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CDC 1C052 VOL. 2

Unit Review Questions/Answers

A profession accreditation in aviation that is similar to a physician who is accredited to practice a trade is a Rating
Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)? Commissioning date in the USAF
Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service as flight surgeons effective the date they completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course.
Establish the aviation service date (ASD) for medical student using the date of the medical license.
What qualification does the aircrew prefix "Q" signify? Evaluator
Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the member has a duty prefix of "X", "K", or "Q"
Operational support fliers are fully qualified in non-crew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally.
Operational support members are placed in flying status on a monthly basis.
The MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request by what date? 15 June
What Flying class of medical examination is required to qualify a member for career enlisted aviation (CEA) duties? III
A flight physical is not required when a member is placed on medical waiver
A periodic flight preventative health assessments (PHA) is required every 15.
The AF IMT 1042 is not used to document completion of physiological training.
When a member completes a flight physical health assessment (PHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within one duty day.
How many days can a non-rated officer remain in Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status without being medically disqualified from aviation service? 180.
When updating the flight physical in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) use the date flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042.
What code must you enter in the Physical Status Code field in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) to manually change a member's flight physical due date? F.
One way of knowing if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties is to check the member's availability code.
Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) can you find the list of availability codes? 11-421, Aviation Resource Management
A categorical flying waiver restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft.
In which Air Force Instruction can you find the list of categorical flying waiver codes? 11-421, Aviation Resource Management.
Following any centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for how many hours? 12.
Completion of centrifuge training is documented using the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.
Who certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record? Aerospace physiologist
Who is not required to have altitude chamber training? civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights
Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within how many months of the training due date? 4
When, if ever, can you schedule a member with an expired flight physical health assessment (PHA) to attend any physiological training? Never
After completing physiological training, within how many duty days of arrival on station must the member return the AF IMT 702 to the HARM? 5
To update a member's physiological information in ARMS, the AF IMT 702 is Flyer Availability window
After updating the member's physiological information in the ARMS, the AF IMT 702 is filed in the flight record folder
Which position does NOT have an aeronautical rating? Master Flight Surgeon
A pilot-physician who is formally qualified as a combat systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of pilot and flight surgeon
Advanced ratings are awarded based on years of rated service and either military flying time or OFDA
The years of rated service are computed from the date the officer received the basic United States Air Force rating
An ARB is a board of rated officers who are tasked to evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer
The effective sate of the Department of the Air Force (DAF) aeronautical order (AO) awarding the basic rating to an officer approved for inter-service transfer is the date the officer is assigned to rated duties
Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) may start wearing the officer aircrew member badge after completing an aircrew qualification as documented on AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification
A member is authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge after completing the basic flight nurse course, three years of aviation service and 12 paid months of operational flying duty
Operational support flyiers are NOT authorized to wear an aviation badge unless it is permanently awarded as a result of previos aircrew duty
A commander may recommend to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge when a member is disqualified due to fear of flying
Who makes final approval for prohibiting the wear of aviation badges? MAJCOM commander
The manpower standard is an AIR Force document used to quantify manpower requirements
Funding for manpower resources are derived from the The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program
Which primary document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit's mission? Unit Manpower Document
How can you determine if members are double-billeted? They share the same position number
A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code used to provide detailed information about a member's flying activity
Which AFI can you find the list of flying activity codes (FAC)? 11-401, Aviation Management
Which Congressional Act was the first to set minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP) Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974
Aviation service gates for career enlisted aviators (CEA) are set at the 10th, 15th, and 20th year of aviation service
Which rated officer may accumulate operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit toward entitlement to Continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP) A combat systems officer (CSO) with less than 18 years of aviation service
How many days in a calendar month must a member be in an active flying status code (FSC) to receive one month of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit? 15
What is the effective date for assigning flying status code (FSC) "S" to a member who is actively flying and flew on 15 Mar 09, but did not fly until 12 Sep 09? 16 Mar 09
A member was initially assigned to flying duty of 19 Dec 08 and first flew on 17 Apr 09. What action, if any must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office take on 20 Mar 09. Change the member's flying status code (FSC) from "A" to "S"
For which months is the member who is actively flying authorized to receive operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit if the member flew on 14 May, but did not fly again until 18 Nov? May, Jun, Jul, and Aug
The first character of the aviation service code (ASC) is the entitlement status code (ESC)
Which flying status code (FSC) is assigned when a member is not flying due to lack of support capability? K
A member's entitlement status code (ESC) is not changed when he/she fails to perform an operational flight for the month
What is the maximum number of days a member can stay in Aviation Status Code 04 (suspended status) without MAJCOM approval? 180
You must confirm verbal orders in writing by publishing the corresponding aeronautical order (AO) within 3 duty days
You may publish a single aeronautical order (AO) that affects several members provided the action is exactly for all members
When amending an aeronautical order (AO), you must locate the original AO in the master record set and document in ink in the lower left-hand margin the order number and request date of the amendment AO
When an aeronautical order (AO) number of the last AO published in the privious year must be annotated above the heading of the first AO of the current year
Supporting documents used in publishing aeronautical order (AO) are annotated in ink in the lower left-hand corner with the AO number to which it pertains
You do not publish an aeronautical order (AO) when awarding an advanced aeronautical rating
What effective date would you use when changing a pilot's flying status code (FSC) from "U" to X" if the member graduates undergraduate pilot training (UPT) or undergraduate flying training (UFT) on 25 May, departs for initial qualification (#68) 25 May
What date is not used when terminating an aeronautical order (AO) for non-career enlisted aviators (CEA)? Aviation Service milestone
When a non-rated officers' date of separation (DOS) is unknown, the effective period of the member's aeronautical order (AO) must not exceed 3 years
Which is the correct way for citing an Air Force instruction (AFI) as authority when publishing an aeronautical order (AO) AFI 11-401, Para 2,3,4,7 Mar 09
In which AFI can you find the list of all the mandatory remarks used for publishing aeronautical orders (AO)? 11-421, Aviation Resource Mangagement
Remarks are not used on aeronautical order (AO) to add extra authority
When publishing an aeronautical order (AO) to change a rated officer's Aviation Service Code (ASC), the termination date is automatically populated and will coincide with the member's next aviation service gate
What must be included in the Authority section of the aeronautical order (AO), when the authority for publishing the AO is a letter? Organization, office symbol, and date of the letter
What is not a reason to convene a flying evaluation board (FEB)? Lack if aircrew proficiency at undergraduate flying training (UFT)
A flying evaluation board (FEB) may not recommend disciplinary actions
While under suspension, the member's flying incentive pay is terminated until the member's status is resolved
Suspension action is at the discretion of the commander when a member is offered Article 15 punishment
Non-permanent disqualification reasons include Conscientious objector
If the medical disqualification is less than one year, a member may obtain medical certification forrequalification by obtaining certification from the local flight surgeon's office
A rated officer who has been disqualified for at least one year but less than five years due to failure to maintain medical fitness may be re-qualified for aviation service when certified by HQ AFMOA/SG3PF
Aviation service date (ASD) adjustment is mandatory for members returning to aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02
Which Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) report must be audited after each ARMS-Military Personne; Data System (MilPDS) interface? Permanent duty station (PDS) Interface Summary Report
When the consolidated host aviation resource management system (CHARMS) transfer file is not received during a system interface, HQ USAF/A3O-AT will notify the appropriate host aviation resource management (HARM) office
The 120-day notification policy before involuntarily terminating aviation service applies to non-career enlisted aviator (CEA) enlisted members
Which part of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) lists all members who are in duty not involiving flying (DNIF) status? 2
Which part of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) displays aircrew members who have gone three months without performing an operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) creditable flight? 8
Part 9 of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) is used to determine if aircrew members in flying status code (FSC) "S" recently performed an operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA)-creditable flight
Which office is responsible for establishing flight record folders (FRF)? host aviation resource management (HARM)
Flight record folders (FRF) for members who have been disqualified for eight years or are given to the member
Which document is filed on the right side of the flight record folder (FRF)? Flying History Report (FRF)
When conducting a flight record folder (FRF) audit, verify that the date of the AF IMT 702, Indivdual Physiological Training Record, matches the date on the member's Individual Data Summary (IDS)
When auditing a flight record folder (FRF), ensure all aeronautical orders (AO) are filed in chronlogical order by effective date
Members who are in active flying status must complete a records review every year by the end of member's birth month
Members who are in inactive status are not required to complete an annual records review
You must handle all information pertaining to the aircraft mishap as Privileged information
During an aircraft mishap, what action must be taken before the host aviation resource management (HARM) office prints out all the required reports for the Aircraft Investigation Board? Ensure all flying time and training accomplishments have been entered into the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)
Within how many days prior to departure must a member notify the host aviation resource management (HARM) office of a pending assignment? At least five duty days
For how many months should you maintain a copy of the member's outprocessing products? 24
The member must acknowledge receipt of the flight record package by signing the outprocessing logbook
If you must normalize and make changes to a member's record after it has been outprocessed to a gaining host aviation resource mangement (HARM) office, you must advise the gaining HARM office to delete the record before you resend the updated record
What mail option must you chooes if you were to mail a flight record folder (FRF) to a member First Class
No later than how many days after receipt of a member's record must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office inprocess the flight record folder (FRF) in the Aviation Resource Management (ARMS)? 10 calendar days
Once the member's Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) record has been inprocessed complete the ARMS Record Transfer Letter and mail it to the losing host aviation resource management (HARM) office
Created by: KimA
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