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Micro intern SQ

1.The genus that sometimes exhibits a characteristic "swarming" on some agar media is: a) Proteus b) Pseudomonas c) Klebsiella d) Shigella A
2.The most common cause of bacterial food poisoning in the USA is: a) Clostridium botulism b) Staphylococcus aureus c) Clostridium perfringens d) Shigella dysenteriae B
3.Eosin methylene blue agar is a good differential media in that it helps to distinguish between: a) Salmonella & Shigella b) Staph & Strep c) lactose + & lactose - organisms d) gas producing organisms C
4.The organism Kebsiella pneumoniae can be isolated from a) sputum cultures b) urine cultures c) CSF cultures d) all of the above D
5.In the Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast staining procedure, the tubercle bacilli will stain what color? a) red b) colorless c) green d) purple A
6.Which of the rxns given below, demonstrates the indole rxn for the ID of bacteria? a) citrate--oxaloacetate--CO2 + Na--Na2CO--Na2CO + bromthymol blue = green b) tryptophan--indole + Kovac's rgt =red c) glucose--acetoin + alpha naphthol + 40% KOH = red B
7.Microorganisms that produce disease are termed: pathogenic
8.Antimicrobial discs impregnated w/ optochin inhibit the growth of: a) Strep. pneumoniae b) Strep. faecalis c) Strep. pyogenes d) Strep viridens A
9.The etiologic agent of primary atypical pneumonia is: a) Chlamydia psittaci b) Strep. pneumoniae c) Corynebacterium diphtheriae d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae D
10.The rgt used in the catalase test is: a) 3% hydrogen peroxide b) p-tetramethylphenylenediamine c) Kovac's rgt d) 10% ferric chloride A
A 47 y.o. man w/ open sores. GS from AN open sore revealed GPC in clusters & many PMNs. Which media is MOST appropriate for the isolation of the given organism? a) MacConkey b) Choc c) BAP d) Modified Thayer-Martin C
A 47 y.o. man w/ open sores. GPC clusters & many PMNs. Colonial chars, organism, on the approp med will consist of a) pinpt'd, moist, nonhemo colonies b) lacto-fermnt, dry colonies c) beta-hemo, opaque colonies d) small, alpha-hemo colonies C
A 47 y.o. man w/ open sores. A GS of the mat'l revealed GPC in clusters & many PMNs. If the catalase & coagulase tests are pos, the organism can be ID as: a) Staph. epidermidis b) Staph. aure B
B. subtilis is usually cultured as a : a) pathogen from feces b) non-pathogen from the throat c) non-pathogen from urine d) lab contaminant D
Which of the following is an example of a selective enrichment broth for the cultivation of species of Salmonella & Shigella from stool cultures? a) Selenite broth b) Tryptic soy broth c) Thioglycollate broth d) Urease broth A
Which of the following is appropriate when discussing Haemophilus influenzae: a) the causative organism for influenza b) able to grow on MacConkey agar plates c) GP organism d) a common cause of bacterial meningitis in children D
From a bronchial washing, organisms were seen on gram stain, but no growth occurred aerobically or anaerobically. This was MOST likely due to: a) anaerobes b) incorrect specimen collection c) uncultivable bacteria, e.g. rickettsiae, mycoplasma, &/or mycob C
In carbohydrate fermentation, a yellow color is considered: a) + b) - c) impossible d) not important A
QC in antibiotic sensitivity testing is accomplished using standard strains of: a) Staph. aureus b) E. coli c) Strep pyogenes d) both a & b D
In the gram stain procedure, the mordant is: a) acid alcohol b) heat c) safranin d) iodine D
"Splitting" of the carbohydrate fermentation agar indicates: a) production of gas b) germination of lactose c) production of H2S d) more than one of the above A
Microorganisms that are difficult to grow & require special media or conditions are termed: a) coliforms b) enteric c) fastidious d) parasitic C
When clinical specimens are being processed for the recovery of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the generally recommended, & most common, method for digestion & decontamination of the sample is: a) sodium hypochlorite b) trisodium phosphate c) N-acetyl-L-cyst C
Fermentation rxns should be read a) immediately after inoculation b) after 2-6 hrs incubation c) after 18-24 hrs incubation d) after 36 hrs incubation C
Members of the family Enterobacteriaceae will all ferment the carbohydrate: a) glucose b) lactose c) maltose d) galactose A
An obligate anaerobic GNR was found to be resistant to penicillin. Growth of the organism was not inhibited in the presence of bile. Which of the following identifications is MOST likely? a) Bacteroides fragilis b) Peptostreptococcus c) Fusobacterium nucl A
Ideally, a urine for culture should be inoculated to appropriate media w/in 1-2 hrs of collection. If this is NOT possible, it is permissible to: a) refrigerate the specimen to prevent (or slow) multiplication of organisms b) incubate the specimen to keep A
Anaerobic organisms should be incubated: a) at room temp b) in 5-10% CO2 c) in the dark d) 48 hrs before compromising (entering) the anaerobic conditions D
Another stain used for "acid-fast" organisms, besides the Ziehl-Neelsen stain, is: a) Wirtz-Conkin b) Kinyoun carbolfuchsin c) Dorner d) Giemsa B
A positive CAMP test is produced by: a) Strep. agalactiae b) Legionella pneumophila c) Staph. aureus d) Strep. equinus A
What is the purpose of the iron in the bile esculin medium? a) inhibits all streptococci b) reacts w/ hydrolyzed esculin to form a black compound c) reacts w/ staphylococci toxins to form a red compound d) keeps esculin reduced so organism cannot react w/ B
Neisseria gonorrhoaeae must be ID on the gram stain of a clnical specimen as: a) GN extracellular diplococci b) GP extracellular diplococci c) GN intracellular diplococci d) GP intracellular diplocci C
The organism causing "strep throat" has what type of hemolysis on sheep blood agar? a) alpha b) beta c) gamma d) delta B
A platinum inoculating loop or wire must always be used in performing which of the following tests: a) coagulase b) catalase c) DNase d) oxidase D
The V factor needed by some organisms for growth is: a) hemin supplied by RBCs b) coenzyme NAD supplied by yeast extracts d) all of the above B
Which of the following is NOT an enteric pathogen? a) Salmonella b) Shigella c) Proteus mirabilis d) E. coli C
Infantile diarrhea is caued by certain serological types of: a) E. coli b) Klebsiella pneumoniae c) Enterobacter aerogenes d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa A
The chemotherapeutic agents that are structurally similar to the vitamin p-aminobenzoic acid & act to inhibit bacteria by the inhibition of folic acid synthesis are: a) aminoglycosides b) penicillins c) macrolides d) sulfonamides D
Which species of Kebsiella is MOST COMMONLY isolated from clnical specimens: a) Kebsiella ozaenae b) Kebsiella pneumoniae c) Kebsiella rhinosclerotis d) Kebsiella oxytoca B
Why is Thayer-Martin used as a primary media for genital cultures? a) enriches growth of fastidious organisms b) highly selective for Neisseria c) inhibits all GP organisms d) inhibits all GN organisms B
Organisms requiring reducede oxygen for growth are called: a) anaerobic organisms b) aerobic organisms c) facultative anaerobes d) microaerophilic organisms D
A positive Neufeld (Quellung) test is: a) oxidation but not fermentation b) proof that the organism is a pathogen c) visible only by fluorescent light d) capsular swelling due to antigen-antibody rxn D
Satellitism around Staph. on blood agar plates is characterisitic of: a) beta streptococcus b) Strep. meningitidis c) Strep pneumoniae d) Haemophilus D
The causative agent of whopping cough is: a) Enterobacter aerogenes b) Bordetella pertussis c) Salmonella d) Enterococcus B
Pure cultures are important in order to study: a) colony characteristics b) biochemical rxns c) gram stain morphology d) all of the above D
Pseudomonas aeruginosa can produce an odor upon culturing which is described as: a) grape-like b) mousy c) foul d) ammonia-like A
A 27-y.o. female had Sx of urethritis & vaginitis, burning & itching vaginal accompanied by mucopurulent discharge. A GS of discharge reveald GPC in pairs, chain, clusters GNB(diplo), GNB, GPB. a. GS b. Dark field c. culture discharge d. skin test C
Optimum incubation conditions for the above organism are a. 40C aerobically b. 35C under increased CO2 c. 24C aerobically d. 4C under increased CO2 B
From the above info the PROBABLE id of the suspect organism is a. Moraxella osloensis b. Neisseria gonorrheae c. Lactobacillus acidophilus d. Neisseria meningitidis B
On a direct smear, WBCs (pus cells) when stained w/ the gram stain technique, should appear: a) pink or violet b) blue or violet c) yellow or brown d) unstained A
Motile bacteria always possess: a) capsules b) flagella c) metachromatic granules d) spores B
The term "nonfermenter" includes organisms that: a) oxidize lactose b) decarboxylate lysine c) test + for oxidase d) test - for catalase C
All of the following are obligate anaerobes, EXCEPT: a) Citrobacter freundii b) Clostridium botulism c) Bacteroides fragilis d) Peptostreptococcus A
The most commonly used autoclaving procedure for microbiologic hazardous waste is: a) 10 PSI at 105C for 15 min b) 15 PSI at 121C for 15 min c) 20 PSI at 130C for 30 min d) 25 PSI at 160C for 25 min B
Organisms that stain gram positive appear: a) red b) green c) purple d) yellow C
A 22 y.o. female went to the outpatient clinic because she had Sx of frequent urination of small amounts, accompanied by burning & itching sensations. The physician must order which type of culture? a) blood b)urine c. stool d. vaginal B
A 22 y.o. female had Sx of frequent urination of sm amts, accompd by burning & itching sensations. Which media is MOST approp a. SBA/CHOC b. SBA/MTM c. SBA/MAC d. MAC/SSA C
Organisms belonging to the genus Neisseria would exhibit a + rxn to the following test: a) bacitracin b) coagulase c) CAMP d) oxidase D
Campylobacter species are assoc. most frequently w/ cases of: a) osteomyelitis b) gastroenteritis c) endocarditis d) appendicitis B
A "double zone" of hemolysis on blood agar plates is characteristic of: a) Clostridium perfringens b) Clostridium tetani c) Clostridium botulism d) all of the above A
The organism MOST commonly isolated in UTIs is: a) Proteus mirabilis b) E. coli c) Bacteroides fragilis d) Staph. aureus B
Group A Streptococcus is also known as: a) Strep pyogenes b) Strep faecalis c) viridans streptococcus d) Micrococci species A
A cloudy CSF reveals many PMN's and few GPC (diplo) The organism would MOST likely cultivate fro mthe CSF culture would be a. H. influ b. S. pneumoniae c. N. meningitidis d. L. monocytogenes B
Which of the following can be considered normal/ residen flora in throat cultures? a) alpha hemolytic streptococci b) commensal Neisseria species c) diphtheroids d) all of the above D
Which of the following antibiotics does not belong to the family of aminoglycosides? a) gentamicin b) kanamycin c) tobramycin d) cephalothin D
From a culture of a burn wound, you recover a pure culture of an organism which grows well aerobically. The colonies produce a blue-green pigment on SBA. Carbohydrate fermentation tests reveal the organism doesn't ferment glucose. This organism PROBABLY b C
The genus of Enterobacteriaceae that is capable of rapidly producing a + urease test is: a) Escherichia b) Proteus c) Salmonella d) Kebsiella B
A fastidious, GNR that is difficult to gram stain is: a) Proteus vulgaris b) Haemophilus c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) Legionella pneumophila D
Group A streptococci are differentiated from non-group A streptococci by their sensitivity to: a) bacitracin b) streptyolysin O c) optochin d) penicillin A
An anaerobic GPR w/ a terminal spore is: a)Veillonella b) Bacteroides sporogenes c) Clostridium tetani d) Propionibacterium acnes C
Both Salmonella & Shigella species are ALMOST always: a) lactose + b) oxidase + c) lactose - d) hydrogen sulfide producers C
Loeffler methylene blue stain is useful for the ID of metachromatic granules in: a) Corynebacterium diphtheriae b) Cryptococcus c) Clostridium d) Bacteroides A
As a rule, urine colony counts from adult pts w/ an infection show: a) >100,000 colonies/ml of urine b) up to 10,000 colonies/ml of urine c) >100 clonies/ml of urine d) > 10 colonies/ml of urine A
Antibiotics affect bacteria by a) inhibiting cell wall synthesis b) interfering w/ protein synthesis c) inhibition of bacterial enzymes d) all of the above D
When using an ordinary compound microscope, stained bacteria are observed using: a) low power b) high power c) oil immersion d) first low power, then high power C
The carbohydrate(s) fermented by Neisseria meningitidis is/are: a) glucose & maltose b) maltose c0 glucose d) maltose & sucrose A
A nonhemolytic, catalase +, coagulase -, GPC is MOST likely to be: a) Staph aureus b) Staph epidermidis c) a viridans streptococci d) Strep faecalis B
What kind of hemolysis is produced by Strep pneumoniae grown on SBA? a) alpha b) beta c) gamma d) none of the above A
Which of the following will not grow on most artificial lab media? a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa b) Salmonella typhosa c) Treponema pallidum d) Proteus vulgaris C
When culturing a ruine specimen, a calibrate loop was used that transferred 0.001 ml of urine. If 50 colonies of a bacteria were counted on the inoculated agar plate the next day, the colony count would be: a) .05 colonies/ml b) 50 colonies/ml c) 5,000 co D
All of the following may be used for the cultivation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, EXCEPT: a) Sabourad's agar b) Petragnani's agar c) Lowenstein-Jensen agar d) Middlebrook-7H-10 agar A
A visible mass of microorganisms growing on solid artificial medium is called a: a) bacteria b) colony c) gamete d) virus B
Which of the following is the BEST anticoagulant for use in blood culture media? a) SPS (sodium polyanethol sulfonate) b) VCN inhibiator c) 1% tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride d) heparin A
In heat fixing a smear for staining, it is essential to: a) fix the smear while it is still wet b) avoid overheating the smear, which will cause distortion c) vigorously mix the organism to achieve a homogenous film d) all of the above B
Which genus sometimes produces a red-orange pigment when grown at room temp? a) Proteus b) Pseudomonas c) Serratia d) Citrobacter C
Cultivation requirements of Campylobacter are: a) 37C in 10% CO2 & 85% nitrogen b) 37C in 2% O2 c) 42C in 10% CO2 & 85% nitrogen d) 42C in ambient air C
Which of the following conditions need to be controlled in order to cultivate bacteria? a) temp b) humidity c) nutrients (media) d) all of the above D
All of the following are methods used in the microbiology lab to ID bacteria, EXCEPT: a) morphology & gram stain rxn b) culture c) biochemical rxns d) serologic rxns D
Bacterial capsules are detected by: a) serotyping by Neufeld (Quellung) rxn b) India ink stain c) colony morphology d) all of the above D
The motility of an organism can be detected by: a) wet preps b) darkfield microscopy c) motility medium (Semisolid) d) all of the above D
Children who have infections w/ beta hemolytic streptococci can develop: a) acute pyselonephritis b) acute glomerulonephritis c) chronic cystitis d) nephrosis B
A gram stained sputum smear revealed 25-50 squamous epi cells & 10-25 PMNs per 100x field, as well as many lancet-shaped GPC; many GNR; & many GPC in pairs, clumps & long chains. The techs BEST course of action would be to: a) inoculate appropriate media D
Which of the following specimen requests is acceptable? a) feces submitted for anaerobic culture b) foley catheter tip submitted for aerobic culture c) rectal swab submitted for direct smear for gonococci d) urine for culture of acid fast bacilli b & d
A GNR was isolated from a bite from a pet cat. The following char seen: oxidase: +, glucose OF: fermentative, catalase: +, motility: -, MacConkey's agar: no growth a. P. aerginosa b. Pasteurella multocida c. Aeromonas hydrophilla d. Vibrio cholerae B
Choc agar base containing vancomycin, colistin, nystatin, & trimethoprim is also known as: a) EMB agar b) modified Thayer-Martin agar c) Columbia CNA d) MacConkey's agar B
In a disc diffusion susceptibility test, which of the following can result if discs are placed on the inoculated media & left at room temp for an hr before incubation? a) the antibiotics would not diffuse into the medium, resulting in no zone b) zones of C
Which of the following combos of organisms would be appropriate as controls to test the fxns listed: a) beta hemo--E. coli/S. pyogenes b) cat--S. aureus & S. epiderm c) hydrogen sulfide prod--P. mirabilis/Salmon typhi d. indole-- E. coli/Proteus mirabilis D
A beta hemo, cat +, GPC is coag neg(slide). Which is MOST approp action in ID of this organism? a) report a coag neg Staph b) report coag neg Staph aureus c) reconfirm the hemolytic reaction on a fresh 24 hr culture d. do a tube coag test to confirm slide D
Which characteristic best differentiates Actinobacter species from Moraxella species? a) production of indophenol oxidase b) growth on MacConkey's agar c) motility d) susceptibility to penicillin A
Which of the following organisms can grow in the small bowel & cause diarrhea in children, travel's diarrhea, or severe cholera-like syndrome through the production of enterotoxins? a) Yersinia enterocolitica b) E. coli c) Salmonella typhi d) Shigella dys B
When combined, antimicrobial drugs are clearly less effective than the most active drug alone, the condition is described as: a) minimal inhibitory conc b) synergism c) minimum bactericidal conc d) antagonism D
The smallest conc of antimicrobial agent that prevents growth in subculture or results in 99.9% decrease of the initial inoculum is the definition of: a) minimum bactericidal conc b) indifference of additive c) minimal inhibitory conc d) synergism A
If the effect of combined antimicrobial agents is greater than the sum of the effects observed w/ the 2 drugs independently, the condition is described as: a) indifference of additive b) inhibition c) synergism d) antagonism C
The smallest amount of an antimicrobial agent which will inhibit visible growth of an organism is the definition of: a) synergism b) minimal inhibitory conc c) indifference of additive d) minimum bactericidal conc B
Beta hemolytic streptococci that are bacitracin resistant & CAMP test positive are: a) group A or B b) group A c) group B d) beta hemolytic group D C
Beta hemolytic streptococci that are bacitracin sensitive & CAMP test negative are: a) group B b) group A c) beta hemolytic group D d) beta hemolytic, not group A, B or D B
A TSI (triple sugar, iron) tube inoculated w/ an organism gave the following rxns: alkaline slant: no H2S, acid butt: no gas produced. This organism is MOST likely: a) Yersinia enterocolitica b) Salmonella typhi c) Salmonella enteritis d) Shigella dysente D
An organism was inoculated to a TSI tube & gave the following rxns: acid slant: no H2S, acid butt: gas produced This organism is MOST likely a) Klebsiella pneumoniae b) Shigella dysenteriae c) Salmonella typhimurium d) Salmonella typhi A
When a Brucella species is suspected in a blood culture, the bottle should be held for a minimum of: a) 5 days b) 7 days c) 14 days d) 21 days D
The ONPG test allows organisms to be classified as a lactose fermenter by testing for which of the following? a) permease b) beta galactosidase c) beta lactamase d) phosphatase B
Tests for beta lactamase production in Haemophilus influenzae: a) are not commercially available b) includes tests that measure a change to an alkaline pH c) should be performed on all blood & CSF isolates d) are not valid for any other bacterial species C
Listeria can be confused w/ some streptococci because of its hemolysis & because it is: a) nonmotile b) catalase negative c) oxidase + d) esculin + D
The most critical distinction between Staph aureus & other staphylococcus is: a) phosphatase rxn b) DNA production c) coagulase production d) hemolysis C
The bacterium MOST often responsible for acute epiglottis is: a) Bordetella pertussis b) Haemophilus influenzae c) Haemophilus aphrophilus d) Group A beta hemolytic streptococci B
Strep pneumoniae can be differentiated best from the viridans group of streptococci by: a) gram stain b) the type of hemolysis c) colonial morphology d) bile solubility D
The best medium for culture of Bordetella pertussis is: a) Bordet-Gengou b) cystine blood agar c) modified Thayer-Martin d) Loeffler's A
A positive niacin test is most characteristic of Mycobacterium: a) chelonei b) marinum c) tuberculosis d) xenopi C
A small GNR isolated from an eye culture has the following test results: X factor requirement: Yes V factor requirement: Yes Hemolysis on blood agar: No This organism is MOST probably Haemophilus: a) influenzae b) parainfluenzae c) haemolyticus d) pa A
A medium that is used for primary isolation & enhances the growth of a particular organism is called: a) enrichment b) simple c) differential d) nutrient A
Mycobacteria that produce pigment only after exposure to light are classified as: a) photochromogens b) scotochromogens c) rapid growers d) nonphotochromogens A
In a suspected case of Hansen's disease (leprosy), a presumptive diagnosis is established by: a) isolation of organisms on Lowenstein-Jensen medium b) detection of weakly acid fast rods in infected tissue c) isolation of organisms in a cell culture d) det B
In agar disc susceptibility testing, as an antimicrobial agent diffuses away from the disc, the conc gradient is: a) increased b) decreased c) unchanged d) inoculum dependent B
The formation of germ tubes presumptively IDs: a) Candida tropicalis b) Candida parapsilosis c) Candida glabrata d) Candida albicans D
The expected colony count in a suprapubic urine from a healthy individual is: a) O colonies/ml b) 100 colonies/ml c) 1000 colonies/ml d) 10,000 colonies/ml A
Mycoplasmas differ from bacteria in that they: a) do not cause disease in humans b) cannot grow in artificial media c) lack cell walls d) are not serologically antigenic C
Microorganisms that are commonly found in or on the body are called: a) parasites b) transients c) normal/residual flora d) pathogens C
The gram staining technique is a procedure that helps us to visualize bacteria & differentiate between the two types of bacterial cell walls: a) Eucaryotic & procaryotic b) bacterial & fungal c) staph & strep d) gram pos & gram neg D
Antimicrobial agents that kill bacteria directly are: a) phagocytic b) bacteriostatic c) bactericidal d) viricidal C
The term zoonoses refers to disease transmission from: a) animals to humans b) bacteria to humans c) humans to animals d) insects to animals A
The basic elements necessary to cause infection include all of the following EXCEPT: a) susceptible host b) an infectious agent c) proper handwashing technique d) a suitable route of entry C
A good quality assurance plan for microbiology should include a) specimens & media b) rgts & equipment c) instrumentation & personnel d) all of the above D
The ATCC strain of a microorganism is used to: a) test the competence of the employee b) test the reliability of the tests & media c) verify the adequacy of the specimen d) test the reliability of the thermometers B
The purpose of a quality assurance program is: a) to maintain temp charts on instruments b) to ensure that the lab's results are reliable c) to ensure that employees are paid equitably d) to maintain state of the art instrumentation B
All of the following are methods of susceptibility testing EXCEPT: a) broth macrodilution b) enterostix c) broth microdilution d) agar disc diffusion B
A set of ten test tubes of diluted antibiotic broth were inoculated & incubated overnight. The first five tubes in sequence were turbid. Tubes 6 through 10 were subcultured, & no growth was determined from tube 8 onward. Whan can be said of tube 6? a) thi C
Media that are used to distinguish the types of bacteria that are able to grow on them are: a) selective b) differential c) not useful in the micro lab d) never both selective & differential B
The production of a suitable slide for staining involves a process that allows the bacterial cells to adhere to the glass slide. This process is called: a) fixation b) decolorization c) smearing d) emulsification A
The ID of the members of Enterobacteriaceae is accomplished by performing biochemical tests & determining fermentation characteristics. When fermentaiton occurs, acid formation is detected: a) by no growth in the tube b) as an accumulation of gas c) as a C
In a fermentation rxn, gas production is detected by the use of a: a) gassed-out tube b) durham tube c) Voges-Proskower tube d) ENB tube B
The isolation & growth of a single type of microorganism in or on artifical media refers to: a) pure culture b) sporulation c) fixation d) aspetic technique A
A wound culture swab was sent to the clinical lab & inoculated onto the appropriate media. After a 24-hr incubation, all plates incubated at 37C in ambient atmospheres had no growth. However, growth was demonstreated in the bottom of the fluid thio tube. B
The structure of the GP cell wall allows GP organisms to: a) retain safranin complexes b) retain crystal violet-iodine complexes c) accelerate decolorization d) accept the counter stain B
Staph saprophyticus can be distinguished from other coagulase-neg Staphylococci by: a) Neomycin resistance b) Novobiocin resistance c) Niacin resistance d) Tetracycline resistance B
Which genus has a characteristic "Chinese letter" arrangement? a) Pseudomonas b) Staphylococcus c) Bacillus d) Corynebacterium D
One of the most important tests for differentiation of Neisseria from other cocci isL a) hemolysis on blood agar b) production of catalase c) production of oxidase d) production of indole C
Helicobacter pylori is the etiologic agent of: a) chancroid b) toxic shock syndrome c) neonatal meningitis d) gastric ulcer D
A tech serts up an anaerobic culture in a GAS PAK jar. Upon reexamination of the jar 2 hrs later, the tech notes that the methylene-blue indicator strip is blue in color. This would indicate: a) O2 is removed from the system b) anaerobic conditions have n B
Media for the isolation of Mycobacteria should contain: a) blood b) whole egg c) chopped meat d) maltose B
When all of the confirmatory tests have not yet been performed, an ID is considereed: a) definitive b) presumptive c) selective d) retrospective B
What are the steps in performing a gram stain? 1. primary stain-violet 2. wash 3. apply mordant iodine 4. wash 5. apply decolorizer 6. wash 7. apply counter stain- safranin
What are spores & how do they appear on gram stain? Spores are the dormant stage of some bacteria. They appear as unstained oval or round area in the bacteria
Define aerobe An organism that can survive & grow in an oxygenated environment
Define obligate aerobe An aerobic organism that requires O2 to grow; uses O2 to oxidize substances, like sugars or fats for energy.
Define facultative aerobe They grow & survive in an oxygenated environment; makes ATP by aerobic respiration if O2 is present but is capable of switching to fermentation
Define microaerophilic Requires O2 to survive, but requires environments containing lower levels of O2 than are present in the atmospher; can be cultivated in a candle jar
Define anaerobe An organism that doesn't require O2 for growth
Define obligate anaerobe Can't use O2 for growth & are even harmed by it
Define facultative anaerobe Can grow w/out O2 but can utilize O2 if it's present
Define aerotolerant Can't use O2 for growth, but tolerate the presence of it
Define capnophilic Microorganisms which thrive in the presence of high concs of CO2
Define alpha The agar under the colony is dark & greenish; partial hemolysis
Define beta Complete hemoylsis; complete breakdown of RBCs
Define gamma The agar under & around the colony is unchanged
Created by: nizhoni