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131118-2

TWO

TermDefinition
What surface touches the rwy? Primary Surface
What surfaces touch the Primary? Transitional and ADCS
What surface touches the transitional? Primary, ADCS, Inner, Conical, and Outer
What surface is the highest? Outer
What surface touches the ADCS? Primary, Transitional, and Outer
What surface touches the Inner? Transitional and Conical
What surface touches the Outer? ADCS and Conical
What sloping surfaces only extend at right angles (90 deg) to the rwy? transitional and ADSC sloped section
What surfaces border/connect to 2 other surfaces? primary and inner
What surfaces border/connect to 3 other surfaces? ADCS, Conical, and Outer
What surfaces border/connect to 4 other surfaces? none
What surfaces border/connect to 5 other surfaces? Transitional
What surfaces border/connect to 6 other surfaces? none
What imaginary surface touches the most surfaces? Transitional
What surfaces entail a radial component? Inner, Conical, and Outer
Does the inner intersect the ADCS? no
Does the conical intersect the ADCS? no
Does the outer touch the ADCS? yes, only the flat section
When in a radial section, what movement allows for greatest increase of surface elevation? radial and diagonal
What is the slope of the ADSC? 50 to 1
What is the slope of the Transitional? 7 to 1
What is the slope of the Conical? 20 to 1
What is the maximum height of the Outer? 500 plus EAE
Where would you find the maximum elevation between two surfaces? at the exact point the lower surface intersects with the next higher surface
Where would you find the minimum elevation between two surfaces? at the exact point the surface intersects with the next lower surface
How long is a class A rwy? less than 8,000 feet
To be a class A rwy what percentage of their operations involve class B acft? less than 10%
How wide is a class b rwy? 150 feet or 300 feet
How wide are the shoulders for class B? 200 feet
How wide are the paved portions of class B shoulders? 10-25 feet
What is length of a class B overrun? 1,000 feet paved
What is width of a class B overrun for B-52s? 700 feet
What is the width of a class B overrun for F-22s? 550 feet
Whats the equation to get the width of an overrun? sum of runway and shoulders
Whats the paved width of an overrun? the rwy width
What is the width of the primary surface at the starting point of the primary surface? 200 feet
What is the mnemonic device for the transverse ways? (hint XX XX XX...) IS PH MR RR WW T 17 15 10 23 HO 10 (FAR Part 77)
Does the conical surface intersect the approach-departure clearance surface? No; only the transitional, primary, and the outer horizontal do.
Does the inner horizontal surface intersect the approach-departure clearance surface? No; only the transitional, primary, and the outer horizontal do.
Keyword in question "Maxium Clearance" Whenever asked for the maxium clearance in a question use the EAE which is always the highest elevation.
Keyword in question "Greatest Violation" Whenever asked for the greatest violation in a question use the lowest elevation known.
"Runway Edge" When provided with the runway edge and not the distance from the object to the runway centerline distance, add 1/2 of the runway width to the lateral distance.
When the object's height is lower than the end elevation When the object's height is lower than the ending elevationof that surface, then the object can stay in that surface.
What are the dimensions of the POFZ? 200 feet long and 800 feet wide (400 feet each side of the extended runway centerline).
Base Civil Engineers will program _________ ______ as part of the normal planning and programming process and site replacement facilities outside the clear zone. replacement facilities
Livestock grazing (excluding feed and dairy lots) is an example of an allowed use for the clear zone.
What are the 7 allowed uses for the clear zone? 1) Agriculture 2) Livestock grazing 3) Permanent open space 4) Existing or new water ways 5) rights of way for single track railroads and fenced, two-lane highways without sidewalks or bicycle trails 6) Utilities 7) Navigational aids
AFH 32-7084 recommends a ____ foot buffer for structures that are near the approach-departure surface and/or transitional surfaces. 10 Feet
Name the zone: Dimensions 200 Feet long and 800 feet wide (400 feet each side of the extended runway centerline. Precision Obstacle Free Zone (POFZ)
There are three reasons why the POFZ would be active and/or protected. What are they? 1) Vertical guided approaches 2) Weather ceilings below 250' and or vis below 3/4 SM 3) Aircraft within 2 mile final
Wingtips may violate this area but not tails or fuselages POFZ
The _______ is required to be clear of all objects, except for frangible visual air navigation facilities and aircraft wingtips POFZ
An object is an obstruction to airspace if it is a height of ______ feet AGL. 499
A height of 200' AGL or above the EAE, whichever is higher, within 3 NM of the established reference point of an airfield whose runway is more than 3200 feet long are examples of? Obstructions to airspace
This height increases in proportion of _____ feet for each additional NM up to _____ feet. 100;500
All of these have a width of 75 feet? Taxiways
You are on a taxiway that is paved 175 from shoulder to shoulder. What aircraft operates on this airfield? B-52s (50' x 2 paved shoulders + 75 Foot Taxiway =175 feet)
All taxiways have ____ ft shoulders whether paved or unpaved 50
What is the distance between taxiway centerline and parallel taxiway/taxilane centerlines for an airfield that primary operates fighter size aircraft? 237.5 feet
F16s require that ____ feet of their shoulders be paved out of the 50 feet total width of the shoulder 10 feet (trainers too)
KC135s, KC10s, KC-130s and P-3 aircraft all require that _____ of their 50 foot shoulders are this? Half; and paved (25 ft unpaved & 25 feet paved)
Which would be used for the distance between a taxiway centerline and a parallel taxi lane centerline? 237.5 or 272.8 (wingspan of a B-52 + 50 feet) 272.8 because it is greater.
By adding 5 feet to both sides of the outside gear width of an aircraft, you have determined what? The width of that aircraft's tow way.
A piece of AGE is located 25 feet from the centerline of a tow way for a fighter with a wingspan of 33 feet. Is this AGE too close to the centerline? If so, how far should it be to the edge? Yes; at least 60 feet (UFC 3-260-01 Table 5-6 pp149) Rule- 1/2 wingspan + 25 feet or min of 60 feet.
This area is 1000' in length, 2000' wide, and exists in the clear zone. The graded area.
This area is to be clear of grubbed stumps, free of abrupt surface irregularities, ditches, ponding, above ground structures, objects, and/or roadways. The graded area.
These areas possess a high potential for accidents and their use is restricted so its use will be compatible with aircraft operations Runway Clear Zones (UFC 3-260-01 pp 85 3-11)
These zones have a width of 3,000 feet The Clear Zone, the Accident Potential Zone I, and the Accident Potential Zone II (UFC 3-260-01 Table 3-5 and 3-6)
Whose has the approval authority for waiver requests for marking deviations, including application of non-standard markings. MAJCOM Director of Operations (AFI 32-1043 2.1)
These are not defined within any Air Force, Department of Transportation (FAA and Federal Highway Administration [FHWA]), ICAO, ASCC, or NATO standard appropriate for application at the given installation. Non-standard markings (AFI 32-1043 2.1)
________________ ________________ may exempt objects (that is marking obstructions) penetrating the airfield’s imaginary surfaces for non-joint use airfields. Installation Commanders (AFI 32-1043 2.3)
True or false: the installation commander may exempt obstructions from obstruction marking requirements at joint-use airfields False (AFI32-1043 2.3)
This is maintained by the aircraft in the form of a glide path required obstacle clearance (ROC)
Which is higher 34:1 or 50:1 34:1
An existing (including mobile objects) is and a future object would be, an obstruction to air navigation if it is higher than any of the heights or surfaces listed in FAR Part 77 and the surfaces described in UFC 3-260-01 Obstructions to Air Navigation (UFC 3-260-01 3-15)
An object is 499 feet AGL. Is it an obstruction to airspace? Yes
There is an object that is above the EAE and is located within 3NM of the established reference point of an airfield that has a runway 3200 ft long. Is this object an obstruction to airspace. Yes it is
Complete this chart: At 4 mile : 300' At 5 mile: _____ At 6 mile: 499' 400'
______ AGL or above EAE within 3 NM of Airport Reference Point. Increase ______ for each additional mile 200'/100'
This is the designated geographical location of an airfield. It is as near to the geometric center of the landing area as possible. Airfield Reference Point (ARP)
The LAT/Long listed in the IFR supplement is the _____ _____ ______ Airfield Reference Point (ARP)
Complete this formula: When an object is within 3 NM of the ARP, add _____ ft to either the ground elevation or the established airfield elevation whichever is _________. This gives you the MSL SFC. 200/Greater
Compare the MSL OBJ to this to find if the object that is located within 3 NM violates air navigation MSL SFC (200' + GE or EAE [whichever is greater)
There is a tower that is located 3.75 NM from the ARP. The GE is 256 and the EAE is 344. What is the MSL SFC? (375-100) + 344 = 619
_____ provide for ground movement of fixed- and rotary-wing aircraft. _______ connect the runways of the airfield with the parking and MX areas and provide access to hangars, docks, and various parking aprons and pads. Taxiways (UFC 3-260-01 5-2)
This is a route that goes through an apron. Taxilane (UFC 3-260-01 5-3.5)
These are only required at aviation facilities that do not serve large transport aircraft Fillets at runway-taxiway and taxiway-taxiway intersections (UFC 3-260-01 5-8.1)
The primary surface's lateral limits coincide with this zone's lateral limits. The runway lateral clearance zone (UFC 3-260-01 pp57 Rule 12)
The runway lateral clearance ends coincide with what the runway ends (UFC 3-260-01 pp57)
The ground surface for this zone must be clear of fixed or mobile objects, and graded to the requirements of table 3-2 items 13 and 14 Runway Lateral Clearance Zone
Between 1968 and 1972 this clear zone witnessed the majority of the accidents in the Air Force The clear zone with 144 of 39.0% (AFH 32-7084)
All structures placed or constructed within the airfield environment must be __________ ( to the maximum extent practicable) or placed below _________ Frangible; grade (UFC 3-260-01 B13-2.2)
Security forces wants to build a fence on your airfield. What do you tell them? (UFC 3-260-01 B13-2.20.2.10.) No fence or barricade shall penetrate the primary or approach-departure clearance surfaces or the graded area of the clear zone. Penetrations to the 7:1 are allowed without waiver for property line fences if there is no impact to existing or planned TERPs
The _______ ________ ________ is 3000' long and 500' wide centered on the extended runway centerline. Mandatory Frangibility Zone (MFZ)
All items located in the mandatory frangibility zone in he graded area of the clear zone must be ________. Items located beyond the Graded Area of the clear zone but within the MFZ must be constructed to be _____, _____ ______-________ structures, or...? Frangible; frangible, low impact-resistant, or semi-frangible
A frangible support supporting element with a fracture mechanism at its base.
Low impact resistant support A support for elevated fixtures or other devices to present a minimum mass and to break with a minimum resistance. Normally supports lights
Semi-frangible support A two-element support for light fixtures or other devices designed for use in applications where the mounting height is over 40 ft, over water.
Base Civil Engineers ensure that airfield markings Comply with AFI 32-1042 and ETL 04-2(AFI 32-1042 2.4)
Does Airfield Management create the schedule to remark the airfield and vehicular access roadways No; BCE does that (AFI 32-1042 2.4)
Use what color to hide extraneous markings that cannot be removed without damaging the pavement and to _________ __________ Black; outline markings.
What color must be used on all runway markings? What are the four exceptions to this? Retro-reflective white. 1) Displaced threshold arrowheads, 2) Aircraft arresting system warning markings, 3) Runway shoulder markings (deceptive surfaces), 4) closed runway markings
What color paint can be used to outline markings with a 6-inch wider border on light colored pavement? Black paint
Use retro-reflective beads except on... Secondary Taxiways and Aprons, Overrun Chevrons, closed pavement markings, or shoulder (deceptive surfaces).
When can striated markings be painted? When the runway is not category II or III, when the marking is 3 feet or wider.
This person may authorize additional markings. The installation commander
____-______ markings must be approved by the MAJCOM/DO, publicized in FLIPs and must not interfere with standard markings Non-standard markings
This type of runway is marked with a centerline, designation numbers, aircraft arresting system markings, runway hold positions, overruns, and fixed distance markings. Basic/VFR runway markings (AFI 32-1042 7.4)
When the runway is a non-precision instrument approach runway expand the centerline width ____ ft and mark this? 3 feet/thresholds (in addition to designation numbers, aircraft arresting system warning markings, runway hold positions, overruns, and fixed distance.
The precision approach runway includes side stripes, touchdown zone markings, and instrument hold lines.
For taxiway markings the centerline, holding positions, closed pavement, and ______ access roadways and stop bars must be marked. vehicular
Use _______ _______ if you cannot distinguish the paved taxiway shoulders from the operational surfaces or if the paved shoulder is wider than the standard dimensions. Edge stripes
Interrupt taxiway markings 3 FT from either side of these markings Runway markings and holding position markings. They have precedence over other markings. (AFI32-1042 8.4.1.)
These markings have precedence over other markings Runway markings and holding position markings (AFI32-1042 8.4.1.)
Where taxiway centerline markings meet threshold marking or numbers, interrupt the taxiway markings ____ feet short of the higher priority marking. 5 Feet
This nose wheel guidline's curve is ______ to a line parellel to and _____ feet from the near side of the runway centerline marking, and extends _______ feet beyond the point of tangency. Tangent; 3; 200
These markings may deviate a maximum of ____ percent over standards. new markings; 10
When painting over an old marking, ____ percent of over spray is allowed. 20 Percent
FAA AC 70/7460-1 outlines the requirements for marking and lighting hazards to air navigation, which ______ __ ______ ____ ______. penetrates an airfield's imaginary surface.
Do not mark obstructions _______ by surrounding objects if you've marked the surrounding objects. shielded (AFI32-1042 11)
If ______ _______ _________ must be opened to operations before being allowed to fully cure, apply temporary markings. Remark at the normal application rate after the pavement is _____ days old a new pavement surface; 30 days (ETL 04-2 5.3.1.2.)
Ensure paint buildup does not exceed ______ inchs within _____ on either side of the aircraft arresting system pendant. .125; 200 feet (ETL 5.3.5.)
Do not use these lines to identfy the edge of the usable pavement Runway side stripes (ETL 04-02 6.5)
If there is a lack of contrast between the load-bearing surface and the shoulder, use _____ ______ (________ ______) on the non-load bearing surface. shoulder markings (deceptive surface)(ETL 04-02 6.5)
These markings are 3 feet long and 1 foot wide. They are painted to indicate the intended location for aircraft nose wheel when parked. Stop blocks [retro-reflective yellow 3ft long X 1 foot wide] (ETL 04-02 7.1.2.)
These markings are necessary on all pavements that leas to an active runway or helipad. Holding positions
These holding position markings are located anywhere from 100-250 feet from the near edge of the runway. VFR Runway holding positions
These markings are designed to protect critical areas for airfields that have runways served by precision instrument navigation aids. Instrument Holding Position (ETL 04-02 7.2.2.)
If the height above touchdown (HAT) is ______ FT or greater, mark the instrument holding position at the edge of the glide slope critical area. 200 FT (ETL04-02 7.2.2.1.)
If the height above touchdown (HAT) is less than _____ FT, mark the holding position at the edge of the touchdown area or the glideslope critical area, which ever is farther from the edge of the runway. 200 FT (ETL 04-02 7.2.2.1.)
For an airfield that primarily services aircraft with wingspans of 79 - 171 feet, place the VFR runway holding position ____ feet from near runway edge. 175 feet (ETL 04-02) 7.2.1.)
Where would you place the VFR holding position for an airfield that services C-5 aircraft and the elevation is 6400 ft? 250 ft(C-5's wingspan is 222.7 feet~205 ft from the near edge min. + 64 feet= 269 Feet; however 250 FT is the max this marking can be)
Increase the distance of this marking by 1 ft for each 100 feet of airfield elevation above sea level. VFR Runway Holding position (ETL 04-02 7.2.1.)
When able, collocate these two markings. The VFR hold line and the Instrument holding positions.
This marking should be on the left and runway side. INST Marking
The INST marking should be on the left and runway side. For hold lines over 200 feet long, mark "INST" designator at intervals not exceeding ______ FT. 150
This category runway is served by an ILS, MLS, or PAR and visual aids intedned for operations down to 200 feet decision height and down to a RVR on the order of 2400 feet. Category I (AFI 32-1044 pp10)
This category of runway is served by an ILS or MSL, or a par and visual aids intended for operations down to 100 feet decision height and RVR of 1200 feet. Category II (AFI 32-1044 pp10)
This category of runway has no decision height requirements Category III (AFI 32-1044 pp10)
What three actions should be taken for an obstruction? 1) Mark it 2) Light it 3) Publish it in the FLIP
This exceeds heights, effects procedures and penetrates imaginary surfaces Obstruction
Any object that does or will penetrate an OCS, or clearance requirement for specific flight procedures. Obstacle
A "_________ ___________" is when a flight procedure is designed around that obstacle as the limiting factor. Controlling Obstacle
This is an obstruction or other object that would have a substantial adverse effect to a significant volume of aeronautical operations. Hazard
The elevation of the primary surface is the same as the elevation of the nearest point on the runway centerline
Protect these areas in accordance with the AOI. Precision Approach Critical Areas
Establish touchdown zone areas only when the height above threshold (HATh) is than _______ FT for either an ILS/MMLS or PAR approach. 200
Which agency is authorized to define criteria for protection of precision approach critical areas at military controlled airports The DOD
What are the dimensions of the localizer critical area? Length 2050' Width 400' (AFI 13-204 V3 Chapter 7)
This agency is the waiver authority for protection of critical areas at USAF locations MAJCOM/A3s (AFI 13-204 V3 Chapter 7)
The authority to waive the protection of critical areas may be delegated down to this person only The Wing Commander (AFI 13-204 V3 Chapter 7)
This fan shaped area extends from the glideslope antenna 1,300 feet toward the approach end of the runway or to the end of the runway whichever is greater. The Glideslope Critical Area (AFI 13-204 V3 Chapter 7)
The GlideSlope Critical Area covers an area _____ degrees each side of a line drawn through the glideslope antenna and parallel to the runway centerline. 30 Degrees (AFI 13-204 V3 Chapter 7)
This area is 3200 feet long by 1,000 feet wide. It is a rectangle centered on the runway centerline. It begins 200 feet outward from the landing threshold (normal or displaced) and extends 3200 feet toward the direction of landing Touchdown Area. (Only establish if the HATh is above 200 feet) (AFI 13-204 V3 Chapter 7)
Mark this area using normal instrument holding position markings. POFZ
These must be located on full strength pavement but no more than 3 ft inward from the edge Taxiway Edge Stripes
When there is little contrast between the taxiway or apron edge, mark the edge of the full strength pavement with two continuous 6 inch wide stripes separated by a 6 inch wide gap. What marking is this? Taxiway Edge Stripes (ETL 04-02 7.3.1.)
This marking is used to define the limits of a designated taxi route. Taxilane Edge Stripes
Taxilane edge stripes are two 6 inch wide broken stripes separated by a gap 6 inches wide. The stripes are ____ feet long with a _____ foot gap. 15 feet long; 25 foot gap
Use these markings on shoulders and other areas of airfield pavements that are not intended for aircraft traffic but have the appearance of operational pavement. Deceptive Surfaces Markings or Shoulder Markings (ETL 04-2 9.3)
Use these markings when the paved shoulder exceeds the standard dimension given in UFC 3-260-01. Deceptive Surfaces Markings or Shoulder Markings (ETL 04-2 9.3)
Paint runway shoulder markings ___ FT within the edge of pavement or ___FT long (____ FT measured perpendicularly), whichever is less. 5'; 25'; 18'
Taxiway and apron shoulder markings are painted ____ ft from the edge of the shoulder or for a total length of ____ ft. 3' ; 25'
For taxiway shoulder markings on a curve, the stripes are placed at each point of tangency and intermediate stripes are placed uniformly up to ____ feet apart. 30 feet
These markings are painted in accordance with the Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices for Streets and Highways. Vehicular Access Markings
All ______ ____ ______ leading to runways must be marked with a white "Stop" bar at the normal positions for VFR or instrument hold lines. Vehicular Access Markings
These markings are selected to be painted at points that are easy access for aircraft, not less than 1/2 mile from the facility, and on a paved surface. TACAN or Ground Receiver Checkpoints
A temporarily closed runway that is closed for more than 5 days require a _____________ that must be ___________ and lighted. This "X" must be placed at both ends of the runway over the runway designation. Fabricated "X"; Anchored (ETL 04-2 9.1.3.)
Runways closed for ____ days or less do not need to be marked if a NOTAM is issued to publicize the closure. 5 (ETL 04-2 9.1.3.)
Place barricades at a maximum interval of _____ FT and use dual barricades and lights on comers and ends. 50 (ETL 04-2 5.2.2.)
_______-________ barricades are the preferred method for marking construction areas. Low-Profile (ETL 04-2 5.2.2.)
This involves cleaning the markings or pavement before the application of more materials. It should be conducted every other marking cycle and merely cleans the existing marking. It also does not penetrate the surface. Surface Preparation
Surface Preparation is the key. It results in... 1) Longer lasting markings 2) Decrease FOD 3) Increased Pavement Life
Painted markings should not be allowed to build up beyond a total thickness of 1.02 millimeters. This will occur about _______ marking cycles unless surface abrasion reduces this build up. 5
This lighting system consists of a pre-threshold light bare, a terminating bar, 1000 FT crossbar, centerline lights and SFL. The total system length is anywhere from 2400 to 3000 feet. ALSF-1
This or these are used to determine obstruction clearances of the approach lights. A light plane or planes
The side boundaries of a light plane are _____ FT on each side of the runway centerline extended. 200 Feet
No objects may penetrate the light plane except for ______ components and components of airfield _________ _________ which are fixed by their function. ILS ; lighting systems
If lights have the ability to be aimed they will be aligned with the glideslope angle which is normally _____ degrees 3
The standard length of the light plane is ________ FT. 3200
The minimum length of the light plane is ________ FT 2600
The side boundaries of the light plane are _____ feet on each side of the runway centerline extended. The end boundaries are at the runway threshold and at _______ FT before the start of the approach light system. 200 ; 200
All light planes start and end at a light station and contain not less than _____ light stations 3
Airfield service roads, where traffic is controlled, are not considered as __________. Obstructions
These lights provide the pilot with rapid and positive identification of the runway threshold during approach for landing Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)
These visual aids are required with the use of the REILs: What are the high intensity runway edge lights, runway threshold lights or displaced threshold lights, and runway markings. The PAPI system may also be an associated visual aid.
This system consists of synchronized flashing lights placed symmetrically about the runway centerline in the vicinity of the runway threshold. REILs
This system is unattended and provides visual glide path guidance for landing aircraft PAPIs
This system consists of a light bar with four light units placed on the left side of the runway in the vicinity of the touchdown point. PAPIs
The edge of innermost unit in each bar of a PAPI system must be no closer than _____ FT from the runway edge. 50
PAPIs should be ______ feet from the threshold for ideal 3 degree glide path angle 950
For PAPIs, this length gives a 50 ft eye to threshold height 954
If an aircraft is on the correct glide path, the aircraft should have a ____ FT of wheel clearance over the threshold 30
High Intensity Runway Lights are located on the runway edge but not more than _____ FT from the edge. 10
These lights should be equal distance not exceeding 200 feet, white lights except for the last 2000ft of an instrument runway. Those lights should be yellow to indicate the caution zone. High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRLs)
These lights provide positive identification of the beginning of the operational runway surface for approaching aircraft at night or during instrument weather conditions. Threshold Lights
Install threshold lights in a line perpendicular to the extended runway centerline outside the useable landing area a distance of not more than ____ feet. 10
Threshold lights extend outboard of the lines of the runway edge lights by how many feet? 40 Feet
Place these lights at uniform intervals. Space ___ FT. They may be gated to lessen the problem of tail hook bounce by removing or gating the middle ____ FT portion but must be waived by the MAJCOM. Threshold Lights; 5 FT ; 70 FT
Configure these lights no more than 10 feet from the edge of taxiway pavement and no closer than the edge of the full strength pavement. Taxiway Edge Lights
Where the length of the section of taxiway edge lights exceeds 400 feet, the spacing must not exceed ______ FT 200
Place taxiway edge lights along curved taxiway sections. There must be ____ amount of lights between the points of tangency 3
Where a taxiway ends at a crossing taxiway, place 2 yellow lights spaced _____ feet apart and in line of the edge lights of the crossing taxiway. 1.5
On intersections of taxiways with runways or aprons, place entrance/exit lights at the point of tangency of the taxiway fillet with the runway or apron. Entrance/exit lights consists of 2 taxiway edge lights space ___ feet apart. 5
To reduce the "_____ __ ____ _____" effect at an airfield that has too many taxi routes, hoods may be used in elevated fixtures. However, they should not be used on entrance or exit light fixtures sea of blue lights
For a taxiway that is adjacent to, or on the edge of, an apron, the taxiway edge lights are usually placed only on the side of the ? taxiway furthest from the apron
Obstructions that violate the planes and surfaces defined in UFC 3-260-01 shall be lighted. A flashing white light may be used instead of markings on structures less than _____ FT with MAJCOM approval 200
These lights should be observed at least once every ____ hours 24
Any failure or malfunction that last more than _____ minutes and affects a top light or flashing obstruction light should be reported immediately to the nearest FSS so a NOTAM can be issued 30
If the obstruction is less than 150 FT tall, how many obstruction lights should it have? 2 steady burning red lights
If the obstruction is anywhere from 150 ft to 350 ft tall, how many obstruction lights should it have on the top of it? One flashing red beacon
Mandatory hold signs are located on the left-hand side unless the runway is more than _____FT wide and for taxiways _____FT wide or greater 150FT
Which FAA Size Sign is recommended for CAT 1 or higher operations. FAA Size 3
Signs can be canted up to ____ degrees 15
These signs CANNOT be grouped with a mandatory sign Direction or destination sign.
This type of sign is installed prior to an intersection, normally at the point of tangency. Direction signs
A ________ _______ collocated with a runway hold sign should always be positioned outboard of a mandatory sign. Location Sign
Orientation of signs are from left to right in a ______________ manner. Left turn signs are on the left of the location sign and right turn signs are on the right of the location sign. Clockwise
The Air Force will use "______" instead of "ILS" for the instrument holding position/critical area boundary when more than just the ILS is available such as a PAR, MLS, or GPS. INST
These signs are never grouped with other signs in a sign array. Destination
The TACAN sign requires what items? 1) Type of navigational aid 2) Identification Code 3) Radio Channel 4) Magnetic Bearing 5) Distance to the antenna in NMs
This sign is required when the runway end elevations differ by 25 FT from the published field elevation. It should also be collocated with the TACAN sign. Altimeter Checkpoint Sign
_______ _______ ________ are placed at 1,000 foot intervals along the runway. Numerals are shown on both faces of the markers so the distance remaining can be seen in either direction of operations. Runway Distance Markers
Runway Distance Markers (RDMs) are, for military airfields, FAA size 4 and are located ____-____ FT from the runway edge. 50-75 FT
These markers are located on both sides of the arresting gear pendant within ____ FT. Arresting Gear Markers; 10 FT
Where runway distance markers are installed, locate the arresting gear marker in line with the runway distance marker except where the pendant cable is within _____ FT. In this case, relocate the RDM to be inline with the AGM 5 FT outboard. 20
Wind indicators or cones are installed near landing surfaces. The base/wing commander sets wind cone requirements with approval from MAJCOM. However, they will not be less than _____ FT from the runway centerline and no more than 27 feet AGL. 400
Wind cones should be fully extended at a ____kt wind 15
Created by: jewels2001