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WAN Final

The following commands were entered on a router: Router(config)# access-list 2 deny Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any The ACL is correctly applied to an interface. What can be concluded about this set of commands? The wildcard mask is assumed.
Interface s0/0/0 already has an IP ACL applied inbound. What happens when the network administrator attempts to apply a second inbound IP ACL? The second ACL is applied to the interface, replacing the first.
Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two) 1. Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses. 2. Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
Which benefit does an extended ACL offer over a standard ACL? In addition to the source address, an extended ACL can also filter on destination address, destination port, and source port.
Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.) 1. An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement. 2. A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched. 3. Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end
Which feature will require the use of a named ACL rather than a numbered ACL? the ability to edit the ACL and add additional statements in the middle of the list without removing and re-creating the list
Which two statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask (Choose two.) 1. The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored. 2. The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
Where should a standard access control list be placed? close to the destination
How do Cisco standard ACLs filter traffic? by source IP address
Which two statements are true regarding named ACLs? (Choose two.) 1. Names can be used to help identify the function of the ACL. 2. Certain complex ACLs, such as reflexive ACLs, must be defined with named ACLs.
Which two statements are true regarding the following extended ACL? (Choose two.) access-list 101 deny tcp any eq 20 access-list 101 deny tcp any eq 21 access-list 101 permit ip any any 1. FTP traffic originating from network is denied. 2. Web traffic originating from is permitted.
Which statement about standard ACLs is true? They should be placed as close to the destination as possible.
Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.) 1. protocol suite 2. source address 3. destination address
By default, how is IP traffic filtered in a Cisco router? permitted in and out of all interfaces
A network admin needs to allow tfc through the forward rtr for sessions that originate from within the company net, but the admin must block tfc for sessions that originate outside the network of the company. What type of ACL is most appropriate? reflexive
A technician is creating an ACL and needs a way to indicate only the subnet Which combination of network address and wildcard mask will accomplish the desired task?
Which three items must be configured before a dynamic ACL can become active on a router? (Choose three.) 1. extended ACL 2. authentication 3. Telnet connectivity
Which statement correctly describes Cisco access control lists (Choose two.) 1. Extended ACLs are created in int config mode. 2. Standard IP ACLs are numbered 1 to 99, and extended ACLs are numbered 100 to 199.
Which statement is a guideline to be followed when designing access control lists? Because ACLs are executed in order, they should be organized from the most specific condition to the most general.
What occurs if the network admin applies an IP ACL that has no permit statement outbound on an int? (Choose two.) 1. All tfc outbound is denied. 2. Only tfc originating from the rtr is allowed outbound.
Which solutions can be implemented with ACLs? (Choose two.) 1. Create a firewall on a rtr to filter inbound tfc from an external net. 2. Ctrl tfc entering or exiting different areas on a local net.
Cmd : Any Description: Represents an IP address and mask pair of
Cmd: show running-config Description: Reveals the ACLs and interface assignments on a rtr
Cmd: show access-list Description: Displays the contents of all ACLs on a rtr.
Cmd: host Description: Substitutes for the mask.
Cmd: show ip int Description: Indicates whether any ACLs are set on a rtr
Which IP add and w/c mask test for hosts from an entire subnet of net using a 29-bit mask?
What kind of ACL is created with the command ip access-list standard fastaccess Named ACL
An admin wants to implement lock-and-key access to a host within the company net for specific users who are connecting from outside the company network. What type of ACL would best suit the situation? Dynamic
What type of ACL should the net admin implement to limit Internet tfc during peak hours of the day? Time-based ACL
Which statement correctly descripes a reflexive ACL? An ACL that allows IP tfc for sessions originating from inside the network while denying tfc for sessions originating from the outside.
Which ACL checks only the source address. Standard
Which ACL uses access list numbers 100 to 199 Extended
Which ACL checks protocols and port numbers Extended
Which ACL permits/denies only entire protocols based on network address Standard
Which ACL uses access list numbers 1 to 99 Standard
Which ACL checks source and destination address Extended
Refer to the following config. Which statement best describes tfc on the net? acc-l 199 deny tcp any eq 23 acc-l 199 permit ip any any 1. All FTP tfc from net will be permitted. 2. Telnet will not be permitted from any hosts on net to any destination.
What are two Layer 2 WAN technologies that can provide secure remote connections between corporate branch offices? (Choose two.) 1. Frame Relay 2. leased lines
Which two OSI Layer 1 specifications does DOCSIS define for a cable Internet connection? (Choose two.) 1. channel bandwidth 2. modulation technique
Which medium is used for delivering data via DSL technology through PSTN? copper
A company is looking for the least expensive broadband solution that provides at least 10 Mb/s download speed. The company is located 5 miles from the nearest provider. Which broadband solution would be appropriate? cable
What are two characteristics of a PPPoE configuration on a Cisccustomer router? (Choose two.) 1. The PPP configuration is on the dialer interface. 2. The Ethernet interface does not have an IP address.
DOCSIS specifies the ”???“ sub-layer as a Layer 2 requirement that defines either a deterministic access method, TDMA, or S-CDMA. MAC
“???” creates a PPP tunnel through the DSL connection for the purpose of sending PPP frames. PPPoE
What functionality is required on routers to provide remote workers with VoIP and videoconferencing capabilities? QoS
Which broadband wireless technology is based on the 802.11 standard? Municipal Wi-Fi
Why is the MTU for a PPPoE DSL configuration reduced from 1500 bytes to 1492? To accommodate the PPPoE headers
Which standard specifies the channel frequencies and the deterministic access method of cable networks? DOCSIS
Which two network components does a teleworker require to connect remotely and securely from home to the corporate network? (Choose two.) 1. VPN client software or VPN-enabled router 2. Broadband Internet connection
In which layer of the TCP/IP protocol model does IPsec apply security to network data? Internet
Which cable network communication technology is secure, extremely resistant to noise, and employs spread-spectrum technology? S-CDMA
How is voice traffic affected when the customer uses ADSL technology? ADSL signals can distort voice transmissions.
Which technology provides a secure connection between a SOHO and the headquarters office? VPN
What are two characteristics of a PPPoE configuration on a Cisco customer router? (Choose two.) 1. The PPP configuration is on the dialer interface. 2. The Ethernet interface does not have an IP address.
What advantage does DSL have compared to cable technology? DSL is not a shared medium.
What are two disadvantages of employing teleworkers in an organization? (Choose two.) 1. increased difficulty of tracking task progress 2. the need to implement a new management style
Which DSL technology provides higher downstream bandwidth to the user than upstream bandwidth? ADSL
Which networking technology will ensure reliable and secure remote access when a teleworker connects to a corporate network? an encrypted VPN tunnel
Which broadband technology would be best for a user that needs remote access when traveling in mountains and at sea? satellite
Which type of long distance telecommunication technology provides point-to-point connections and cellular access? WiMax
What functionality is required on routers to provide remote workers with VoIP and videoconferencing capabilities? QoS
A company is looking for the least expensive broadband solution that provides at least 10 Mb/s download speed. The company is located 5 miles from the nearest provider. Which broadband solution would be appropriate? cable
A technician is attempting to explain broadband technology to a customer. Which description should he use to educate the customer? (Choose two.) 1. It uses a wide band of frequencies. 2. It offers sustained speeds of 128 kbps or more.
When accommodating a teleworker, which type of connection should be used when mobile access during traveling is required and broadband options are available? Dialup.
When comparing DOCSIS and Euro-DOCSIS, what is the primary difference between the two specs? Channel bandwidths
If asked to describe DSL technology, which statements would help the user develop a better understanding of the technology? (Choose three.) 1. ADSL typically has a higher download bandwidth than upload. 2. DSL speed can exceed the speed of a typical T1. 3. Transfer rates vary according to the length of the local loop.
In a DSL installation, which devices are installed at the customer site? (Choose two.) 1. Microfilter 2. DSL Transceiver
Which techniques can be used to secure the traffic sent over a VPN connection? (Choose two.) 1. Data encapsulation, used to transmit data transparently from net to net through a shared net infrastructure. 2. Data encryption.
What VPN characteristic uses passwords, digital certificates, smart cards and biometrics? Authentication
What VPN characteristic prevents tampering and alterations to dats while data travels between the source and destination? Data integrity.
What VPN characteristic protects the contents of messages from interception by unauthenticated or unauthorized sources? Data confidentiality.
What VPN characteristic uses hashes? Data integrity.
What VPN characteristic ensures that communicating peers are who they say they are? Authentication
What VPN characteristic uses encapsulation and encryption? Data confidentiality.
Which is an example of a tunneling protocol developed by Cisco? GRE
Which type of tunneling protocol uses frame relay, ATM, MPLS Carrier Protocol
Which type of tunneling protocol is the protocol that is wrapped around the original data? Encapsulating protocol.
Which type of tunneling protocol is the protocol over which the original data was being carried? Passenger protocol
Which type of tunneling protocol uses IPX, AppleTalk, IPV4 and IPV6? Passenger protocol
Which type of tunneling protocol uses GRE, IPSec, L2F, PPTP, L2TP? Encapsulating protocol.
Which type of tunneling protocol is the protocol over which the information travels? Carrier Protocol
Which algorithm has encryption and decryption use the same key? Symmetric
Which algorithm uses public key cryptography? Asymmetric
Which algorithm has encryption and decryption use different keys? Asymmetric
Which algorithm uses DES, 3DES and AES? Symmetric
Which algorithm uses RSA? Asymmetric
Which algorithm uses shared secret key cryptography? Symmetric
Which wireless std operates in both licensed and unlicensed bands of the spectrum from 2 to 6 GHz and allows for tx rates of 70 Mbps at a range of up to 50 km? 802.16
What do cable providers typically deploy to sp high-speed transmissions of data to SOHO cable modems? Hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC)
How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID? 64
Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks? 16
After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng? Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.
What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT? PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.) 1. It saves public IP addresses. 2. It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network? static NAT
A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions? Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.
A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem? Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.
Which statements are true about the DHCP server functions? (Choose two.) 1. Clients can be assigned an IP address from a predefined DHCP pool for a finite lease period. 2. DHCP provides clients with an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway and domain name.
Refer to the following config: R1(config)# ip dhcp pool What does the string after the ip dhcp pool command specify? Pool of IP addresses available for lease.
Which statements about DHCP are true (Choose three.) 1. DHCP messages use UDP as a transport protocol. 2. The DHCPOFFER message is sent by the DHCP server after receiving a DHCPDISCOVER message from a client. 3. DHCP uses ports 67 and 68.
If an admin chooses to avoid using NAT overload, what is the default timeout value for NAT translations? One day.
Which NAT characteristic provides one-to-one fixed mappings of local and global addresses? Static NAT
Which NAT characteristic assigns the translated address of IP hosts from a pool of public adresses? Dynamic NAT
Which NAT characteristic can map multiple addresses to a single address of the external interface? NAT with Overload
Which NAT characteristic assigns unique source port numbers of an inside global address on a session-by-session basis? NAT with Overload
Which NAT characteristic allows an external host to establish sessions with an internal host? Static NAT
Which NAT solution allows external users to access an internal FTP server on a private net? Static NAT
Which statement accurately describes the RIPng routing protocol? 1. RPIng has a limit of 15 hops. 2. RIPng uses poison reverse.
Which methods of assigning an IPv6 address to an int are automatic and can be used in conjunction with each other? 1. DHCPv6 2. Stateless autoconfiguration.
What IPv6 command specifies the DNS server used by the router? ip name-server
What IPv6 command defines a static hostname-to-address mapping ipv6 hostname
What IPv6 command configures a global IPv6 adress? ipv6 address
What IPv6 command enables IPv6 traffic forwarding between interfaces on the router? ipv6 unicast-routing
What IPv6 command enables RIPng routing on the router and identifies the RIP process? ipv6 router rip name
Given 2031:0000:0300:0000:00C0:8000:130B, which options are equivalent representations of the full IPv6 address? (Choose 3.) 1. 2031:0:300::C0:8000:130B 2. 2031:0:0300:0:0:C0:8000:130B 3. 2031::300:0:0:0C0:8000:130B
What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet
Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer? data link
A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated? (Choose two.) 1. transport layer 2. application layer
When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process? determining ownership
Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer? data link
Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling? bottom up
Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting? physical
Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next? application
Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.) 1. The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers. 2. The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.
Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.) 1. Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations. 2. Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
What is one example of a physical layer problem? incorrect clock rate
Clients are reporting poor performance. Internet access and applications running across the WAN are performing normally. The net admin sees a continual broadcast of jabber on the app svr LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. Now what The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes? baselining tool
A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments? network analyzer
Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.) 1. interface identifiers 2. DLCI for virtual circuits
Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.) 1. information about the network design 2. expected performance under normal operating conditions
Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.) 1. Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions. 2. Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event. 3. Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.
Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command? Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
In which type of diagram will you find a cable type? A physical diagram.
In which type of diagram will you find an IP address and subnet? A logical diagram.
In which type of diagram will you find a connection type? A logical diagram.
In which type of diagram will you find a device ID? A logical diagram.
In which type of diagram will you find the OS version? A physical diagram.
In which type of diagram will you find the device type and model? A physical diagram.
In which type of diagram will you find the routing protocols? A logical diagram.
In which type of diagram will you find the connector type? A physical diagram.
What is one symptom of a physical layer problem? High CPU utilization.
A net admin receives the output "S0 is ip, line protocol is down" from the show int s0 cmd. At what layer is the problem most likely being caused? Data link layer.
Which statement is true about network models? Both users and app layer processes interact with software apps that contain a communications component in the OSI model.
Which protocols can be involved in network layer problems? (Choose three.) 1. EIGRP 2. IP 3. RIP
Which port is associated with FTP? 20 and 21
Which port is associated with HTTP? 80
Which port is associated with POP3? 110
Which port is associated with SMTP? 25
Which port is associated with SNMP? 161
Which port is associated with Telnet? 23
A technician has been asked to t/s a simple net problem that seems to be caused by software. Which t/s approach would you recommend? top-down
Which questions are appropriate to ask when gathering information from a user? (Choose three.) 1. What does work? 2. When did you first notice the problem? 3. When did the problem first occur?
Which network t/s tool can you use to test the physical medium for defects, such as near-end crosstalk? Cable analyser
Which documents are needed to efficiently diagnose and correct network problems? (Choose three.) 1. Network configuration tables. 2. Network topology diagrams. 3. End-system configuration tables.
What are the steps for establishing a net baseline? (Choose three.) 1. Determine the types of data to be collected and evaluated. 2. Identify the devices and ports to be monitored. 3. Determine the duration for baseline testing to establish a typical picture of the network .
What is associated with the first step of correcting application layer problems? Making a backup of configurations.
Created by: evilfrosty