click below
click below
Normal Size Small Size show me how
SB82 Stomach
SB82 Stomach - loosely taken from Fiser's ABSITE review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is the normal stomach transit time? | 3-4 hours |
| Peristalsis occurs only in what portion of the stomach? ________ | Distal |
| What arteries supply blood to the lesser curvature of the stomach? | Right and left gastrics |
| What arteries supply blood to the greater curvature of the stomach? | Right and left gastroepiploics, short gastrics |
| What artery supplies blood to the pylorus? _____________ | Gatroduodenal artery |
| Where does the fundus end? | At a horizontal line through the GE junction |
| What substance is secreted by the cardia glands? ___________ | Mucus |
| At what pH are oxyntic cells activated best? | 2.5 |
| What is the first enzyme active in proteolysis? ___________ | Pepsinogen |
| What cell type secretes the first enzymes active in proteolysis? ______________ | Chief cells |
| What enzyme is activated by histamine to initiate acid release? _____________ | Adenylate cyclase |
| What enzyme is activated by acetylcholine and gastrin to initiate acid release? __________ | Phospholipase |
| What substances inhibit parietal cells? | Somatostatin, PGE-1, secretin, CCK |
| What substance binds vitamin B12 and allows its resorption in the terminal ileum? ________ | Intrinsic factor |
| Why is an antrectomy helpful to resolve gastric ulcers? | It removes the portion of the stomach that contains G cells, which release gastrin (normally causes increased acid release) |
| Gastrin release is stimulated by what two substances? | Amino acids, acetylcholine |
| The antrum contains cells that release what two main GI hormones? | Gastrin from G cells, somatostatin from D cells |
| What are the main causes of rapid gastric emptying? | Previous surgery, ZES, ulcers |
| These large collections of fiber within the stomach are more prevalent in diabetics with poor gastric emptying ___________ | phytobezoars |
| Vascular malformation in the stomach ______________ | Dieulafoy’s ulcer |
| A stomach disorder characterized by mucous cell hyperplasia and increased rugal folds _________ | Menetrier’s disease |
| Gastric volvulus is associated with what type of hernia? ___________ | Type II (paraesophageal) |
| Where is the stomach tear located in Mallory Weiss tear? | Near the lesser curvature |
| Where does the nerve of Latarjet terminate? | Terminates as the “crow’s foot” near the incisura angularis |
| What is the difference between a truncal vagotomy and a highly-selective vagotomy? | Truncal vagotomy divides the vagal trunks at the level of the esophagus (decreased emptying of solids), and a HSV divides the nerves of Latarjet but preserve the “crow’s foot” (normal emptying of solids) |
| What procedure can you perform to improve emptying of solids after any vagotomy? _________ | Pyloroplasty |
| What is the most common problem following vagotomy? _____________ | Diarrhea (30-50%) |
| What is the pathophysiology of diarrhea after vagotomy? | Sustained MMCs force bile acids into the colon |
| What is the most important factor of continued or recurrent bleeding with upper GI bleed? | Presence of bleeding at the time of EGD |
| What is the most frequent type of peptic ulcer? ____________ | Duodenal |
| What is the most common location of duodenal ulcers? ____________ | First part of the duodenum |
| Anterior duodenal ulcers ______________ (perforate / bleed) | Perforate |
| Posterior duodenal ulcers ______________ (perforate / bleed) | Bleed |
| Symptoms of duodenal ulcer | Epigastric pain radiating to the back that abates with eating but returns 30 minutes later |
| A patient appears to have complicated ulcer disease difficult to control with medication. What disease process do you suspect? _________ | Gastrinoma |
| What is the best surgery to prevent recurrence of a duodenal ulcer refractory to medical management? | Truncal vagotomy and antrectomy with Billroth I or II |
| Surgical management of bleeding duodenal ulcer | 1st duodenostomy with GDA ligation |
| Eighty percent of patients with perforated duodenal ulcer will have this finding ___________ | Perforation |
| What can cause pain in the pericolic gutters after duodenal ulcer perforation? | Dependency of gastric drainage |
| Intractability of duodenal ulcers is defined as what? | No relief after 3 months of PPI therapy, or recurrence of ulcer within one year after medical therapy |
| Diagnostic test for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome ___________ | Secretin stimulation test results in HIGH gastrin level (usually gastrin is suppressed by secretin) |
| Enucleation can be performed for ZES pancreatic tumors of what size? | < 2 cm |
| What are the 4 types of gastric ulcers? | Type I – lesser curvature; Type II – lesser curvature and duodenum; Type III – prepyloric; Type IV – lesser curvature along the cardia; Type V – Ulcer associated with NSAIDs |
| Type A blood is associated with what type of gastric ulcer? | Type I (lesser curvature) |
| Stress gastritis occurs within what time frame? | 3-10 days after stressful event |
| What is the initial treatment for stress gastritis? ____________ | PPI |
| Refractory bleeding from stress gastritis may be controlled through __________ | Selective angiography with vasopressin injection |
| Location of Type A chronic gastritis ________ | Fundus |
| Type A chronic gastritis is associated with what diseases? | Pernicious anemia and autoimmune diseases |
| Location of Type B chronic gastritis ___________ | Antrum |
| Type B chronic gastritis is associated with what disease? ____________ | H. pylori infection |
| What portion of the stomach has 40% of gastric cancers? __________ | Antrum |
| A patient has adenomatous stomach polyps. What is his risk of gastric cancer? ___________ | 10-20% |
| Drop metastases from stomach cancer to the ovaries ____________ | Krukenberg tumor |
| What margins do you need for gastric cancer resection? __________ | 5 cm |
| Most common benign gastric neoplasm _________ | GIST tumor |
| Indications for surgical resection of GIST tumor | > 5 cm or > 5-10 mitoses per high-powered field |
| Margins for GIST tumor resection | 1 cm |
| Chemotherapy for GIST tumors __________ | Gleevec |
| What is the mechanism of action of the chemotherapeutic agent used in GIST tumor treatment? | Tyrosine kinase inhibitor |
| How do gastric leiomyosarcomas spread? __________ | Hematogenously |
| What is the most commonly involved organ in extranodal lymphoma? ____________ | Stomach |
| MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoma) usually resolves after what intervention? ____________ | H. pylori eradication |
| Roux-en-Y gastric bypasses may result in these six complications | Marginal ulcers, leak, necrosis, B12 deficiency, iron-deficiency anemia, gallstones |
| What is the most common cause of failure after gastric bypass? | High carbohydrate snacking |
| What percentage of patients develop marginal ulcers after gastric bypass? | 10% |
| Treatment for stenosis of anastomosis following gastric bypass ___________ | Serial dilation |
| What is the pathphysiology of dumping syndrome? | Rapid transit of carbohydrates into the small bowel, causing fluid shifts and sudden release of insulin |
| A patient complains of postprandial epigastric pain, nausea, and vomiting. EGD with biopsy shows gastritis and evidence of bile reflux. What is the likely diagnosis? | Alkaline reflux gastritis |
| What is the initial treatment of alkaline reflux gastritis? | PPI, cholestyramine, metoclopramide |
| Surgical treatment for refractory alkaline reflux gastritis | Conversion ot Billrot I or II to Roux-en-Y |
| Roux limbs should be what length to reduce the risk of roux stasis? | > 40 cm |
| Delayed gastric emptying after vagotomy __________ | Chronic gastric atony |
| Treatment for delayed gastric emptying after vagotomy | Near-total gastrectomy with Roux-en-Y |
| Treatment for duodenal stump blowout | Duodenostomy with drains |
| Treatment for efferent loop obstruction __________ | Balloon dilation |