Busy. Please wait.

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 

Username is available taken
show password


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
We do not share your email address with others. It is only used to allow you to reset your password. For details read our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.

Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.

Remove ads
Don't know
remaining cards
To flip the current card, click it or press the Spacebar key.  To move the current card to one of the three colored boxes, click on the box.  You may also press the UP ARROW key to move the card to the "Know" box, the DOWN ARROW key to move the card to the "Don't know" box, or the RIGHT ARROW key to move the card to the Remaining box.  You may also click on the card displayed in any of the three boxes to bring that card back to the center.

Pass complete!

"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
restart all cards

Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

Hem2 Practice Test 1

Practice Test for DelTech Owens Hematology 2 First Test

Any abnormal growth of new tissue, whether malignant or benign, is called a __. The term is usually applied to cancerous cells. neoplasm
Leukocyte neoplasms can be acquired __ diseases. genetic
Leukocyte neoplasms are often __ of a __ process. systemic of a malignant process
Leukocyte neoplasms can begin in the __ __ or in the __ system. bone marrow or in the lymphatic system
Since leukocyte neoplasms are often systemic, the treatment is often of a __ type. systemic
If caught early, the odds of treating or curing a leukocyte neoplasm are __ than when it is caught later. higher
A patient with a lymphoma may have __-__ symptoms. flu-like
One in __ people will get cancer in Sussex County, Delaware. four
Patients treated with chemotherapy will often get cancer/leukemia within __ years due to the chemo. six
The causes of leukocyte neoplasms are (list the 6 causes) 1. Environmental toxins 2. Environmental exposures (like radiation or organic solvents such as benzene) 3. Viruses (like Mono) 4. Familial predispositions 5. Chemotherapy 6. Unknown
FAB classification stands for __ __ __ and refers to a methodology for diagnosing leukocyte neoplasms. French, American, British
The FAB classification relies heavily on __ and __ __ preparation. morphology on histiological stain preparation
The FAB classification was devised during the 19__s and 19__s. 1970s and 1980s
The WHO (World Health Organization) published a new set of leukocyte neoplasm classifications in __. 2001
The WHO leukocyte neoplasm classification system relies heavily on __ and __. chromosomal and immunophenotyping
Genes that cause dominant acting cancer mutations are called __. oncogenes
The presence of some oncogenes is believed to have been derived from __viruses. retroviruses
There is no __ that can stop all the retroviruses believed to inject oncogenes into cells. vaccine
What codes for proteins that help cells resist malignant transformation? Tumor suppressor genes
If tumor suppressor genes are missing after a cell mutates, the cell could develop into a __. malignancy
Very high levels of __ are a major cause of cancer. stress
Very high levels of stress can cause __ __ __ to malfunction. tumor suppressor cells
The 5 therapies for leukocyte neoplasms include ? 1. Chemotherapy 2. Radiation therapy 3. Supportive therapy 4. Targeted therapy 5. Stem cell transplantation
If tumor suppressor cells are __ after a cell mutates, the cell could become malignant. missing
Supportive therapy for neoplasms includes __,__, and __ support. nutrition, counseling, and financial support
Targeted therapies for neoplasms include the use of __ to target the growths without damaging other parts of the body. antibodies
Chemotherapy treatments include the use of compounds that have __ properties. antitumor
Chemotherapy is administered to a patient __ or __. orally or parenterally (parenterally means "in a manner other than through the digestive tract;" intraveneously or through intramuscular injection)
Chemotherapies that affect malignant cells during specific phases of the cell cycle are __ __. phase specific
Chemotherapies that affect malignant cells without regard to the cell cycle are __ __. phase nonspecific
Cancer cells often multiply very __. rapidly
Cells that are moving through the cell cycle are also __ or __. dividing or multiplying
Phase nonspecific agents that kill cells that are moving through the cell cycle (dividing) are __ __. cycle specific
Phase nonspecific agents that kill cells that are NOT dividing are called __ __. cycle nonspecific
Examples of cycle specific agents include __ __ and __. alkylating agents and cisplatin
Cisplatin is a chemotherapy drug that triggers __ in cancer cells. apoptosis (or programmed cell death)
Examples of cycle NONspecific agents include __ and __ __. steroids and antitumor antibiotics
Phase specific agents are only effective if presented during a certain __ in the cell cycle. phase
Both normal cells and neoplastic cells are affected by __. chemotherapy
The damage done by chemotherapy to normal cells is most pronounced in cells that divide __. rapidly
Rapidly dividing cells that are especially affected by chemotherapy include those found in the __ tract and the __. GI tract and the mucosa
The cells that line the mucous membrane, also known as the thin layer which lines body cavities and passages, are called the __. mucosa
The 5 categories of chemotherapies are: 1. Alkylating agents 2. Plant alkaloids 3. Antitumor antibiotics 4. Antimetabolites 5. Glucocorticoids
The __ category of chemotherapy agents work well on neoplastic lymphocytes. gluccocorticoid
A synthetic THC, called __ is used to treat nausea and vomiting in chemotherapy patients. Zofran
THC occurs naturally in __. marijuana
Chemotherapeutic __ agents ionize within the cells, forming highly reactive free radicals that damage DNA and are phase nonspecific. alkylating agents
Chemotherapeutic __ alkaloids affect microtubules and interrupt the process of mitotic spindle formation. plant alkaloids
Cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, busulfan, and melphalan are all examples of chemo __ agents. alkylating agents
Vincrisitine and vinblastine are examples of chemo __ alkaloids. plant alkaloids
Antitumor __ are derived from living microorganisms, inhibit RNA and DNA synthesis, and interfere with the G phase of the cell cycle. Antitumor antibiotics
Chemotherapeutic __ interfere with the normal function of essential metabolites. antimetabolites
Chemotherapeutic __ affect nonproliferating cells and have a lympholytic effect. glucocorticoids
__ treatment, a non-chemotherapeutic treatment for cancer, kills cells by producing unstable ions that damage DNA. Radiation treatment
Radiation treatment may cause instant or __ death of a cell. delayed
These three areas of the body are most affected by radiation treatment, but the harmful effects are reversible. GI tract, skin, hematopoietic system (or bone marrow)
The better a patient's __, the better his or her odds of making it through chemotherapy. outlook
Shots of Neupogen and Neulasta increase the number of __, but can also spread leukemia faster. granulocytes (which are WBCs)
Shots of Epogen and Procrit raise a patient's __ count. RBC
Fun fact: Neulasta is basically Neupogen with propyline glycol. The latter is better known as __ __. radiator fluid
Cancer therapies that specifically hit tumor cells while leaving normal cells untouched are known as __ therapies. targeted therapies
Targeted therapies include __ and __. Gleevec and Rituximab
Four sources of stem cell transplantation for patients with cancer include: 1. Umbilical cord blood 2. An identical twin (called a syngeneic transplant) 3. an allogeneic transplant (from a donor who is genetically different from the patient) 4. An autologous transplant (from the patients own marrow or peripheral blood).
A stem cell transplant from an identical twin is called a __ transplant. syngeneic
A stem cell transplant from a donor who is genetically different from the recipient is called a __ transplant. allogeneic
A stem cell transplant from the patient's own marrow or peripheral blood is called an __ transplant. autologous
Locally, __ Hospital does stem cell transplants on cancer patients. Christiana
The study of the chemical elements found in cells is called __. cytochemistry
The chemical elements found in cells may be __ or __. enzymatic or non-enzymatic
Cytochemical __ of cells can be used for the differentiation of acute or chronic leukemias. staining
The use of cytochemical staining of cells is going out of __ as other, more accurate and efficient processes continue to be developed. use
Cytochemistry is used in conjuction with flow __ and __. flow cytometry and Cytogenetics
In cytomchemistry, __ __ smears are used most often as test samples. bone marrow
Smears and imprints made from __ __, __ __, the __, or the __ __ are all acceptable specimens for cytochemical procedures. bone marrow, lymph nodes, the spleen, or the peripheral blood
__ smears are best to ensure optimal enzyme activity. Fresh
PAS stands for __ __ __. Periodic Acid Schiff
SBB stands for __ __ _. Susan Black B
Proper fixatives for cytochemical smears include these 5 answers. methanol, ethanol, acetone, formaldehyde, or a combo of these
__ is an enzyme found in the primary granules of neutrophils, eosinophils, and to some extent, monocytes. Myeloperoxidase (MPO)
When myeloperoxidase (also called MPO)is present in a cell, it oxidizes dye substrates, creating a __ to __-__ stain depending on the substrate used. black to red-brown
Leukemic __ are usually positive for MPO. myeloblasts
What inclusions found in leukemic blasts and promyelocytes test strongly MPO positive? auer rods
__ do not show MPO positive when tested. Lymphocytes
Myeloperoxidase (MPO) stain is used to differentiate what 2 forms of leukemia? AML and ALL (Acute myeloid leukemia and acute lymphoblastic leukemia)
Monocytes are peroxidase __ to __ or diffusely positive. negative to weak
Lymphoblasts and lymphocytes are always peroxidase __. negative
When testing for leukemia in WBCs, only the __ cells can be used as the determining factor for differentiating acute leukemias. blast
Auer rods are actually __ granules stuck together in the cell. primary
Sudan Black B stains cell __ because of the solubility of the dye in that kind of particle. lipids
Lipids, like those stained with Sudan Black B, are found in the primary or secondary granules of __. segs
Lipids, like those stained with Sudan Black B, are found in the lysosomal granules of __. moncytes
Sudan Black B staining is used for differentiating __ from __. AML from ALL
Sudan Black B staining is slightly more sensitive than __ staining. peroxidase
When staining with Sudan Black B, lymphoid cells are usually __. negative
Granulocytes are Sudan Black B positive from the __ stage through the rest of the cell maturation sequence. myeloblast
__ stains are used to differentiate myeloid cells from those of monocytic origin. Esterase
M1, M2, and M3 leukemias are __ in origin and can be differentiated from M5 leukemias using an esterase stain. myeloid
M5 leukemias are __ in origin and can be differentiated using an esterase stain. monocytic
PAS stands for __ __ __. periodic acid schiff
The intensity of the stain called PAS depends on the number of __ groups that are liberated by periodic acid. aldehyde
The stain pattern of PAS may be __. highly varied (fine, diffuse, coarse, granular, and mix)
PAS stains __, __, and __ positive. lymphocytes, granulocytes, and megakaryocytes
PAS is helpful in diagnosing __ where there is a strong reactivity in normoblasts. erythroleukemia
PAS does not stain __ precursors. RBC (Hence, the test on RBC precursors will be negative)
PAS does not stain __ (WBCs). monocytes
TRAP stands for __ __ __ __. Acid Phosphate (Tartrate Resistant)
TRAP stains cells with __ __ __. This is all it is used for. Hairy Cell Leukemia
Cells that get a low score with the TRAP test have __. leukemia
Cells that get a high score with the TRAP test are __. infected
If hairy cells are present, the TRAP test remains positive after the addition of __ __ to the incubation mixture. tartaric acid
TDT stands for __ __ __. Terminal Deoxynucleotidyl Transferase
TDT is a DNA polymerase that is present in __ __. lymphocytic cells
A polymerase takes __ apart. DNA
When staining for cancer detection, a __ __ __ is used as a negative control. normal blood smear
When staining for cancer detection, a __ __ should be used as well as a negative control. positive control
The study of chromosomes is called __. cytogenetics
Chromosome disorders are either __ or __. structural or numerical
Chromosome disorders involve the __ or __ of a piece of chromosome or even the loss of the __ chromosome. loss or gain, entire
There are approximately __ genes in the human genome. 25,000
Chromosome analysis is also called __. karyotyping
A chromosome's structure is made of a single, long strand of __ that contains a series of genes. DNA
The movement of DNA from one chromosome to another is called __. translocation
The most common mutations, or chromosomal abnormalities, seen in leukemias and lymphomas include these 5 things: 1) translocations 2) gain or loss of chromosomes 3) gene deletions 4) point mutations 5) others
The cell cycle takes place in __ stages. four
At which stage are chemicals used to arrest cell progression so analysis can be done? Mitosis
When identifying chromosomes, you stain the __ chromosome with a __. mitotic, dye
Q banding is a __ used to distinguish the unique pattern of a chromosome. process
Q banding differentiates the chromosome into bands of differing __ and relative __. widths, brightness
__ banding is the most common method used for staining chromosomes. G banding (NOT Q banding)
Which 4 types of tissue samples can be used for chromosome analysis? 1. peripheral blood 2. bone marrow 3. amniotic fluid 4. products of conception
The primary constriction that separates the long arm from the short arm of a chromosome is called a __. centromere
The short arm of a chromosome is called __. P
The long arm of a chromosome is called __. Q
When under analysis, each chromosome is arranged in pairs according to size and banding pattern into a __. karyotype
Three of the most common structural abnormalities found in chromosomes are: 1) deletions 2) inversions 3) translocations
Chromosome deletions involve... loss of material from a single chromosome. The effects are usually severe.
Chromosome inversions occur... when there are 2 breaks within a single chromosome and the broken segment flips 180 degrees (inverts) and reattaches to form a chromosome that is structurally out of sequence.
Chromosome translocations involve... exchange of material between 2 or more chromosomes.
If a chromosomal translocation is __, the risk for problems to an individual is similar to that with inversions. reciprocal
__ involves altered cellular pathways in self renewal, proliferation, differentiation, and apoptosis. Leukemogenesis
Leukemogenesis involves altered cellular pathways in __ __, __, __, and __. self renewal, proliferation, differentiation, and apoptosis
Some chromosomal alterations result in gene __, gain or loss of __, loss of __, and __. amplifications, gain or loss of chromosomes, loss of function, and translocations
What 3 reasons should we test for chromosomal abnormalities in a patient with cancer? 1) diagnosis 2) prognosis 3) decision concerning therapy
FISH stands for __ __ __ __. Florescence in situ hybridization (NOTE: in situ is Latin for "in position")
A B cell lymphoma that is common in Europe and N. America is called __ __. Follicular Lymphoma
The median age for diagnosis of Follicular Lymphoma is between __ and __ years of age. 60 and 65
The __ protein expression inhibits __; this keeps mutated cells from dieing as they should. These cells can live for years in the body. BCL2 protein, apoptosis
__ __ is the specimen of choice for hematologic malignancy. Bone marrow
__ is the most common leukemia for children. ALL (Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia)
Molecular biology techniques enhance the diagnostic team's ability to __ or __ an increasing number of diseases in the clinical laboratory. predict or identify
Molecular tests are based on analysis of __ __. base pairs
FISH (flourescence in situ hybridization) detects and localizes the presence or absence of specific abnormal __ __ __ on chromosomes. base pair sequences
When using the FISH test, cells are placed on a slide and the cell membranes are __. permeabilized
When using the FISH test, DNA in the chromosomes is denatured to a __ __ state. single stranded
During FISH, after chromosomes have been denatured to the single stranded state, specific flourescent labeled probes are then __ with the cells. incubated
During Fish, if the complementary sequences are present in the chromosome, the probes will __ to the chromosome. hybridize
During FISH, after the probes have been hybridized, the result is a flourescent signal that is __ by __ microscopy. detectable by flourescent microscopy
FISH is less __, easier to __, and __ than conventional cytogenetic studies. less expensive, easier to perform, and faster
FISH is less labor __ than cytogenetics. intensive
The limitation of FISH is that only __ abnormalities can be investigated. It is not a universal screen. specific
Dividing cells is not required when using __. FISH (flourescent in situ hybridization)
FISH can be performed on __ material and on various __ material. archived material, various histologic material
An instrument in which cells suspended in fluid flow one at a time through a focus of exciting light, which is scattered in patterns characteristic to the cells and their components, is called a __ __. flow cytometer
A flow cytometer is capable of __, has the ability to __ and __ cells in heterogenous cell populations. immunophenotyping, identify and quantify
Flow cytometry allows us to analyze the cell lineage in __ leukemias, __ populations, chronic __ disorders, and monitor __ states. acute leukemias, lymphoid populations, chronic myeloid disorders, and monitor immunodeficiency states
Flow cytometry allows for specimen processing of __ __, __ __, and __ tissue. peripheral blood, bone marrow, and lymphoid tissue
Flow cytometry allows for processing of body __ fluids, and solid __. cavity fluids, solid tissues
Cytometer specimens should be collected with vaccutainers with __ or __, then taken to a lab at room temperature. EDTA or heparin
Cytometer tissue samples are submitted in __ __. culture media
Purify cytometer specimens by __ RBCS. lysing
The viability of cytometer cells is determined by __ __ or __. cell counters or staining
Cytometry specimens are run through a __. cytocentrifuge
Cytometry samples are stained with __-__ __ antibodies. flourochrome-conjugated monoclonal antibodies
A cytometer can detect __ antigens simultaneously on an individual cell. 17
When particles are illuminated in a flow cytometer, they emit __ __ registered by detectors. flourescent signals
Results from a flow cytometer are converted to __ __ and analyzed using software. digital output
A flow cytometer consists of what 4 parts? 1) fluids 2) laser (light source) 3) detection system 4) computer
Injecting the cell suspension in a flow cytometer into a stream of sheath fluid is called __ __. hydrodynamic focusing
The laser in a flow cytometer is __ or __-__. argon or helium-neon
When current is applied to the gas in a flow cytometer, it raises the gas to an __ state. excited
When electrons in a flow cytometer return to a __ __ after reaching an excited state, they emit photons of light. ground state
A narrow beam of light is produced within a flow cytometer that is then used to illuminate individual cells. Each cell is stained with __ conjugated to specific __. antibodies conjugated to specific fluorochromes
Photodetectors inside a flow cytometer will detect different __ emitted from the cells. fluorochromes
__ angle light scatter measures cell size inside of a flow cytometer. Forward
__ angel side scatter at 90 degrees measures internal complexity and granulation of cells. Right
__ is used in the diagnosis, classification, and monitoring of leukemias and lymphomas. Immunophenotyping
Immunophenotyping creates __ __ __ (MRD) post treatment. minimal residual disease - residual disease refers to malignant cells that remind in the patient after treatment
About staining and detection: What does LAP stand for? Leukocyte alkaline phosphate.
What is the LAP enzyme activity useful for with regard to detecting cancer? Differentiating CML from a leukemoid reaction that may be seen in severe infections.
What does CML stand for? Chronic myelogenous leukemia
Where do LAP enzymes appear? Secondary granules of neutrophils
What is present in the primary granules of neutrophils with the letters NADC? Naphthol AS-D Chloroacetate
Naphthol AS-D Chloroacetate shows positive in what kind of cells? myeloid
Naphthol AS-D Chloroacetate shows negative or weakly in what kind of cells? monocytes
Naphthol AS-D Chloroacetate also shows positive in __ __. leukemic myeloblasts
Granules of Naphthol AS-D Chloroacetate stain __ __. blue black
Auer rods with Naphthol AS-D Chloroacetate test __ (negative or positive?). positively
a-Naphthyl butyrate esterase show __ in cells of monocytic origin if monocytic leukemia is present. positive
Factor VIII is an essential __ __ __ in humans. blood clotting protein
It is likely that there is a causal association between some __ __ and factor VIII antibodies, but it is an extremely rare complication of cancer. solid tumors
Monoclonal or polyclonal antibodies against factor VIII-related antigen or platelet glycoprotein have given positive results in __ leukemia. megakaryoblastic
Created by: IsaacJ