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CDC's 5 lvl vol. 1

QuestionAnswer
What three categories does training fall into? initial, recurring, and recertification.
Who will administer training for certification? The CP training manager
Who is the focal point for the CP training program? The CP training manager
Who receives initial training? Controllers without CP console experience within the past two years
Which two phases of training must you be certified? phase 1(console operations) and phase 2, (emergency actions [EA])
What is the minimum passing score for all written phase examinations? 90 critiqued to 100
What other training are you entered into at the same time as initial training? upgrade training (UGT) using the 1C3 CFETP
What type of training ensures that controllers remain knowledgeable in all areas pertinent to their unit’s mission? Recurring training
What are the three categories of recurring training? • Formal training. • Self-study training. • Proficiency training.
What training category does the “training meeting” fall under? Formal training.
What does proficiency training evaluation consist of? Certified personnel are administered a semi-annual performance evaluation covering “performance” and “knowledge” based subtasks identified on the ATP. Performance evaluation scripts contain a minimum of five situations and progressive in nature when possible. Evaluations are not conducted on the console.
What is the minimum passing score for monthly written test? A 90 percent score (critiqued to 100%)
How will performance evaluations be rated? either “satisfactory” (SAT)or “unsatisfactory” (UNSAT)
What is the purpose of recertification training? It is designed to teach controllers with prior CP experience (within the past two years); It is also used to recertify controllers who have not performed CP duties in 60 or more calendar days in their respective command.
What three different reasons will you be entered into recertification training? • Permanent change of station (PCS). • Tour of duty (TDY). • Decertification for cause.
Who completes initial or recertification certification training within 90 calendar days from the date entered training? Active duty, full-time ARC, or traditional reservist (TR) CP controllers
Who must interview assigned controllers prior to their certification? The certifying official
Who is authorized to recertify controllers who are absent for 60 days or more, performing command post related duties. The CP chief
How soon must a work center orientation be completed after arrival to your new duty station? within 60 calendar days
What two valuable resources do you have to assist you in your on the job training? CDCs and the CFETP
What contains the fundamental job knowledge required for OJT UGT? The CDC
What is a comprehensive education and training document that identifies life-cycle education/training requirements, training support, resources, and minimum core task requirements for a specialty? The Career field education and training plan (CFETP)
At what skill level can you expect to fill various supervisory and management positions and take courses to obtain added knowledge on management of resources and personnel? Craftsman (7-skill level)
What form is used by supervisors and trainers to maintain a cumulative record of an individual’s training progress? AF Form 623
What type of publications are necessary to meet the requirements of law, safety, security, or other areas where common direction and standardization benefit the Air Force? Directive publications
What website are publications that are processed by the Air Force Departmental Publishing Office (AFDPO) accessible through? E-publishing website
Which publication provides essential procedural guidance necessary to implement Air Force policy in the field? Air Force instructions
Which publication is separate supporting documents referenced in the basic instruction that provide detailed procedural guidance/steps necessary to accomplish a task/operation? Checklists
What type of publication suggests guidance, which can be modified to fit circumstances? Nondirective publications
When a publication is rewritten and new copies are distributed, the new edition is referred to as a? revision
What are two of the most common types of publications you will use in the CP? checklists and OIs
What publication outlines actions to be taken in response to emergencies, abnormal or recurring circumstances, to implement LERTCON actions (i.e., EAMs), or to implement an OPORD or OPLAN requirements? Checklists
How many sets of identical QRCs must be on hand? A minimum of three complete, identical sets of QRCs
What type of checklist is not routine or time sensitive in nature? Controller basic checklists (CBC)
In which checklist would you find the requirement for an emergency lighting test? Controller shift checklists
How are controllers advised of checklist changes? Controllers are advised of checklist changes by CIF.
What type of publication is developed when the situation cannot be completely covered by a QRC? Operating instructions (OI’s)
Who normally appoints a SI monitor to manage the program? The CP chief
How often must the SI be accomplished? at least semi-annually, not earlier than (NET) 60 days, and not later than (NLT) 30 days prior to a MAJCOM staff assistance visit/functional assistance visit (SAV/FAV).
Who must you report all findings during the SI to? report all findings to the CP management after completion
How do you identify the root cause and countermeasures to deficiencies during the SI process? AF Smart Operations 21 (AFSO21)
Where must you keep a current copy of the most recent IG, SAV, and C2R reports (as applicable)? SI continuity binder
Who must train all individuals receiving initial or recertification training? A certified controller.
Who periodically reviews the trainee progress in initial or recertification training and evaluates feedback to ensure training remains effective? Command post chief or superintendent.
Once you have entered initial training, you will also be entered into upgrade training (UGT).
What are the three categories of recurring training? Formal training, self-study training, and proficiency training.
What do training managers use to outline that month’s training requirements based on the annual training plan (ATP)? Self-study letter.
Proficiency training consists of performance evaluations and scenario training.
What months will semiannual performance evaluations be administered to certified personnel? March and September.
Within how many duty days are you retested after failing a monthly written test? Five.
If you receive an “UNSAT” on your performance evaluation, within how many calendar days are you reevaluated for failing an initial performance evaluation? 10.
What training actions are required when controllers have not performed command and control (C2) duties in their respective command for 60 or more calendar days? Receive recertification training.
What number of calendar days will controllers be entered into initial or recertification training prior to reporting for duty? 15.
How many calendar days do active duty and air reserve components personnel have to complete initial or recertification training? 90.
What percentage is the minimum passing score for certification tests covering phase 1 (console operations) and phase 2 (emergency actions)? 90%.
Who certifies controllers at the major command (MAJCOM) level? MAJCOM commander.
Within how many calendar days of your arrival to a new duty station should you expect a work center orientation briefing? 60.
Within how many calendar days of your arrival to a new duty station should you expect an initial training evaluation? 60.
What type of on-the-job training (OJT) does career development courses (CDC) provide? Job knowledge.
Which training plan identifies life-cycle education and training requirements, training support, resources, and minimum core task requirements for a specialty? Career field education and training plan (CFETP).
What part of the career field education and training plan (CFETP) identifies the most common tasks of an enlisted Air Force specialty (AFS) on which trainees must be trained? Specialty training standard (STS).
What are the categories of Air Force publications? Directive and nondirective.
What type of publications is necessary to meet the requirements of law, safety, security, or other areas where common direction and standardization benefit the Air Force? Directive.
Which publication provides essential procedural guidance necessary to implement Air Force policy in the field? Air Force Instructions (AFI).
Air Force activities add organization-specific guidance to higher headquarters publications by developing and issuing supplements.
If command post quick reaction checklists (QRC) can prescribe complete actions, an operating instruction (OI) covering that action is not required.
During quick reaction checklist construction, telephone notifications are limited. The maximum number of initial notifications per checklist does not exceed ten per controller.
Shift changeover checklists are developed and maintained to ensure oncoming command post (CP) controllers complete all required actions prior to assuming duty.
What publication contains complete information to accomplish a specific task involved and references all applicable publications and background materials (policy directives, instructions,operator’s manuals, etc.)? Operating instruction (OI).
What program is a formal system that ensures all aspects of administrative, operational, and management programs are being run according to the applicable governing directives? Self-inspection program.
When conducting self-inspections, you must perform major command (MAJCOM)approved self-inspections at least semi-annually.
Define official information. information owned by, produced by, or subject to control by the US government.
Name the two groups of official information. classified and unclassified
What are the three prerequisites in disseminating classified defense information? need-to-know (NTK), that have been granted a security clearance, and have the proper identification.
Who should you ask if you are in doubt as to whether or not someone is eligible for access to classified information? talk to your supervisor.
How are categories of classified items established? according to their degree of importance.
What are the three categories of classified information? Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential.
What is top secret information? national security information or material that requires the highest degree of protection. Unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to national security.
What is secret information? refers to national security information that requires a substantial degree of protection. Unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to national security.
What is confidential information? refers to national security information or material that requires protection. Unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause identifiable damage to national security.
What are EFTO messages. Encrypt for transmission only (EFTO); Use this designator on messages to protect unclassified information that doesn’t qualify for security classification but still needs some protection during the transmission process.
What are SPECAT messages? classified messages identified with a special project or subject.
NC2-ESI stands for what? nuclear command and control extremely sensitive information
Define controlled unclassified information.official information that does not require security safeguards, but its disclosure may be subject to control for other reasons. Such information includes, but is not limited to, special orders, Air Force pamphlets (AFPAM), Air Force manuals (AFMAN), and Air Force instructions (AFI).
What does FOUO mean? labeled for official use only (FOUO), and it must be withheld from widespread public distribution.
Explain “possible intelligence value.” Unclassified information that when associated with other unclassified information reveals an insight into (or the specifics of) classified plans, programs, or operations becomes of possible intelligence value.
What should you do if you cannot decide whether a piece of unclassified information you are about to reveal is of possible intelligence value? don’t reveal anything
Created by: Ragga340