FTP client receives data on port 20 from the FTP server.
45. A DNS server listens for requests on which of the following ports? A. 23 B. 25 C. 53 D. 67 C A DNS server listens at port 53.
46. An email client using IMAP receives email on port _________________________. A. 110 B. 143 C. 443 D. 3389 B An email client using IMAP receives email at port 143.
47. An email client using POP3 receives email on port _________________________. A. 80 B. 110 C. 143 D. 443 B An email client using POP3 receives email at port 110.
48. Which statement regarding a SOHO router is correct? A. As a router, it stands between the ISP network and the local network, routing traffic between the two networks. B. As a DHCP server, it manages several network ports that can be connected to wir A As a router, it (SOHO router) stands between the ISP network and the local network routing traffic between the two networks.
49. Which statement regarding network speed and/or security is correct? A. The speed of a network depends on the speed of each device on the network and how well a router manages that traffic. B. Routers, switches, and network adapters currently run at A The speed of a network depends on the speed of each device on the network and how well a router manages that traffic.
51. What process opens a port when a PC on the network initiates communication through another port? A. Port forwarding B. Port triggering C. Port filtering D. Port casting B Port triggering opens a port when a PC on the network initiates communication through another port.
52. When using port forwarding or port triggering, what should you keep in mind? A. You must lease a static IP address from your ISP so that people on the Internet can find you. B. If two computers on the network attempt to trigger the same port, the ro A When using port forwarding or port triggering, you must lease a static IP address from your ISP so that people on the Internet can find you. Most ISPs will provide you a static IP address for an additional monthly fee.
53. If you are having problems getting port forwarding or port triggering to work, putting your computer in a(n) _________________________ can free it to receive any communication from the Internet. A. DMZ B. WWAN C. Intranet D. VPN A If you are having problems getting port forwarding or port triggering to work, putting your computer in a DMZ can free it to receive any communication from the Internet.
54. What Wi-Fi standard has the following characteristics? • Speeds up to 500 Mbps depending on the configuration • Indoor range up to 70 meters and outdoor range up to 250 meters • Can use either 5.0 GHz or 2.4 GHz radio frequency A. IEEE 802.11a B. D IEEE 802.11n has the following characteristics: • Speeds up to 500 Mbps depending on the configuration • Indoor range up to 70 meters and outdoor range up to 250 meters • Can use either 5.0 GHz or 2.4 GHz radio frequency
55. What Wi-Fi standard has the following characteristics? • Speeds up to 11 Mbps with a range of up to 100 meters (Indoor ranges are less than outdoor ranges.) • Interference from cordless phones and microwaves at the radio frequency of 2.4 GHz A. IEE B IEEE 802.11b has the following characteristics: • Speeds up to 11 Mbps with a range of up to 100 meters (Indoor ranges are less than outdoor ranges.) • Interference from cordless phones and microwaves in the radio frequency of 2.4 GHz
56. When configuring an 802.11n network, what should you keep in mind? A. Use 5 GHz frequency if your hotspot must reach a longer distance. B. Bandwidth is a specific radio frequency within a broader frequency. C. If your network must support older 802 C If your network must support older 802.11 b/g wireless devices, you must support the 2.4 GHz frequency
57. Which statement regarding wireless encryption is correct? A. WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is considered very secure because the key used for encryption is dynamic. B. WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) encryption is stronger than WEP and was designed to B WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access), also called TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) encryption, is stronger than WEP and was designed to replace it.
58. What type of network covers a small local area such as a home, office, other building, or small group of buildings? A. PAN B. LAN C. MAN D. WAN B A LAN (local area network) covers a small local area such as a home, office, other building, or small group of buildings.
59. What type of network covers a limited geographical area, and is popular in places where networking cables are difficult to install, such as outdoors, in public places, and in homes that are not wired for networks? A. PAN B. LAN C. MAN D. WLAN D A wireless LAN (WLAN) covers a limited geographical area, and is popular in places where networking cables are difficult to install, such as outdoors, in public places, and in homes that are not wired for networks.
60. What type of network consists of personal devices communicating at close range, such as a cell phone and notebook computer? A. PAN B. LAN C. MAN D. WAN A A PAN (personal area network) consists of personal devices communicating at close range such as a cell phone and notebook computer.
61. What term describes how the connections between computers are physically arranged? A. Network topology B. Network design C. Network architecture D. Network map A The physical arrangement of the connections between computers is called the network topology or the physical topology.
62. Several wireless computers each set up their own ad hoc mode network. This group of networked computers is known as a _________________________. A. ring network B. bus network C. star network D. mesh network D When several wireless computers each set up their own ad hoc mode network, the group of networked computers are a mesh network.
63. When a star network uses multiple switches in sequence, the switches form a bus network. What term describes this network topology? A. Ring network B. Hybrid network C. Fully connected mesh network D. Mesh network B When a star network uses multiple switches in sequence, the switches form a bus network, and the network topology is called a star bus network or a hybrid network.
64. What network topology uses a centralized device to manage traffic on the network? A. Ring network B. Bus network C. Star network D. Mesh network C A star network uses a centralized device to manage traffic on the network
65. Which statement regarding network connections is correct? A. By default, an ad hoc network is deleted after you, or all users, disconnect from the network. B. When connecting to an ISP, download speeds are generally slower than upload speeds. C. Ne A By default, an ad hoc network is deleted after you, or all users, disconnect from the network.
66. What term refers to the theoretical number of bits that can be transmitted over a network at one time, similar to the number of lanes on a highway? A. Bandwidth B. Data throughput C. Latency D. Broadband A Bandwidth is the theoretical number of bits that can be transmitted over a network at one time, similar to the number of lanes on a highway.
67. What is measured by the round-trip time it takes for a data packet to travel from source to destination and back to source? A. Bandwidth B. Data throughput C. Latency D. Broadband C Latency is measured by the round-trip time it takes for a data packet to travel from source to destination and back to source.
68. What is the maximum speed of the 2G EDGE or 2G E cellular technology? A. Up to 50 Kbps B. Up to 56 Kbps C. 64 Kbps or 128 Kbps D. Up to 230 Kbps D 2G EDGE or 2G E cellular technology has maximum speeds of up to 230 Kbps.
69. Which of the following uses either CDMA or GSM mobile phone services? A. ISDN B. 3G cellular C. Satellite D. Dial-up B 3G cellular technology uses either CDMA or GSM mobile phone services.
70. Which term refers to a networking technology that carries more than one type of signal, such as DSL and telephone, or cable Internet and TV? A. Broadband B. Latency C. Data throughput D. Bandwidth A Broadband refers to a networking technology that carries more than one type of signal, such as DSL and telephone or cable Internet and TV.
71. What is the maximum speed of a T3 network? A. Up to 30 Mbps B. 44 Mbps C. Up to 20 Mbps upstream and 50 Mbps downstream D. Up to 52 Mbps B The maximum speed of a T3 network is 44 Mbps.
72. What type of network ranges up to six miles and is used to provide wireless access to an ISP in rural areas? A. Wi-Fi 802.11g wireless B. 802.11n wireless C. Fast Ethernet (100BaseT) D. 802.16 wireless (WiMAX) WiMAX 2.0 D An 802.16 wireless (WiMAX) network ranges up to six miles and is used to provide wireless access to an ISP in rural areas.
73. What is the newest Ethernet standard that is expected to largely replace SONET, OC, and ATM because of its speed, simplicity, and lower cost? A. Gigabit Ethernet (1000BaseT) B. 802.11n wireless C. 10-gigabit Ethernet (10GBaseT) D. 802.16 wireless C 10-gigabit Ethernet (10GBaseT) technology is the newest Ethernet standard expected to largely replace SONET, OC, and ATM because of its speed, simplicity, and lower cost.
74. What technology uses ordinary copper phone lines and a range of frequencies on the copper wire that are not used by voice, thus making it possible to use the same phone line for voice and Internet at the same time? A. CDMA B. DSL C. Wi-Fi D. Cable B DSL uses ordinary copper phone lines and a range of frequencies on the copper wire that are not used by voice, making it possible for you to use the same phone line for voice and DSL at the same time.
75. Which statement regarding connection technologies is correct? A. Satellites require line-of-sight connectivity without obstruction from mountains, trees, and tall buildings. B. Satellites do not usually experience delays in transmission. C. WiMAX s A One disadvantage of satellite is that it requires line-of-sight connectivity without obstruction from mountains, trees, and tall buildings.
76. What is sometimes used as a last-mile solution for DSL and cable Internet technologies? A. WiMAX B. GSM C. CDMA D. Wi-Fi A WiMAX is sometimes used as a last-mile solution for DSL and cable Internet technologies, which means that the DSL or cable connection goes into a central point in an area, and WiMAX is used for the final leg to the consumer.
77. What is an open standard that uses digital communication of data, and is accepted and used worldwide? A. WiMAX B. CDMA C. GSM D. Wi-Fi C GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications) is an open standard that uses digital communication of data, and is accepted and used worldwide.
78. What type of network consists of cells, with each cell being controlled by a base station? A. WiMAX B. Cellular WAN C. Fiber-optic D. Satellite B A cellular network or cellular WAN consists of cells, and each cell is controlled by a base station.
79. What term refers to the ability to use your cell phone to browse the web, stream music and video, play online games, and use instant messaging and video conferencing? A. Wi-Fi B. CAT-5 C. Power over Ethernet D. 2G, 3G, or 4G D The ability to use your cell phone to browse the web, stream music and video, play online games, and use instant messaging and video conferencing is called 2G, 3G, or 4G.
80. A PC makes a direct connection to a local wired network via a(n) _________________________. A. network adapter B. NIC C. mesh network D. BNC connector A A PC makes a direct connection to a local wired network by way of a network adapter.
81. Which of the following is an example of a MAC address? A. 192.168.15.1 B. 192.168.1.2 - 254 C. 11-0C-6E-D D. 00-0C-6E-4E-AB-A5 D An example of a MAC address is 00-0C-6E-4E-AB-A5.
82. A wired network adapter might provide indicator lights on the side of the RJ-45 port that indicate _________________________. A. the MAC address B. connectivity and activity C. support for Wake-on-LAN D. Power over Ethernet B A wired network adapter might provide indicator lights on the side of the RJ-45 port that indicate connectivity and activity.
83. Which of the following allows the adapter to wake up the computer when it receives certain communication on the network? A. Quality of Service B. Power over Ethernet C. Wake-on-LAN D. NIC C A network adapter might support Wake-on-LAN, which allows the adapter to wake up the computer when it receives certain communication on the network.
84. What network adapter feature provides the ability to control which applications have priority on the network? A. Quality of Service B. Power over Ethernet C. Wake-on-LAN D. Ethernet A Quality of Service (QoS) is the feature of a network adapter that provides the ability to control which applications have priority on the network.
85. Suppose you need power for your webcam, but you are in a building without an electrical outlet nearby. What network adapter feature would be most helpful in this situation? A. Quality of Service B. Power over Ethernet C. Wake-on-LAN D. Half duplex B Using Power over Ethernet (PoE), you can place a wireless access point, webcam, IP phone, or other device that needs power in a position in a building where you don’t have an electrical outlet.
86. Which of the following is a type of twisted-pair cable that uses an RJ-11 connector? A. Switch B. Hub C. Modems D. Phone cords D Phone cords are a type of twisted-pair cable and use an RJ-11 connector.
87. What term describes the two phone jacks that are included on modem cards in desktop computers? A. RJ-11 jacks B. RJ-25 jacks C. RJ-45 jacks D. RJ-51 jacks A Modem cards in desktop computers provide two phone jacks, called RJ-11 jacks, so that one can be used for dial-up networking and the other jack can be used to plug in an extension telephone.
88. Just before a packet is put on the network, the network adapter adds additional information to the beginning and end of the packet, and this information includes the source and destination MAC addresses. The packet with this additional information is C Just before a packet is put on the network, the network adapter adds additional information to the beginning and end of the packet, and this information includes the source and destination MAC addresses. The packet, with this additional information, is
89. What technology just allows for a pass-through and distribution point for every device connected to it, without regard for what kind of data is passing through and where the data might be going? A. Switch B. Hub C. Crimper D. Bridge B A hub is just a pass-through and distribution point for every device connected to it, without regard for what kind of data is passing through and where the data might be going.
90. How does a switch learn the MAC addresses of every device connected to it? A. It learns this information as it receives frames and records the source MAC addresses in its MAC address table. B. It learns this information as it receives signals. C. I A A switch learns the addresses for devices connected to it as the switch receives frames and records the source MAC addresses in its MAC address table.
91. What device stands between two segments of a network and manages network traffic between them? A. Crimper B. Switch C. Hub D. Bridge D A bridge is a device that stands between two segments of a network and manages network traffic between them.
92. What is a TCP/IP protocol that manages voice communication over the Internet? A. VoIP B. NAS C. Internet appliance D. VPN A VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) is a TCP/IP protocol that manages voice communication over the Internet.
93. Which of the following connects directly to a network by way of an Ethernet port or an embedded Ethernet cable? A. VoIP phone B. NAS C. Internet appliance D. Hub A A VoIP phone connects directly to a network by way of an Ethernet port or an embedded Ethernet cable.
94. What device is an enclosure that provides multiple bays for hard drives and an Ethernet port to connect to the network, and is likely to support RAID? A. VoIP phone B. NAS C. Internet appliance D. Hub B The NAS enclosure provides four bays for hard drives and an Ethernet port to connect to the network and supports RAID.
95. What device uses firmware to configure its TCP/IP settings (including its IP address) and the phone number assigned to it? A. VoIP phone B. Fiber optic phone C. PAN phone D. Hybrid phone A A VoIP phone uses firmware to configure its TCP/IP settings (including its IP address) and the phone number assigned to the phone.
96. What is a type of thin client designed to make it easy for a user to connect to the Internet, browse the web, use email, and perform other simple chores on the Internet? A. VoIP phone B. NAS C. Internet appliance D. Hub C An Internet appliance is a type of thin client that is designed to make it easy for a user to connect to the Internet, browse the web, use email, and perform other simple chores on the Internet.
97. What is the maximum cable length of a 10Base2 (ThinNet) cable system? A. 100 meters or 328 feet B. 185 meters or 607 feet C. 500 meters or 1,640 feet D. Up to 2 kilometers (6,562 feet) B The maximum cable length of a 10Base2 (ThinNet) cable system is 185 meters or 607 feet.
98. What is the maximum cable length of a 10Base5 (ThickNet) cable system? A. 100 meters or 328 feet B. 185 meters or 607 feet C. 500 meters or 1,640 feet D. Up to 2 kilometers (6,562 feet) C The maximum cable length of a 10Base5 (ThickNet) cable system is 500 meters or 1,640 feet.
99. What is the maximum cable length of a 100BaseT (Fast Ethernet) cable system? A. 100 meters or 328 feet B. 185 meters or 607 feet C. 500 meters or 1,640 feet D. Up to 2 kilometers (6,562 feet) A The maximum cable length of a 100BaseT (Fast Ethernet) cable system is 100 meters or 328 feet.
100. What cable system uses coaxial cable and an AUI 15-pin D-shaped connector? A. 10Base2 (ThinNet) B. 10Base5 (ThickNet) C. 100BaseT (Fast Ethernet) D. 100BaseFX B 10Base5 (ThickNet) is coaxial and uses an AUI 15-pin D-shaped connector.
101. What cable system uses twisted pair (UTP or STP) cable and an RJ-45 connector? A. 10Base2 (ThinNet) B. 10Base5 (ThickNet) C. 100BaseT (Fast Ethernet) D. 100BaseFX C 100BaseT (Fast Ethernet) is a twisted pair (UTP or STP) cable that uses an RJ-45 connector.
102. What cable system uses fiber-optic cable and ST or SC connectors or LC and MT-RJ connectors? A. 10Base2 (ThinNet) B. 10Base5 (ThickNet) C. 100BaseT (Fast Ethernet) D. 100BaseFX D 100BaseFX is a fiber-optic cable that uses ST or SC connectors or LC and MT-RJ connectors.
103. What is the maximum cable length of a 100BaseFL cable system? A. 100 meters or 328 feet B. 185 meters or 607 feet C. 500 meters or 1,640 feet D. Up to 2 kilometers (6,562 feet) D The maximum cable length of a 100BaseFL cable system is up to 2 kilometers (6,562 feet).
104. Which statement regarding cabling is correct? A. Twisted pair cable comes in two varieties: unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable and shielded twisted pair (STP) cable. B. Twisted-pair cable has three pairs of twisted wires for a total of six wires. A Twisted pair cable comes in two varieties: unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable and shielded twisted pair (STP) cable.
105. What type of cable uses a covering or shield around each pair of wires inside the cable that protects it from electromagnetic interference caused by electrical motors, transmitters, or high-tension lines? A. UTP cable B. STP cable C. Fiber-optic c B STP cable uses a covering or shield around each pair of wires inside the cable that protects it from electromagnetic interference caused by electrical motors, transmitters, or high-tension lines.
106. What type of cable has a single copper wire down the middle and a braided shield around it? A. Coaxial cable B. Unshielded twisted-pair cable C. Fiber-optic cable D. Shielded twisted-pair cable A Coaxial cable has a single copper wire down the middle and a braided shield around it.
107. What type of cable uses an F-connector? A. RG-59 coaxial cable B. Unshielded twisted-pair cable C. Fiber-optic cable D. RG-6 coaxial cable D RG-6 cables use an F connector.
108. What type of cable transmits signals as pulses of light over glass or plastic strands inside protected tubing? A. Coaxial cable B. Unshielded twisted-pair cable C. Fiber-optic cable D. Shielded twisted-pair cable C Fiber-optic cables transmit signals as pulses of light over glass or plastic strands inside protected tubing.
109. What type of connectors can fiber-optic cables use? A. ST connectors only B. ST, SC, LC, and MT-RJ connectors only C. ST, SC, and MT-RJ connectors only D. SC, LC, and MT-RJ connectors only B Fiber-optic cables can use one of four connectors - two older types are ST (straight tip) connectors and SC (subscriber connector or standard connector) connectors. Two newer types are LC (local connector) connectors and MT-RJ (mechanical transfer regis
110. Which statement regarding Ethernet is correct? A. 10-Gigabit Ethernet uses STP or UTP cabling rated CAT-5 or higher. B. Two variations of 100BaseT are 100BaseTS and 100BaseFS. C. Gigabit Ethernet is becoming the most popular choice for LAN technol C Gigabit Ethernet is becoming the most popular choice for LAN technology.
111. What tool can be used to test a network cable or port? A. Loopback plug B. Cable tester C. Network multimeter D. Toner probe A A loopback plug can be used to test a network cable or port.
112. What tool can be used to locate the ends of a network cable in a building? A. Loopback plug B. Cable tester C. Network multimeter D. Toner probe B You can use a cable tester to locate the ends of a network cable in a building.
113. What tool can be used to detect Ethernet speed, duplex status, default router on the network, length of a cable, voltage levels of PoE, and other network statistics and details? A. Loopback plug B. Cable tester C. Toner probe D. Network multimete D A network multimeter can be used to detect the Ethernet speed, duplex status, default router on the network, length of a cable, voltage levels of PoE, and other network statistics and details.
114. What is a two-part kit that is used to find cables in the walls of a building? A. Loopback plug B. Cable tester C. Toner probe D. Network multimeter C A toner probe, sometimes called a tone probe, is a two-part kit that is used to find cables in the walls of a building.
115. What tool can be used to build your own network cable or repair a cable? A. Wire stripper B. Punchdown tool C. Crimper D. Network multimeter A A wire stripper is used to build your own network cable or repair a cable.
116. What tool is used to attach a terminator or connector to the end of a cable? A. Wire stripper B. Punchdown tool C. Crimper D. Network multimeter C A crimper is used to attach a terminator or connector to the end of a cable.
117. What tool is used to punch individual wires in a network cable into their slots in the keystone RJ-45 jack that is used in an RJ-45 wall jack? A. Wire stripper B. Punchdown tool C. Crimper D. Network multimeter B A punchdown tool, also called an impact tool, is used to punch individual wires in a network cable into their slots in a keystone RJ-45 jack that is used in an RJ-45 wall jack.
118. What provides multiple network ports for cables that converge in one location such as an electrical closet or server room? A. Patch panel B. Keystone jack C. Crimper D. Patch cable A A patch panel provides multiple network ports for cables that converge in one location such as an electrical closet or server room.
119. Which statement regarding cable connections is correct? A. When terminating a cable in a keystone jack, you first gently push each wire down into the color-coded slot of the keystone jack and then you use the punchdown tool to punch the wire down A When terminating a cable in a keystone jack, you first gently push each wire down into the color-coded slot of the keystone jack and then you use the punchdown tool to punch the wire down all the way into the slot.
120. Which statement regarding cable wiring is correct? A. Twisted-pair cabling used with RJ-45 connectors is color-coded in six pairs. B. 10BaseT and 100BaseT Ethernet use four pins: pins 1 and 2 for receiving data and pins 3 and 6 for transmitting C For Gigabit Ethernet (1000BaseT) that transmits data on all four pairs, you must not only cross the green and orange pairs but also cross the blue and brown pairs to make a crossover cable.
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