Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
MT
CA CLS
| Q | A |
|---|---|
| Aspirin ingestion will have the following hemostatic effects: | Prolonged bleeding time |
| A test's positivity in the presence of disease is termed it's: | sensitivity |
| A test's negativity in the absence of disease is termed it's: | specificity |
| The coefficient variant (CV) is: | standard deviation expressed in terms of % of the average value used to calculate standard deviation |
| What best characterizes serum bilirubin levels in the first weeks following delivery? | jaundice is usually first seen 48-72 hours post partum in neonatal hyperbilirubinemia |
| What analyte does NOT occur in significantly greater concentration in erythrocytes than in plasma? | uric acid |
| The term OSMOLALITY is used to identify: | number of moles of solute per kilogram of water |
| The purpose of a flame in atomic absorption measurement is to: | convert the element of interest to an atomic state in a vapor |
| What conditions should be used in electrophoresis of thick gels? | constant power, so that heat remains constant as voltage changes |
| What immunoglobulin is found in serum predominantly as a pentamer and which secretory immunoglobulin is found as a dimer? | pentamer: IgM, dimer: IgA |
| Antigen in combonation to a mast cell caused the release of: | histamine |
| What is true concerning the analysis of serum proteins from AIDS patients? | Monoclonal proteins are only occassionally observed in AIDS patients |
| The principle immunoglobulin which crosses the placenta barrier is: | IgG1 |
| Urinary excretion of Bence Jones proteins are generally associated with: | multiple myeloma |
| Elevation in total CSF protein may be seen in all the ff. states EXCEPT: | epilepsy |
| The protein electrophoresis pattern of a plasma sample reveals a fibrinogen peak within: | beta globulins |
| The Biuret reaction for total serum proteins is based upon the reaction of: | Cu+2 ions with peptide bonds |
| Urate precipiation is avoided if 24 hour urines are collected in: | NAOH |
| Physiologically important buffers maintaining body pH include...? Exclude...? | Include: bicarbonate, protein, hemoglobin, and lactate; Exclude: phosphate |
| Decreased arterial pO2 can be caused by...? Does NOT include...? | Includes: high altitude, respiratory distress syndrome, emphysema, and barbituate respiratory depression; Does NOT include: polycythemia |
| What are components of gastric secretions? | hydrochloric acid, intrinsic factor, and pepsinogen |
| Serum cholesterol levels are decreased upon the administration of: | growth hormone, thyroxine, and glucagon |
| Plasma progesterone concentration in nonpregnant females: | Increases to a maximum a few days post ovulation |
| What tissue has the highest activity of both ALT and AST relative to serum? | Liver |
| Which lipoprotein is richest in phospholipids? | HDL |
| A brown colored urine is likely due to: | oxidation of oxyhemoglobin to methemoglobin |
| What is the usual relationship of cerebrospinal fluid glucose values to plasma glucose values? | 40-80% of plasma values |
| Increased alkaline phosphatase activity is seen in: | Paget's disease |
| A stat plasma lithium determined using an ion-selective electrode is measured at 14.0 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate course of action? | call for a new specimen |
| Hantavirus pulmonary disease is spread by: | rodent droppings or urine |
| Compared with normal CSF, the CSF from a patient with bacterial meningitis will have: | lowered glucose level and elevated protein level |
| A useful screen for the enteric pathogen E.coli 0157H7 (to diiferentiate between it from normal stool flora) is: | sorbitol fermentation |
| What are two agents of food poisoning usually causes illness due to pre-formed toxin in food: | Bacillus cereus and Clostridium botulinum |
| What oxygen level best cooresponds to the microaerophilic conditiond best suited for growing Camplobacter and Helicobacter? | 5% CO2 |
| Except for newborns, the most common bacterial causes of bacterial meningitis are: | Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis |
| Which biosafety level is most appropriate for working with Mycobacterium tuberculosis? | Biosafety level 3 |
| A test for resistance of Streptococcus pneumoniae to Penicillin, look for: | A zone of < or equal to 17 mm around an oxacillin disk |
| Which traits of an antibiotic would make it desirable for a physician to prescribe it? | low minimal inhibitory concentration, low toxicity, and high urine achievable level |
| Enteric pathogens which commonly cause disease in the winter are: | Yersenia entercolitica and Rotavirus |
| This organism causes post-antibiotic diarrhea or pseudomonas colitis and grows on cycloserine-ceftoxitin fructose agar, forming colonies which have a ground glass appearance: | Clostridium difficile |
| Organisms that cause pits to be formed in agar are: | Eikenella corrodens and Bacteroides ureolyticus |
| A new rapid test for group A hemolytic streptococci in throat specimens has a sensitivity of 50% and a specificity of 50%. You should: | not use the test; it is no better than a coin toss |
| Nucleic acid amplification tests are best for: | difficult to culture specimens |
| Examination of a stool smear by Gram stain shows the presence of many polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs). What would likely be the cause of the patients diarrhea? | Salmonella and Shigella |
| Haemoohilus influenzae requires this for growth | hemin (X factor) and NAD (V factor) |
| A significant urinary infection is most likey present when: | there are >100,000 bacteria/mL present in urine, there are 10,000 bacteria/mL present in catheterized urine, and there are 10,000 bacteria present in urine with whom patient has been taking antibiotics |
| What organism rarely causes a false positive blood culture? | Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A strep) |
| A good plan for collecting blood cultures is: | in 3 separate venipunctures, 1 hour or more apart |
| What organism is associated with animal bites? | Pastuerella multocida |
| Staphylococcus saprophyticus is: | catalase positive, coagulase negative, and resistant to Novobiocin |
| This organism is resistant to multiple antibiotics: | Corynebacterium jeikeium |
| An organism that forms breadcrumb-like colonies and appears as thin, tapered Gram negative bacilli with pointed ends on a Gram stain is: | Clostridium ramosum (closet rams like breadcrumbs) |
| A serum cidal level is most appropriate when: | patient is on oral antibiotics and there is uncertainty about whether the drug is being absorbed properly, and pneumoniae due to Haemophilus influenzae |
| A patient has aspiration pneumoniae. A transtracheal aspiration is used to collect a specimen for culture. What would be significant in such a culture? | mouth flora such as alpha hemolytic streptococci and Neisseria species, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Klebsiella pneumoniae and other Enterobacteriacae, and Corynebacterium other than C diptheriae |
| Lyme disease is caused by: | Borrelia burgdorferi |
| Mycoses fungoides and Sezary syndrome are rare lymphomas characterized by: | large peripheral blood lyphocytes with "cerebriform" nuclei |
| At the time of diagnosis, the peripheral blood film of a patient with multiple myeloma typically shows | rouleaux |
| The Reed-Sternberg cell is characterized as having: | large nucleoli with a distinct halo (Reeds halo) |
| When Reed-Sternberg cells are found in a lymph node biopsy, it is indicative of: | Hodgkins disease |
| Hairy cell leukemia is a disease in which abnormal cells: | demonstrate positivity with tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase stain |
| The major morphologic distinction between ALL and a reactive lymphocytosis such as infectious mononucleosis (IM) is: | Pleomorphic morphology among reactive lymphocytes in IM |
| TdT activity is present in: | primitive lymphoid cells |
| The techniques used to classify the acute nonlymphocytic leukemias are: | immunologic, morphologic, and cytochemical |
| What are used to identify the acute nonlymphocytic leukemias are: | Peroxidase, alpha-napthyl butyrate, and ASD chloroacetate (TdT is NOT used) |
| In the absence of blood loss, the laboratory results most useful in initial diagnosis of a hemolytic anemia is: | increased reticulocyte count |
| When distinguishing between mature and immature leukocytes, the most reliable morphologic characteristic is: | nuclear chromatin pattern |
| A high serum ferritin level, and high % transferrin saturation are most consistent with: | hemochromatosis |
| Two Hbs that migrate together on cellulose acetate at alkaline pH are: | S and D |
| The migration speed of Hbs on cellulose acetate at an alkaline pH from fastest to slowest is: | H, A1, F, S, A2 |
| A false positive sickle solubility test can be caused by: | extreme leukocytosis when using a whole blood sample |
| The presence of ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow is related to: | accumulation of iron in mitochondria due to defective iron utilization |
| The laboratory test that is abnormal because intravascular hemolysis, but usually normal with increased extravascular hemolysis is: | fecal urobilinogen |
| What is an acute phase reactant and therefore may be normal or elevated in spite of iron deficiency? | ferritin |
| The typical findings in iron deficieny anemia are: | low sodium ferritin, RBC microcytosis, and low% transferrin saturation |
| An erythrocyte inclusion that appears as a few small irregularly shaped granules and stains positively with Prussian blue is: | siderotic granules |
| Most of the erythrocytes energy comes from the: | Embden-Meyerhoff pathway |
| Hemoglobin affinity for O2 is regulated by: | 2, 3-DPG |
| The corrext maturation order of erythrocyte morphologic stages is: | rubriblast, prorubricyte, and metarubricyte |
| The Hbs that are composed of four gamma-chains (Y4) and four Beta-chains (B4) are, respectively: | Hbs Barts and S |
| The abnormally increased Hb electrophoresis values that would usually EXCLUDE the possibility of alpha-thalassemia are: | HbA2 and Hb F (Hb H and Hb Barts cause alpha-thalassemia) |
| In the blood film slide test for Hb F: | an acid buffer elutes all Hbs except Hb F; cells with Hb F stain bright pink; cells without Hb F appear as ghost cells |
| Megaloblastic changes in the peripheral blood may include: | giant neutrophils with clear hypersegmentation, an MCV as high as 130 fL, and pancytopenia with increasing severity in anemia |
| Hb H inclusion bodies may: | make red cells look like "pitted gold balls" |
| When drawing blood for coagulation, we use blood from the second tube for coagulation test for the following reason: | blood from the first tube may be contaminated with tissue thromboplastin |
| In a patient with classic DIC, one would expect these results: | elevated FSP's, prolonged thrombin time, and decreased fibrinogen level. (You will NOT see an elevated platelet count) |
| What are the factors that are dependent on Vit K for synthesis of their final functional structure: | IX, X, II, and VII (NOT XII) |
| Lupus anticoagulants are characterized by: | no hemorrhagic tendency, abnormal PTT, antiphospholipid antibody, and immediate acting antibody |
| What substance is a plasminogen activator? | Streptokinase |
| Which antibodies are encountered in the colder range of temperature? | Anti-H, anti-M, anti-P1, and anti-Le^a |
| When evaluating the results of an antibody identification, what should be considered? | the reaction of the auto control, the presence or absence of hemolysis, and the reaction pahse in which a positive result is obtained |
| Antibody enhancement reagents can aide in the identification of antibodies, what antibody is NOT enhanced by enzymes? | Fy^a |
| The strength of an antibody can be determined by serial two-fold dilutions against a selected red cell suspension. The presence of rising titers in maternal serum containing alloantibodies may be predictive if HDN. True or False? | TRUE |
| A pt is typed as group O+, and is crossmatched in an emergency with 5 units of O+ rbcs. The pts antibody screen is pos and one compatibility test shows agglutination in the AHG phase. All other tests are neg on immediate spin and at 37. The antbody is? | anti-K |
| What antigens are destroyed by enzyme treatment? | Fy^a and M |
| The antigens Js^a and Kp^b belong to which system? | Kell |
| What is true about monoclonal anti-D reagents? | they are made predominantly from IgM human monoclonal antibodies, they require no potentiators and agglutinate most D red cells of adults and infants in saline, they show stronger reactivity than IgG D reagents |
| Mr. Hemostasis had the following phenotyping reactions: D+, C+, E-, c+, e+. What is the Rh phenotype? | R1r |
| If a patients serum demonstrates an anti-C in his serum, which of the following donor blood would be compatible? | R1R1 |
| Anti-lectin is from the extract of the ulex europaeus plant. It is used to distinguish: | persons of the Oh Bombay blood group |
| What is the most probable cause for the following test result: Forward grp: Anti-A 4+, Anti-B 2+, Anti-A1B 4+, Rev grp: A1 cells -, B cells 4+, O cells -, Autocontrol -. | patient has group A with an aquired B antigen |
| The antibodies you would expect to see in the serum of an individual with Oh Bombay phenotype are: | Anti-A, anti-B, and anti-H |
| Mixed field agglutination may occur between commercially prepared anti-A1 and red cells that are group: | A3 |
| The terminal sugars of the antigenic determinants of A and B blood groups are: | N-acetyl-galactosamine and L-fucose and D-galactose |
| The following results are obtained when performing blood grouping on an individual: Forward grp: Anti-A +, Anti-A1 -, Anti-B +, Anti-A1B +. Rev grp: A1 cells +, A2 cells -, B cells -, O cells -. What does this show? | A2B with an Anti-A1 in the serum |
| This may be used to treat both the anemia and hyperbilirubinemia in a newborn infant: | exchange transfusion |
| What is an application of "enzyme treated red cells": | The enzymes enhance the identification of the MNS group antibodies |
| Passive Rh immunization using RhIG (Rh immunoglobulin) is intended to: | drastically decrease the risk of Rh immunization during pregnancy |
| Which cells most effectively eliminate transplanted cells? | T lymphocytes |
| The hepatitis B virus vaccine was administered to a new hospital employee. Which type of immunity is expected to develop and provide long term protection? | active |
| A substance that induces an immune response is called an: | antigen |
| Which procedure is quantitative:, CIEP, IEP, IFC or RID? | RID |
| The source of complement in the complement fixation test is? | guinea pig complement |
| Which is the best indication of acute phase: | C-reactive protein |
| Light scattering caused by immunoprecipitation can be measured by: | nephelometer, flourometer, turbidimeter, and a high quality spectrophotometer |
| The ______ blot is a technique used to detect specific _____ in clinical specimens: | Southern blot, detects DNA |
| A false negative cold agglutinin test may result if: | the specimen was centrifuged at room temperature |
| The oxygen labile enzyme named ______ and the oxygen stable enzyme named _____ are two hemolysins produced by most Streptococcus Group A strains: | Streptolysin O, and Streptolysin S |
| The classical anti-streptolysin O (ASO) results are valid when the streptolysin control: | demonstrates complete hemolysis |
| What EBV serology pattern would be present in a patient with primary infection? | VCA-IgM: positive, VCA-IgG: positive, EBNA: negative |
| A limitation of this test method is that it cannot be distimguished between infectious mononucleosis, Forssman and serum sickness heterophil antibodies: | paul-Bunnell test |
| Lyme disease is an infectious disease caused by: | Borrelia burgdorferi |
| Paired sera collected from a patient several weeks apart demonstrates a fourfold rise in titer. It is to be diagnostic of: | current infection |
| What is true concerning a toxoplasma infection? | the infection can be transmitted transplacentally, and it is relatively a mild disease in newborn and AIDS patients |
| The infectious mononuleosis heterophil antibody is absorbed by: | beef erythrocytes |
| Reagin antibodies present in syphilis infection are: | antibodies produced by infected patients against their own cells or other mammalian cells |
| Oval fat bodies in the urine are a characteristic feature of patient's with: | nephrotic syndrome |
| When an object present in the urine sediment has close to the same refractive index as the surrounding medium, it is difficult to see. What type of microscopy is recommended for using such structure? | phase-contract microscopy |
| The following results of 4 patients w/a 24 hour urine are: Pt 1= 10mL/24hr; Pt 2= 400 mL/24hr; Pt 3= 1200 mL/24hr; Pt 4= 2000 mL/24hr. What condition asscociated with each? | anuria,oliguria, isosthenuria, and polyuria respectively |
| To check reagent reactivity and technologist performance, urine sticks should be tested: | daily or whenever a new bottle is opened |
| What substance is used to check and adjust calibration of refractometer used to measure urine specific gravity? | deionized H2O |
| Bence Jones proteins are normally found in the urine of a patient with: | multiple myeloma |
| During urine formation which substance is not allowed to filter through the glomerulus? | plasma protein |
| The working unit of the kidney is the: | nephron |
| In cytocentrifuged CSF, a predominance of neutrophils usually indicates which etiology for an infection? | bacterial |
| In a normal semen sample, what cells may be seen? | WBCs, mature sperm cells, and epithelial lining cells |
| To determine if red blood cells present in a specimen of amniotic fluid originate in the fetus, as opposed to being of maternal origin, what tests can be used? | Kleinhauer betke stain, and Hgb electrophoresis |
| The chemistry procedure performed on a specimen of amniotic fluid to determine the possible presence of a neural tube defect is: | alpha fetoprotein |
| Lumbar puncture for CSF analysis is most essential to diagnose what condition? | meningitis |
| In amniotic fluid, the laboratory measurement used to assess fetal lung maturity is: | L/S ratio |
| In synovial fluid, the most characteristic microscopic finding in gouty arthritis is: | monosodium urate crystals |
| A rose gardener pricked himself. A subcutaneous wound with necrotic ulcers developed where the direct inoculation occurred. Fungus culture grew at room temperature with delicate hyphae and conidia and cigar-shaped yeast at 35 C. These isolates are? | Sporothrix schenckii |
| The location of sporangiophores in relation to rhizoids is the major clue in the differentiation between rhizopus from | Absidia |
| Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton mentagrophytes may be differentiated by the: | hair penetration test |
| What tests are used to identify cryptococcus neoformans? | Urea test, carbohydrate fermentation, Niger seed agar, and nitrate reduction medium |
| The best direct diagnosis of Echinococcus granulosus infection in man is: | hydatid cysts in tissues |
| The following can be used to detect Cryptosporidium infection: | can be diagnosed though AFB stain, size is 4-6 mm, produces watery and profuse diarrhea, and has an oocyst infective stage |
| What findings are associated with Paragonimus westermani? | 85x120 mm ova, can be found in stool, rust colored sputum, can get if you eat raw or half-cooked crab or crayfish |
| The major target of the HIV virus is: | CD4 marker on the surface of T helper cells |
| Coxsackie virus can be cultured primarily in: | monkey kidney cells |
| A DNA containing virus is: | HBV |
| The Center for Disease Control and Prevention includes CD4+ clinical conditions. The defined CD4+ count is: | <200 cells/uL |
| Some boys went camping and upon return developed malaria-like symptoms. After 3 days all boys were better except one. The boy was taken to the ER where they found he had been splenetomized. Blood smear showed RBCs w/maltese cross formation. What is it? | Babesia microtii |
| Important diagnostic information may be provided by the accurate identification of tape worm proglottids found in stool specimens. What describes Taenia saginata? | 15-30 uterine branches, proglottids may not be gravid, scolex have 4 suckers but no hooks, cysticercus larvae |
| What pair of helminths cannot be reliably differentiated by the appearance of their eggs? | Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale |
| Total WBC = 10,000/uL, 36 eosinophils were counted in one mm squares after a 1:10 dilution in a hemacytometer. What is the percentage of eosinophils should be found in the peripheral blood smear? | 1-3% |
| These statements are true of heparin: | heparin can be used to treat thrombosis, heparin is found in vivo in the metachromatic granules of mast cells, heparin turns a smear stained in Wrights stain BLUE |
| Prolonged application of a tourniquet during blood collection will: | concentrate the blood cells thus falsely increasing hematocrit |
| Standard deviation is defined as the: | measure of the scatter around the mean in a normal distribution |
| You wish to establish a 2SD range for an unassayed control that is to be used subsequently as a daily control. The best method of collecting replicate data is: | run 20-30 replicates over a period of 20-30 days |
| A random error is caused by: | intrinsic properties of a mthod due to chance |
| A systematic trend is caused by: | An increasing or decreasing gradual deterioration of a test system |
| A volume/volume is made with 30 mL concentrated nitric acid and 120 mL distilled water. The volume of distilled water required to make a final dilution ratio of: | 450 mL |
| What is mandatory for a preventative maitenance program? | it identifies equipment and assigns responsibility |
| The wavelengths in the ultraviolet region are: | below 400 nm |
| The mean cholesterol concentration of a sample run 20m times is 3120 mg/L with standard deviation of 18. What is the coefficient of variation? | 0.57% |
| A new immunochemical method for CK-MB is being evaluated. The zero calibrator was assayed 10 times as a sample. The results are shown below: -0.3, 0.4, -0.3, 0.1, 0.2, -0.2, 0.3, 0.3, -0.1, 0.3. What is the detection limit? | 0.6 |
| Nephelometry differs from turbidimetry in that: | the light scattered at an angle is measured |
| Of all the colorimetric methods for creatinine, which reagents are used for the Jaffe reaction? | alkaline picrate |
| A blood urea nitrogen concentration reported as 120 mg/L is equal to how many milligrams per liter? | 257 |
| Physiologically important buffers maintaining body pH include bicarbonate, protein, hemoglobin, and phosphate. They do not include: | lactate |
| Whatnis the pH of a whole blood specimen if the bicarbonate equals 13 mmol/L and the pCO2 equals 31 mmHg? | 7.24 |
| Given the following blood gas results, what state is present? pH= 7.40 (n=7.35-7.45); pCO2= 60mmHg (n=35-45); HCO3= 37 mmol/L (n=22-26); O2= 30mmHg (n=85-110) | mixed respiratory acidosis and metabolic alkalosis disorder |
| Given the results from a patient with impaired renal function, what is the creatinine clearance? serum creat= 31 mg/L; Urine creat= 830 mg/3; Urine vol= 895 ml/day | 18.3 ml/min |
| Sources of serum lipase include stomach, small intestine, lung and pancreas. It does not include: | liver |
| What is NOT a rationale for monitoring the blood concentrations of therapeutic drugs? | wide therapeutic index |
| Cyclosporine, a drug useful in transplantation... | inhibits interleukin 1 production in macrophages and inhibits interleukin 2 production by T cells |
| Valproic acid is useful in treating: | absence seizures |
| Carbon monoxide toxicity is best explained by which statement? | CO is bound to hemoglobin 200 times more strongly than oxygen is |
| What members of the family Enterobacteriaceae do ferment glucose? | Salmonella, Proteus, Yersenia, Providencia, and Shigella all ferment glucose |
| The laboratory test that is abnormal because of intrvascular hemolysis, but usually normal with increased extravascular hemolysis is: | plasma hemoglobin |
| A has a PT of 11.3 secs (norm=11-13 secs) and a PTT of 55 secs(norm=24-34 secs). There is no history of bleeding. Substitution studies were done and the PTT was corrected by both aged serum and adsorbed plasma. The factor most likely to be deficient is: | Factor XII |
| Of the following antibodies, which would be the most difficult to find compatible blood for in an emergency? | Fy^a |
| What are the characteristics of an Anti-M antibody? | no history of immunization may be evident, reactions are depressed with enzyme treatyed cells, reactions are usually stronger at room temp and may be negative at AHG phase. DOES NOT bind complement |
| The hepatitis known as the "infectious hepatitis" is: | Hepatitis A |
| The presence of what Hepatitis B marker is indicative of infection? | anti-HBc IgM |
| The AIDS virus HIV-I has also been known as HTLV-III and LAV. But NEVER known as: | HTLV-I (human T-cell lymphotrophic virus type I) |
| Which method based on genetic technology may be used to monitor the inactivation of HIV by drugs? | DNA amplification |
| What is the most sensitive serologic procedure for the detection of primary syphilis? | RPR |
| When testing a patient for HIV antibody, which of the following is used to confirm a positive screening test? | Western blot and Immunofluorescence |
| Which test detects the presence of Treponemal antibodies? | MHA-TP |
| A highly specific marker for late stage of Lyme disease is? | p39 antigen |
| Western blot for Lyme disease: | gives more definite results in later Lyme disease because multiple bands can be detected |
| The observation of a strong ammoniacal odor when performing the urinalysis is most often caused by: | improper handling and storage |
| The color of normal urine is primarily caused by which pigment? | urochrome |
| The presence and concentration _______ is the most significant in detection and diagnosis of renal disease? | protein |
| What is associated with proteinuria due to glomerular damage? | albumin |
| What substance is NOT detected by reagent strip tests for glucose? | hemosiderin |
| Tests for urine urobilinogen may be used to assess: | liver function and red cell distruction |
| In order to be present in the urine, bilirubin must be: | bilirubin glucuronide and conjugated bilirubin |
| When reporting a change of name or address, every person licensed as a Clinical Laboratory Scientist shall report to the department within ______ days? | 30 days |
| What limited licenses are currently recognized? | Toxicology, Clinical Chemistry, Clinical Microbioligy, and Immunohematology |
| Upon receiving the license, the license must be placed: | displayed conspicuously in the laboratory where the tests are performed |
| In order to receive a Clinical Laboratory Scientist Trainee license, one must complete at least ____ semester hours of chemistry? | 16 hours |
| On and after January 1, 1994, the department shall require not more than _____ hours of continuing education annually as a condition for renewal of a license? | 12 hours |
| How many grams of NH2CONH2 is needed to obtain 10 mg/dL of N? N= 14, H= 1, C= 12, O= 16 | 0.214g |
Created by:
labrat77
Popular Laboratory Science sets