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| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| dCE/dce – what is the Rh type for a person with this genotype? | Rh (-) |
| Interpret the reaction – Anti-D tube was 1+ and the Rh control tube is neg. RH (+), RH (-) OR FURTHER TESTING | RH (+) |
| WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF TRANSFUSION REACTIONS? | CLERICAL ERRORS |
| HOW LONG IS A CROSSMATCH GOOD FOR? 3 DAYS 7 DAYS OR 5 DAYS | 3 DAYS |
| HOW MUCH DOES 1 UNT OF BLOOD INCREASE A PATIENT'S HGB? 1 G/DL, 2 G/DL OR 3 G/DL | 1 G/DL |
| CAN A 75 YR OLD MAN DONATE BLOOD? | YES AS LONG AS HE MEETS CRITERIA AND HAS A DOCTORS NOTE |
| IF THERE IS A PATIENT THAT IS B(-) AND SUFFERS A MISCARRIAGE SHOULD THIS PATIENT STILL REC'V A SHOT OF RHOGAM? | YES only if she doesn't have anti-D from a prevous pregnancy |
| WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF AHG? | TO DETECT IgG ANTIBODIES |
| WHAT GOES IN THE TUBE FOR A MAJOR CROSSMATCH? | PATIENT PLASMA (SERUM) AND DONOR CELLS |
| WHAT ARE SOME REASONS FOR A FALSE POSITIVE DAT | o Medications – methyldopa o Bacterial contamination of test cells. o Septicemia of patient. o Dirty glassware |
| WHEN SHOULD A PREGNANT WOMAN RECEIVE RHOGAM? | IF SHE S RH (-)., FIRST PREGNANCY AND rH (+)BABY |
| If a patient has a genotype of dce/dce and they receive blood from a person with genotype Dce/Dce. What type of antibody would the patient produce? Anti-c Anti-e Anti-d None of the above | NONE OF THE ABOVE |
| What type of test demonstrates in vivo sensitization of red cells? | DAT (direct antiglobulin test) |
| If the Rh control tube has a positive reaction can you report out results? | NO |
| What blood group demonstrates a resistance to malaria | DUFFY |
| What is a cause for a permanent deferral from blood donation? | HISTORY OF JAUNDICE OF UNCERTAIN CAUSE |
| CHEMISTRY | CHEMISTRY |
| PURPOSE OF GLUCAGON | HORMONE WHICH DECREASED LEVEL OF BLOOD SUGAR |
| DEFINE ELECTROPHORESIS | THE MOVEMENT OF CHARGED PARTICLES N AN ELECTRICAL FIELD TO EFFECT SEPARATION OF THE PARTICLES |
| WHAT IS THE LARGEST PROTEIN FRACTION? | ALBUMIN |
| DEFINE FIRST ORDER KINETICS | THE CHANGE IN ABSORBANCE IS MONITORED DURING |
| WHAT CATION HAS THE LARGEST CONCENTRATION IN BLOOD? | SODIUM |
| WHAT TEST WOULD BE ORDERED IF A MYOCARDIAL INFARCTON S SUSPECTED? AST TROPONIN CPK/CK LDH/LD ALL OF THE ABOVE | ALL OF THE ABOVE |
| PRECENT OF THE POPULATION THAT IS =/- 2SD FROM THE MEAN? | 95% |
| DEFINE ACCURACY | THE CLOSENESS OF A TEST RESULT TO THE TRUE VALUE |
| - Serum amylase is elevated in diseases that affect what organ? | PANCREAS |
| WHAT TWO TESTS ARE APPROPRIATE FOR PROSTATE CANCER DETECTION? | PSA, ACP (ACID PHOSPHATASE) |
| WHAT DOES TIBC MEASURE? | MEASURES THE SERUM IRON TRANSPORTING BINDING CAPACITY OF TRANSFERRIN |
| What is the main function of albumin? | Maintain osmotic pressure |
| When the 95% confidence limits are applied to analysis of a group of 20 persons, how many of those normal persons can be expected to have a result outside the normal range? 2-3-1-5 | 1 |
| Define Glycolysis | The conversion of glucose or other hexoses into lactate or pyruvate |
| Coagulation | Coagulation |
| What plays the role in the initial plug in the wall of an injured blood vessel? | platelets |
| Precursor of thrombin | prothrombin |
| What is the end result of coag testing? | clot detection |
| during fibrinolysis, plasmin is responsible for degrading what? | Fibrin |
| factor VII is part of which coag test.... PT, aPTT, OR D-DIMER | PT |
| HEPARIN IS MONITORED BY WHAT COAG TEST | aPTT |
| COUMADIN/WARFARIN IS MONITORED BY WHAT COAG TEST? | PT/INR |
| CLASSIC HEMOPHILIA IS THE RESULT OF ADEFICIENCY IN WHAT FACTOR? | VIII |
| WHAT TEST IS USED TO DETECT FIBRINOLYSIS? | FDP OR FSP |
| FIBRIN IS CONVERTED INTO FIBRIN BY... | THROMBIN |
| Fibrin split products and activated coagulation factors are removed from the blood by… | RES/MPS system |
| itamin K factors are in what group? Prothrombin Contact Fibrinogen | Prothrombin |
| Define fibrinolysis | removal of fibrin formed in the body |
| Hematology | Hematology |
| The cell of the granulocytic series that is characterized by a bean or kidney-bean shaped nucleus is the… | metamyelocyte |
| Auer rods occur in… | Myelogenous leukemia |
| The white blood cell change most characteristic of pernicious anemia is… | Hypersegmentation |
| WHAT TYPE OF CELL IS SEEN IN MULTIPLE MYELOMA? | PLASMA CELL |
| DEFINE LEUKEMIA | UNCONTROLLED AND ABNORMAL PROLIFERATION OF HEMATOPOIETIC CELLS |
| WHAT ARE SIDEROCYTES | RBC'S THAT CONTAIN IRON GRANULES |
| NAME 3 REASONS A PERSON MAY HAVE A MACROCYTIC ANEMIA.... | B12 deficiency Folate deficiency D. latum or fish tapeworm infestation |
| What cell is seen in a person suffering from Mono? | Reactive lymphocytes |
| The immediate precursor of the diffusely basophilic or polychromatic RBC is the… | Orthochromatic normoblast |
| Chronic blood loss can lead to… | Iron deficiency |
| What is a spherocyte? | The RBC that lacks a central pallor and is uniformly filled with hemoglobin |
| Define pancytopenia | Depression of all blood cell elements |
| Define Anisocytosis | Size variation of RBCs |
| Define poikilocytosis | Shape variation of RBCs |
| Define leukopoeisis | Normal WBC formation |
| What does hematocrit measure? | Packed red cell volume |
| What are the characteristics of plasma cell? | deep blue cytoplasm eccentric nucleus perinuclear halo |
| The characteristic cell in acute lymphocytic leukemia is the… | lymphoblast |
| The plasma protein that binds free hemoglobin during conditions of intravascular hemolysis is known as… | Haptoglobin |
| What is the largest white blood cell? | Monocyte |
| Define “shift to the left” | Increased percentage of immature granulocytes |
| Reticulocyte count is a good way to measure what… | reliable assessment of the effective erythroid activity of the bone marrow |
| Methemoglobin is an abnormal hemoglobin that contains… | Ferric iron |
| Thalassemias are characterized by… | Decreased rate of globin synthesis |
| What RBC indices is a measure of the amount of hemoglobin in individual RBCs? | MCH |
| Immunology | Immunology |
| Define passive acquired immunity | can be acquired naturally by the fetus because of the transfer of maternal antibodies in utero |
| What immunoglobulin molecule has a pentamer structure? | IgM |
| Define specificity | The ability of an antibody to react only with the antigen that stimulated its production |
| Define agglutination | The serologic reaction where particulate antigens are clumped by their reaction with antibody |
| ASO titer is increased in what disease? | Acute glomerulonephritis |
| FTA-ABS detects what… | Anti-Treponema pallidum (SYPHILIS) |
| Complement can be destroyed by heating plasma or serum at… | 56C |
| Infectious mono slide tests detect… | Heterophile antibodies |
| The causative agent of infectious mononucleosis is… | Epstein-Barr virus |
| Define heterozygous | wo alleles inherited for a particular trait are unlike |
| Define homozygous | person who possesses two like genes for a trait |
| Microbiology | Microbiology |
| Most common stain | Gram Stain |
| Members of the Enterobacteriaceae all ferment… | Lactose |
| A urine specimen contaminated with vaginal secretions may contain the flagellate… | Trichomonas vaginalis |
| Neisseria meningitidis is seen under the microscope as… | Gram negative cocci and oxidase positive |
| A fecal specimen for parasitology testing should be held at a temperature of… | 24C |
| What bacteria exhibit “swarming”? | Proteus |
| What organism is responsible for pink eye? | Haemophilus aegypticus |
| Vector for malaria? | Anopheles mosquito |
| The V factor needed by some bacteria for growth is… | NAD supplied by yeast extract |
| QUESTION FOR CASSIE...NOT NAD BUT HEMIN??? | Haemophilus influenzae prefers a complex medium and requires preformed growth factors that are present in blood, specifically X factor (i.e., hemin) and V factor (NAD or NADP...http://textbookofbacteriology.net/haemophilus.html |
| In disc diffusion tests, such as the bacitracin test, growth up to the disc indicates… | Resistance to drug |
| Mycoplasma pneumonia causes what disease? | Atypical pneumonia |
| Group B beta-hemolytic strep is also known as? | Streptococcus agalactiae |
| In the direct examination of mycology specimen material, what reagent is added to the specimen to clear up any background debris? | 10% KOH |
| An artificial medium for the primary isolation of fungi is | Sabourauds (SABS) |
| What test is indicative of Cryptococcus neoformans? | India Ink |
| Trophozoites are most likely to be found in fecal specimens that are… | Loose |
| The preferred method for identification of Enterobius vermicularis is… | Scotch Tape method |
| Infection of the urinary tract is most often associated with… | E. coli |
| Cultures for Neisseria gonorrheae should be incubated… | Candle jar or carbon dioxide incubator |
| MacConkey’s agar is a good differential media in that it helps to distinguish between | lactose and non-lactose fermenting Enterobacteriaceae |
| Mycobacterium is a causative agent for what disease… | Tuberculosis |
| Thioglycollate medium is a good medium for routine cultures because it… | supports the growth of aerobes, facultatives, and anaerobes |
| The enterotoxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus causes, what type of ailment? | Food poisoning |
| What bacteria has a grape-like odor? | Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
| Urinalysis | Urinalysis |
| Ammonia odor of urine is caused by? | Bacterial breakdown of urea |
| What is the functional unit of the kidney? | nephron |
| Of the following crystals, which one is abnormal? Amorphous urates Calcium oxalate Cystine Calcium carbonate | Cystine |
| The tests for glucose on commercial dipsticks is based on a color change due to… | Breakdown of glucose by glucose oxidase |
| The active reagent in the dipstick test pad for ketones is… | Sodium nitroprusside |
| Ketone bodies appear in the urine as the result of… | Increased fat catabolism |
| The presence of wbc and rbc casts in the urine would indicate that the infection is located in the… | kidneys |
| Casts are formed in the… | Distal convoluted tubules |
| RBCs in the urine are reported out as… | Average number seen per high powered field |
| Dipsticks for urinalysis may become deteriorated if they are… | Subjected to moisture |
| Crystals shaped like flat, rectangular plates with notches are: Cholesterol ammonium biurate uric acid cystine | Cholesterol |
| Casts may be seen best under the microscope by: decreasing the illumination increasing the illumination using immersion oil waiting two hours to examine the sediment | decreasing the illumination |
| The principle behind the detection of protein on the urine dipsticks is… | Protein error of indicators |
| The proximal convoluted tubule is involved in… | Tubular reabsorption |
| Elevated blood glucose levels are most commonly observed in… | Diabetes mellitus |
| The presence of squamous epithelial cells and mucus threads in the urine sediment indicates… | Vaginal contamination |
| What protein typically make ups casts? | Tamm-Horsfall |
| Which of the following casts is most indicative of end stage renal disease? | Waxy |
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nizhoni
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