Net 122 Word Scramble
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Question | Answer |
What factor is not important for choosing the best windows Server 2012 edition for your environment? | Heating and Cooling system of the datacenter |
The Windows Server 2012 edition which is designed or servers with up to 64 processors is ________________ . | Windows Server 2012 Data Center |
The Windows Server 2012 edition limited to one physical or virtual server instance and a maximum of 25 users is ________ . | Windows Server 2012 Essentials |
The Windows Server 2012 edition available through the Microsoft volume licensing program and from original equipment manufacturers (OEM), but not retail is _________ . | Windows Server 2012 Data Center |
Active directory lightweight directory services is available on what Windows Server editions? | DataCenter, Standard and Foundation |
File and Storage Services falls into which of the following basic role categories: | Application Services |
As Windows Server 2012 focuses more on virtualization, administrators must consider the roles a server performs both at deployment as well as in the future. | True |
The Server Core installation option in Windows Server 2012 effectively removes ______ . | Graphical User Interface |
Administrator decides to install the operating system via the Server Core in Windows Server 2012. There is no way to get the GUI back at a later date except to perform a compete reinstallation | False |
What is the difference between striped and spanned volumes? | With striped volumes, the system writs data one strip at a time per disk in the volume. |
Regarding both striped and spanned volumes, what is the maximum number of physical disks permitted to create a volume? | 32 |
To extend or shrink a volume, of which built-in groups must you be a member? | Backup Operators or Administrators |
What disk types can be extended ? | Virtual Disk only |
What is the preferred graphical tool in Windows Server 2012 with which you can manage storage pools and create virtual disks? | Server Manager |
What is the simplest and least expensive of external drive arrays? | JBOD |
What RAID level is a stripe set with distributed party? This RAID level is implemented in Windows Server 2012. | RAID 5 |
Windows Server 2012 includes a new disk virtualization technology called ______________, which enables a server to concatenate storage space from individual physical disks. | Storage Spaces |
What is the new file system available in Windows Server 2012? | ReFS |
What was the partition style(s) prior Windows Server 2008 and Windows Vista? | Master Boot Record (MBR) Only |
After you create a new VHD, it appears as a __________ in the Disk Management snap-in and in Server Manager. | uninitialized disk |
After you install your physical disks, you can concatenate their space together, from which you can create virtual disks of any size. This total space is called a __________ . | Storage Pool |
What is the minimum number of physical disks required to create a RAID 5 volume? | 3 |
If you want to examine the VHD to see what roles and features are already installed, how do you proceed? | Examine the VHD while still offline using the Add Roles and Features Wizard. |
The Services tile for the Local Server in Server Manager is similar to the traditional Services MMC snap-in. How is it Different? | You can start, stop, pause, or resume a service, but to change its Start Type, you require the Services MMC snap-in. |
What is the key benefit behind delegating server administration? | In larger networks, delegation restricts access by using restricted permissions. |
Virtualization makes it possible to separate vital network functions on different systems without purchasing additional network adapters for each one. What is the drawback? | Single network adapter means a single point of failure. |
On a Windows Server 2012 server, you decide to change the interface. Select the best answer to convert a GUI server to Server Core. | Use Server Manager to start the Remove Roles and Features Wizard. |
Why do administrators delegate server administration? | To separate and limit full administrator access in large networks |
_______ define the primary functions of a server. A server with the Web Server (IIS) role installed is colloquially referred to as a(n) ________, no matter what otrher functions it might perform. Select the word pair that fills the blanks. | Roles; web server |
After initially configuring a new server, you can fully manage it without needing to be present at its console. What tool allows this? | Server Manager |
What are the four parameters to set when arriving at the Use The Following IP Address section of the Internet Protocol Version 6 (TCP/IPv4) Properties Sheet? | IP Address, Subnet Mask, Default Gateway, and Preferred DNS Server |
What is the command-line tool for renaming a computer and what is the command? | netdom renamecomputer %ComputerName% /NewName: <NewComputerName> |
You decide to change the interface on your Windows Server 2012 server. Select the best answer to convert a GUI server to Server Core. | Use Server Manager to start the Remove Roles and Feature Wizard. |
You want to add a role to several Windows Server 2012 systems on the network. Which of the following is correct? | Use Server Manager on any Windows Server 2012 to connect and install the role to all the systems. |
What was the former name of Remote Desktop Services? | Terminal Services |
At end of installing a role using Server Mgr, you can export config settings to a script file. Then, using PowerShell, you use script to install roles and features on another Windows Server 2012. What is PowerShell cmdlet for executing this script? | Install-WindowsFeature - ConfigurationFilePath <ExportedConfig.xml> |
You need to add a role to a VM in an offline state. How do you proceed? | Install the role to the VHD while still offline. |
Windows Server 2012 offers a compromise between Server Core and more traditional server administration tools called: | Minimal Server Interface |
Before you perform any upgrade procedure, you should, __________. | Backup the entire system. |
The difference between in-place upgrade and a migration is ___________. | A migration copies vital information from the existing Server to a clean installation of Windows 2012. |
What are the Windows Server Migration Tools? | PowerShell cmdlets to enable administrators migrate roles between servers |
There are several things to consider prior to upgrading to Windows Server 2012. Select all that apply. | 1. Check Disk Space 2. Check Application compatibility 3. Check Server meets minimum hardware requirements |
Using Features on Demand results in saving significant amts of disk space. Features on Demand becomes a 3rd installation state per feature in Wins Srv 2012. While prev vers allowed only Enable or Disable, Features on Demand Provides ______ . | Disabled with payload removed. |
To simplify the administration process, you should always assign permissions to _________ rather than to individuals. | security groups |
Windows Server 2012 supports two types of folder shares. What are those two types? | Network File System and Server Message Blocks |
Usrs gen do not understand concept of net dr sharing. they only know they can stor their files "on my F : dr" & are unaware that someone else's F: dr might pt 2 a diff fdr. What do we call this concept of having a dr let ass 2 a usr's net fldr? | Mapping drives |
What is the primary tool in Windows Server 2012 to take control of the shares on all your disks on all your servers and exercise granular control over their properties? | File and Storage Services in Server Manager |
You know that installing Windows Server 2012 includes Storage Services by default. Why can't you then create and manage 5MB shares using Werverf Manager? What must be installed first? | File Server role service |
The company's Board of Directors would like you 2 create private folders, which users should not know exist. While you R creating the new network share for their folders, which New Share option should you choose to prevent users from seeing the folders? | Enable access-based enumeration |
Knowing how permissions can be cumulative or override each other is an important factor in understanding what ? | Understanding effective access |
Which of these is NOT one of the Windows permission systems? | File permissions |
When you manage permissions in any of the Windows Server 2012 permissions systems, you are actually creating and modifying the _____ in an _______. | access control entries; access control list |
You grant a user the NTFS permissions needed to access a file. You then move the file to a different location. Is the user still able to access the file? | Yes, when you move the file, its permissions go with it. |
What are an administrator's choices for managing file permissions on a drive formatted as FAT32? | If the drive is a network share, then Share permissions can be used. |
What is the Windows Server 2012 feature that enables you to maintain previous versions of files on a server, so that if users accidentally delete or overwrite a file, they can access a copy? | Volume shadow Copies |
What is the maximum number of shadow copies supported by Windows Server 2012? | 64 |
With the Volume shadow Copy Service enabled, what does the system do if the maximum number of copies supported by Windows Server 2012 is reached? | The system copies, and then deletes the oldest copy. |
What are the 2 ways for remote clients to connect to a server in order to benefit form the Remote Desktop Easy Print driver? | Remote Desktop Connection program or the RD Web Access site |
The hardware that actually produces your hard-copy documents is called a ___________ . | Print device |
In Windows, a _____________ is the software interface through which a computer communicates with a print device. | Printer |
What are the differences, physically and logically, between the two printing configurations: Network-attached Printing and Network-attached Printer Sharing? | They are essentially the same physically. Logically, the print jobs are handled differently. |
You have an executive who needs her print jobs handled above those of others. How would you accomplish this advanced printing configuration? | Connect multi print servers to a single print device |
Your environment includes many users who print documents often. A single print device isn't sufficient. you need a "printer pool" to accommodate all the concurrent print jobs. How would you accomplish this advanced printing configuration? | Connect a single printer to multiple print devices |
Which of the following is NOT a basic printer permission? | Take ownership |
2 config a prter pool, U enabled prter pooling on Ports tab und Prter Props. U have 5 prt devs ready 4 prter pool. Of those 5, 4 R in 1 rm. Of 4, 3 use same prt drv. Of those 3, 2 prt devs R ident. How many print devices are in your printer pool? | 3 |
There R many diff printing configs available with default Wins Server 2012 installation. Addl features R available aft installing Prt & Document Services role. Which of these would be available only after installing Print and Document Services role? | 1. Internet Printing 2. Distributed Scan Services 3. Print Server |
The easiest way to deploy several printers to several clients is to ___________ . | Configure the needed policy in a GPO. Then link the GPO to either the users or the computers. |
In an enterprise environment with hundreds of print devices, you hear early complaints of a few devices with errors. Suspecting more to come, you need to find all affected printers. How do you proceed? | With the Print and Document Services role adds, create a custom filter in the Print Management console to search for affected printers |
When managing printers, what is a method of giving certain users in your organization priority access to a print device? How to assure their print jobs are handled above others? | With the Manage This Printer permission, configure Printer Properties of a Printer and set priority to a gigher number than others, up to 99 |
What basic printer permission do you grant a user to be able to pause, resume, restart and cancel their own print jobs, as well as the print jobs of others? | Manage documents |
When a Remote Dsktp Servs client conns 2 a server, it runs apps using server. If that client wants 2 prt a doc from 1 of those apps, client wants 2 use prt dev conn 2 loc client comp. What component allows a remote desktop servs client to prt loc? | Remote Desktop Easy Print |
What is XML Paper specification (XPS)? | Print job files stay a single document format to the print device, rather than conversion through EMS and PCL |
Your company environment is very large, including several Windows Firewalls. How can you remotely configure the firewall on several servers at once? | Applying a Group Oolicy related to Windows Firewall to the servers |
By default, Server Manager does not connect with down-level servers (for edample, Windows Server 2008). What must be done t oproperly connect? | Add WinRM 3.0 support by installing the necessary updates and hotfix. |
Considering PowerShell Web Access Gateway is on the network perimeter, administrators should ensure __________ . | The server is as secure as possible |
As Powershell Web Access Gateway is added on a server, the feature instlls the code for the gateway website and a PowerShell cmdlet. What is that cmdlet called? | Install-PswaWebApplication |
Windows Firewall is enabled by default in Windows Server 2012. How are remote management tools affected? | MMC is blocked. You must enable several inbound Windows Firewall rules on the remote server. |
Your Server Manager manages many down-level servers (for example, Windows Server 2008). What tool do you use to add roles and features to a down-level server? | Use Windows Powershell to install the role. |
PowerShell Web Access Gateway allows _____ . | Administrators to use their web browser as a remote management gateway |
What tool is used to create PowerShell Web Access Gateway authorization rules? | PowerShell cmdlets |
What is the default web address for the PowerShell Web Access Gateway? | name>/pswa |
What is the PowerShell cmdlet for listing the roles and features on a remote server? | Get-WindowsFeature |
Rather than using a Windows Server 2012 server, how does Microsoft recommend you remotely manage Windows servers? | From a workstation |
How can an administrator configure the Windows Firewall on a Server Core installation without working form the command line? | Use Group Policy |
Server virtualization in Windows Server 2012 is based on a module called the ___________ . | hypervisor |
In Windows Server 2012, the hypervisor ______ the host operating system. | loads first, than loads |
When Hyper-V role is added to a Windows Server 2012 server, hypervisor creates individual environments, each of which has its own operating system installed & accesses computer's hardware via hypervisor. What R those individual environments called? | partitions |
Using the Standard edition of Windows Server 2012, I need to create 5 virtual machines. On how many can I install Windows Server 2012? | 2 |
What is the least expensive way an administrator can experiment with Hyper-V and virtualization? | Download Hyper-V Server for free from the Microsoft website. |
What roles does Microsoft recommend can share the same server as the Hyper-V role? | No other role |
What is the primary graphical tool for creating and managing virtual machines? | Hyper-V Manager |
Regarding virtual machines, what is Smart Paging used for? | When a VM has to restart and not enough memory is available to allocate its startup RAM value. |
Assuming your virtual machines has dynamic memory enabled, when does Smart Paging actually trigger? | Smart Paging will only trigger if a VM has shrunken below its Startup RAM toward its Minimum RAM setting. |
What is Resource metering? | Resource metering documents virtual machine usage regarding a variety of criteria. |
Using Resource Metering, you are documenting the network traffic and memory usage of all virtual machines on a physical server. What is Resource Metering's statistics associated with? | Statistics are specific to each VM, even if you transfer between host systems |
In some cases, certain Hyper-V guest operating system features do not function properly using the OS's own device drivers. What Hyper-V software package can help remedy compatibility issues? | guest integration services |
Heartbeat, time synchronization and data exchange between parent and child partitions are all examples of functions provided by ______ . | Guest Integration Services |
What types of operating systems are allowable as virtual machine? | Several Microsoft and non-Microsoft .OSs such as CentOS 6.0-6.2, Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6.0-6.2, SuSE Linux Enterprise Server 11 SP2 |
After installing the Hyper-V role, what is the startup procedure for Windows Server 2012? | the newly installed hypervisor starts first, then loads the operating system as the primary or parent partition |
You are using differencing disks for multiple (VMs) to preserve the parent image from changes. Now you want to combine the two images together. What PowerShell cmdlet allows you to do this? | Merge-VHD |
When creating a snapshot file using Hyper-V Manager, what is the file format and where is it stored? | The file has an AVHD or AVHDX extension, stored in the same folder as the virtual hard disk file. |
What tool can you use to modify a virtual hard disk? | Use Edit Virtual Hard Disk Wizard in Hyper-V Manager in Server Manager. |
Regarding the benefits of a SAN, what happens during a serverless backup? | The server initiates the backup, but the server is not involved during the backup. |
As of Windows Server 2012, what virtual image file provides for the largest size? | VHDX files, up to 64 TB |
If your company uses Hyper-V on Windows Server 2012 and the older Virtual Server, what virtual image file format can you use on both hypervisor products? | VHD |
When choosing between disk types in the New Virtual Hard Disk Wizard, what type permits an image size up to 2 TB? | VHD |
What does a differencing disk offer administrators? | An opportunity to experiment with no changes committed to the parent image |
Do VMs ever directly access a physical hard disk? | Yes, VMs access a physical hard disk by way of a "pass-through disk," a special virtual disk that directly accesses the physical disk if it is made exclusively available to the VM. |
Virtual SANs allow you to ________ . | Make distant storage accessible to VMs |
What Server Manager tool allows you to create a new virtual hard disk? | Hyper-V Manager |
When creating a new virtual hard disk, what feature does Windows PowerShell offer that the graphical interface does not? | You can specify the block size and the logical sector size. |
Can you modify an existing virtual hard disk (VHD) file? | Yes, you can even modify it without mounting it to a VM. |
How do you give a VM exclusive access to a physical disk? | Taking the disk offline in the parent OS, and then selecting the physical disk in the VM. |
The following PowerShell cmdlets are all valid for executing functions related to VHDs. Which cmdlet is used for compacting dynamic or differencing disks? | Optimize-VHD |
In Hyper-V terminology, what do you call a virtual switch configured to provide connections external to the Hyper-V environment? | External network switch |
How many MAC addresses are available for virtual network adapters, created by Hyper-V? | 256 |
Which of the two types of virtual network adapters, synthetic or emulated, is called the legacy adapter and why? | Emulated is called the legacy adapter because it is a standard network adapter driver and communicates more slowly. |
What is the difference between a private virtual switch and an internal virtual switch? | Private switch allows communication between child and parent partition VMs, but internal includes the external network. |
What is the difference between an external virtual switch and an internal virtual switch? | An internal switch doesn't allow child partition VMs to access the external network, but they can on an external switch. |
Creating a new virtual switch automatically connects the host operating system with the child partition VMs by default. What setting can be changed during virtual switch creation to disconnect he host OS? | Allow management operating system to share this network adapter |
How many virtual network adapters can be created on a Hyper-V server? | Up to 12 network adapters-8 synthetic and 4 emulated |
How does an administrator set up a new virtual network adapter to communicate on a network VLAN? | Select Enable virtual LAN identification and enter a VLAN identifier to associate the network adapter to the VLAN. |
Virtual network adapters in Windows Server 2012 can support some hardware acceleration features. Select which one they do NOT support. | MAC address caching |
Every network adapter has a hardware address. What is the common name for it and how long is it? | Media Access Control (MAC) address, 6 bytes |
How do virtual network adapters running on a child partition communicate with the parent partition? | Synthetic adapters communicate by using the VMBus; emulated adapters communicate by making calls to the hypervisor. |
When creating a virtual switch by Hyper-V, how many virtualized ports are available? | Unlimited |
After creating a VM , how many virtual adapters are included by default? | 1 |
A _______ , like its physical counterpart, is a device that functions at layer 2 of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) reference model. | virtual switch |
Select the PowerShell cmdlet with basic syntax if you want to create a private network switch called HalifacLAN and connect it to your VM's adapter named NSNet1. | New-VMSwitch "HalifaxLAN" - NetAdapterName "NSNet1" - SwitchType Private |
In Hyper-V terminology, what do you call a virtual switch configured to provide connections external to the Hyper-V environment? | External network switch |
How many MAC addresses are available for virtual network adapters, created by hyper-V? | 256 |
Which of the two types of virtual network adapters, synthetic or emulated, is called the legacy adapter and why? | Emulated is called the legacy adapter because it is a standard network adapter driver and communicates more slowly. |
What is the difference between a private virtual switch an an internal virtual switch? | Private switch allows communication between child and parent partition VMs, but internal includes the external network. |
What is the difference between an external virtual switch and an internal virtual switch? | An internal switch doesn't allow child partition VMs to access the external network, but they can on an external switch. |
Creating a new virtual switch automatically connects the host operating system with the child partition VMs by default. What setting can be changed during virtual switch creation to disconnect the host OS? | Allow management operating system to share this network adapter. |
How many virtual network adapters can be created on a hyper-V server? | Up to 12 network adapters - 8 synthetic and 4 emulated |
How does an administrator set up a new virtual network adapter to communicate on a network VLAN? | Select Enable virtual LAN identification and enter a VLAN identifier to associate the network adapter to the VLAN. |
Virtual network adapters in Windows Server 2012 can support some hardware acceleration features. Select which one they do NOT support. | MAC address caching |
Every network adapter has a hardware address. What is the common name for it and how long is it? | Media Access Control (MAC) address, 6 bytes |
How do virtual network adapters running on a child partition communicate with the parent partition? | Synthetic adapters communicate by using the VMBus; emulated adapters communicate by making calls to the hypervisor. |
When creating a virtual switch by Hyper-V, how many virtualized ports are available? | Unlimited |
After creating a VM, how many virtual adapters are included by default? | 1 |
A _____________, like its physical counterpart, is a device that functions at layer 2 of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) reference model. | virtual switch |
What is a Network-layer routing technology that enables a group of workstations to share a single registered address? | Network Address Translation |
As defined b the original Internet Protocol standard, what are the three classes of IP addresses used for networks, and what differentiates them? | Class A, B, C, differing by how many bits distinguish the networks form the hosts |
What is an example of Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) in IPv4? | A Windows workstation assigns itself an address on the 169.254.0.0./16 network |
Given the IPv6 address 21cd:001b:0000:0000/8, what does the end signify? | network bits |
Certain IPv6 addresses can be contracted. Which of the following answers is the contracted form of 21cd:0053:0000:0000/64? | 21cd:53::/64 |
What is the primary benefit of the IPv6 address space over the IPv4 address space? | number of possible hosts and networks |
In general terms, there are three was a computer receives an IPv4 or IPv6 address. Which of the following is NOT one of them? | peer allocation |
Rather than manually assign IPv6 addresses to computers, how can administrators ensure each Windows computer receives a link-local unicast address upon starting? | Stateless IPv6 Address Autoconfiguration |
What is the technology intended to help transition IPv4 networks to IPv6 , by expressing IPv4 addresses in IPv6 formal? | 6to4 |
What is tunneling protocol that emulates an IPv6 link using an IPv4 network, primarily for Windows workstation operating systems? | ISATAP |
What encapsulates IPv6 packets within User Datagram Protocol (UDP) datagrams between two registered IPv4 nodes in order to traverse IPv4 networks? | Teredo |
What is a subnetting method that enables you to place the division between the network bits and the host bits anywhere in the address, not just between octets? | CIDR |
How does Classless Inter-Domain routing Help reduce waste of IP addresses? | Subnetting method that divides between network bits and host bits anywhere, not only between octets |
What is the example of a valid IPv6 address | 21cd:0053:0000:0000:e8bb:04f2:003c:c394 |
What is the example of a valid IPv4 address | 192.29.1.42 |
What service does Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) provide? | Configures the IP address and other TCP/IP settings on network computers |
DHCP standards define multiple methods to allocate IP addresses. What are they? | Dynamic, automatic, and manual |
For DHCP address allocation , by how much is network traffic reduced related to periodic lease renewal messages when switching from dynamic allocation to automatic allocation? | 100 percent because dynamic address allocation requires periodic lease renewal messages whereas automatic does not |
How are DHCP settings labeled in a Windows computer's network interface? | Obtain an IP address automatically |
What is the first packet sent to a DHCP server when a computer boots up? | DHCPDISCOVER |
How do DHCP servers respond to a DHCPDISCOVER message? | DHCPOFFER |
How does a DHCP client communicate which offered IP address it will accept from which DHCP server? | The client sends a DHCPREQUEST message to all servers with the IP address of the chosen DHCP server. |
During DHCP lease negotiation, what happens if the client request an IP address from the server but the server has already assigned the offered IP address? | The server responds with a DHCPNAK message to the client. |
What is the default lease period for DHCP dynamic address allocation? | 8 days |
How far into the lease period does a DHCP client begin requesting renewal of the IP address? | 50 percent, or at 4 days into the lease |
What are the advantages of using a distributed DHCP infrastructure? | 1. All the client /server network traffic is local, so minimal DHCP traffic on routers 2. Use a hybrid DHCP infrastructure with DHCP servers at all local locations and relay agents in other subnets |
What is the impact on network traffic when decreasing the length of the IP address lease time? | Increase of network traffic |
How does DHCP scope creation differ in Windows Server 2012 compared to prior Windows Server versions? | In Windows Server 2012 , creating the scope is doen separately, after adding the DHCP Server role |
When planning a hybrid DHCP infrastructure, what kind of network traffic should administrators want to eliminate? | WAN |
What are the servers at the top of the DNS hierarchy called? | Root Servers |
The typical query one DNS server sends to a root name server is called a(n) _________ . | recursive query |
The domain name part of a DNS name is ______ and consists of two or more words, separated by __________ . | hierarchical; periods |
What do you call the source responsible for maintaining a domain's resource records? | Authoritative source |
When using DNS for name resolution only, why should a company consider using DNS servers outside the network perimeter? | Less traffic crossing the network perimeter |
At what level of the DNS hierarchy are actual hosts, apart from the root servers? | At the second level domain level |
Who is responsible for the ratification of new top-level domains? | Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and numbers (ICANN) |
What is the character limit on individual domain names. and the limit on the Fully Qualified Do,main Names (FQDNs)? | 63; 255 |
Concerning DNS; what is negative caching? | When a DNS server receives information about a non-existent host |
A DNS server receives updated information. Other DNS servers have outdated information cached. What determines the amount of time that the old DNS dagta remains cached ona server and an update might occur | Time To Live (TTL) specified by each DNS server's administrator |
What is the default TTL for a Windows Server 2012 DNS server? | 1 hour |
Why is the DNS service included in Windows Server 2012 integrated with DHCP service? | To allow a DHCP server to request a DNS server to update or create a record. |
You registered the domain name contoso.com The FQDNs seattle contoso.com and halifax.contoso.com area examples of different_____ . | subdomains of contoso.com |
When a DNS Server communicates a name resolution query to another DNS server, what type of datagram is used, and over what port? | UDP;53 |
Concerning DNS domain hierarchy, what are examples of global top-level domains? | .com, .net, .org |
What is the process of granting the user access only to the resources he or she is permitted to use? | Authorization |
What are the two basic classes of Active Directory objects? | Container and leaf objects |
What defines what objects exist as well as what attributes are associated with any object in the Active Directory? | Active Directory schema |
What is the next level of Active Directory container object within a domain? | Organizational unit |
Active Directory keeps a naming convention for the domain that mirrors ___________ . | DNS |
What allows administrators to grant users in one domain access to resources of another domain within the same domain tree? | Bidirectional trust relationship between domains |
If an administrator creates a domain tree in an active Directory forest, and then creates a separate and different domain tree, what is the relationship between the two domain trees? | Same security entity as one Active Directory forest, bidirectional trust between domain trees |
What determines the functional level of an Active Directory forest? | The lowest version of Windows Server on a domain controller |
What is the global catalog? | An index of all AD DS objects in a forest |
What is the PowerShell cmdlet for installing a domain contgroller to the domain "adatum.com"? | Install-AddsForest -DomainName "adatum.com" |
What is an important difference between groups and OUs? | Group memberships are independent of the domain's tree structure |
What special DNS resource record enables clients to locate domain controllers and other vital AD DS services? | SRV |
For Server Core installations, how does Windows Server 2012 differ from Windows Server 2008 when installing the AD DS role and promoting the system to a domain controller? | Windows Server 2012 now allows administrators to use PowerShell. |
What is the method for removing a domain controller in Windows Server 2012? | Using the Remove Roles and Features Wizard |
Resource access for individuals takes place through their ___________ . | user accounts |
What is the PowerShell cmdlet used to create user objects? | New-ADUser |
What are the two built-in user accounts are created on a computer running Windows Server 2012 | administrator and guest |
What are the two types of user accounts in Windows Server 2012? | local and domain |
What you call the process of confirming a user's identity by using a known value such as a password, a smart card, or a fingerprint? | authentication |
Can a domain user, who does not possess explicit object creation permissions, create computer objects? | YES, authenticated user can create workstation, but not server objects |
The LDIFDE.exe utility is most similar to what other utility? | CSVDE.exe |
What you call the process of confirming that a user has the correct permissions to access one or more network resources? | authorization |
Which of the following guidelines are NOT best practice for securing the Administrator account? | Using the Administrator account for daily, non-administrative tasks |
When would administrators choose to use a User Template? | When an administrator wants to save time while creating single users with many attributes |
What user creation tool was redesigned in Windows Server 2012 to incorporate new features such as the Active Directory Recycle Bin adn fine-grained password policies? | Active Directory Administrative Center (ADAC) |
What would be the distinguished name (DN) for a user named Ella Parker, whose user account resides in the Marketing OU of the adatum,com domain? | cn=Ella Parker,ou=Marketing,dc=afatum,dc=com |
What is the SAM account name and the User Principal Name for the account ella@contoso.com? | SAM account name is ella, and the User Principal Name is ella@contoso.com |
How does CSVDE.exe differ from LDIFDE.exe? | Both utilities can import users, but only LDIFDE can modify or delete objects later |
Which of the following is NOT a group scope? | Security groups |
What is a key difference between a domain tree hierarchy and the organizational unit (OU) hierarchy within a domain? | Inheritance |
Of the key reasons for creating organizational units, which of the following is NOT one of them? | Assigning permissions to network resources |
What is the only OU created by default after installing Active Directory? | Domain Controllers OU |
Within a domain, the primary hierarchical building block is the ___________ . | organizational unit |
Members of a universal group can come _______ . | from trusted forests |
the Delegation of Control Wizard is capable of __________ permissions. | granting |
In Windows Server 2012 , after a user logs on to Active Directory, a(an) ____________ is created that identifies the user's group memberships. | access token |
An administrator needs to grant an e=mail distribution group of 100 members access to a database, how would the administrator proceed? The e-mail group is obsolete and can be dissolved. | Convert the distribution group to a security group and then assign the group access permissions. |
Of the default groups created when Active Directory is installed,what are the types of those groups? | Security Groups |
What is the group scope for Somain Admins, Domain Controllers, and Domain Users default groups? | Global |
Which of the following default groups is a universal group? | Enterprise Admins |
Which of the following is NOT an example of a special identity? | Dialup Service |
What is the proper term for associating a Group Policy to a set of AD DS objects? | Linking |
When multiple GPOs are linked to a container, which GPO in the list has tghe highest priority? | the first |
The three types of Group Policy Objects (GPOs) include local, domain and __________ . | starter |
Where is the path to the default GPT structure for a domain? | %systemroot%\SYSVOL\sysvol\<domain name>\Policies |
Configuring a Central Store of ADMX files help solve the problem of __________ | "SYSVOL"bloat" |
Regarding Group Policy in Windows Server 2008 and Windows Vista, Microsoft used the token-baded administrative template(ADM) files. What did Microsoft replace ADM files with in Windows Server 2012? | ADMX files (XML - based file format) |
What is the Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in that you use to create GPOs and manage their deployment to AD DS objects? | Group policy Management Console |
Can an administrator launch the Group Policy Management console from a workstation? | Yes, if the workstation is running the Remote Server Administration Tools package |
Group Policy settings are divided into two subcategories: User Configuration and Computer Configuration. Each of those two are further organized into three subnodes. What are the three? | Software settings, Windows settings, and Administrative Templates |
What do you call the process that after you link a GPO to a site with multiple domains, the Group Policy settings are applied to all the domains and the child objects beneath them? | Inheritance |
What is the technique called that you can modify the default permission assignments so that only certain users and computers receive the permissions and, consequently, the settings in the GPO? | Security filtering |
What application or interface allows you to configure security filtering? | Group Policy Management console |
What is the order in which Windows systems receiving and process multiple GPOs. | LSDOU (local, site, domain, then OU) |
What versions of Windows bbegan support of multiple local GPOs? | Windows Server 2008 R2 and Windows Vista |
Local GPOs contain fewer options than domain GPOs. Local GPOs do not support _____ . | folder redirection or Group Policy software installation |
What are the two categories of security settings within Group Policy? | 1. User 2. Computer |
Computer Configuration node security settings include several security areas. Which of the following is NOT one of them? | Wireless Network Policies (IEEE 802.3) |
What are the three primary event logs? | Application, Security, and System |
What impacts the types of logs and events logged on a server? | Roles installed |
What is the default size for each of the three Event logs? | 16,384 kb |
What policy setting enables you to specify group membership lists, allowing you to control membership in important groups, such as the local Administrators and Backup Operators groups | Restricted Groups Policy |
What is a collection of configuration settings stored as a text file with an .inf extension? | Security template |
When does Windows apply Computer Configuration policies by default? | When the computer starts up |
When does Windows apply User Configuration policies by default? | As the user logs in |
Regarding security templates, a strategy plan should consider _________ . | computer roles |
What is the simplest way to deploy a security template on several computers simultaneously | Importing the security template into a GPO |
What is the purpose of the Audit Policy section of a local GPO? | Administrators can log successful and failed security events, such as loss of data, account access, and object access. |
You create a GPO that contains computer settings, but not user settings. What can you do to quicken GPO processing? | You can disable the setting area that is not configured for faster processing. |
What are the two interfaces for creating and managing local user accounts a computer joined to the domain? | User Accounts control panel and the Local Users and Groups snap-in for MMC. |
What did Microsoft introduce in Windows Server 2012 to ensure users with administrative privileges still operate routine tasks as standard users? | User Account Control (UAC) |
What service works with Group Policy to install, upgrade, patch, or remove software applications? | Windows Installer |
What is required to prepare applications with an approval stamp from Microsoft on its packaging , including the Certified for Windows Server 2012 logo, for Windows Installer? | Nothing - the application is Windows Installer-enabled |
When configuring a GPO to deploy a spftware, what is the difference be assigning and publishing the application? | Assigning forces the application , whereas publishing provides the option to install |
After deploying software by GPO using the Published option, where is the package made available for the user? | Windows Control Panel |
After deploying software by GPO using the Assigned option, where is the package made available for the user? | Start menu or desktop |
When configuring software restriction policies, there are four rules that help determine the programs that can or cannot run. Select which of the following is NOT one of those rules. | File location rule |
Not all software on the market provides .msi support. What is your best option to use Windows Installer to assign and publish the software? | Repackage the software for Windows Installer. |
What is AppLocker also known as? | Application control policies |
In what Group Policy objects container are AppLocker settings located? | Computer Configuration\Windows Settings\Security Settings\Application Control Policies\Applocker |
What Windows versions support the use of Applocker policies, which poses a disadvantage compared to using software restriction policies? | Windows 7 and Windows Server 2008 R2 or later |
How does AppLocker handle all executables, installer packages, and scripts by default? | AppLocker blocks all by default, except for those specified in Allow rules. |
What service does AppLocker require running to function properly? | Application Identity |
What are the three default security levels within software restriction policies? | Unrestricted, Disallowed, and Basic User |
Firewall rules function in 2 ways: admit all traffic, except that which conforms 2 applied rules, & 2nd, block all traffic, except that which conforms 2 applied rules. How does the Windows Firewall work for inbound traffic and for outbound traffic? | Inbound - block all. Outbound - permit all |
What does a firewall protect your company against? | Network intrusion attempts, such as a denial of service attack |
Windows Firewall uses three profiles to represent the type of network to which the server is connected. What are the three profiles? | Domain, private, and public |
For the Windows Firewall private profile, what type of network is expected? | An internal network that is not accessible by unauthorized users |
What does the term "filter" refer to in the Windows Firewall With Advanced Security console? | The ability to display inbound or outbound rules according to a profile by |
If a user attempts to use an Internet-based e-mail account, how will Windows Firewall respond? | The firewall does not block client-initiated network traffic by default. |
What tool offers more flexibility in creating rules compared with the Windowws Firewall interface under Control Panel? | Windows Firewall With Advanced Security snap-in for the Microsoft Management console |
In the Windows Firewall With Advanced Security console, while creating a new rule, the Program page specifies whether the ______ | rule applies to all programs , to one specific program, or to a specific service |
By exporting the Windows Firewall policy, you have a file with a .wfw extension that contains _____________ . | all its rules, including the preconfigured rules and the ones you have created or modified |
If an administrator wants to enable the "Block all incoming connections, including those in the list of allowed apps" setting, to which of the firewall profiles does it apply? | Public, private, and domain |
Windows Firewall allows an administrator to import and export firewall rules. What are the rules ' file extension? | .wfw |
What is the typical incoming port number for a web server? | 80 |
You can configure the Windows Firewalls to allow or block specific ___________ . | ports, protocols, applications, users, and IP address ranges |
What GPO node presents the interface with which to configure Windows Firewall properties? | Computer Configuration \Policies\Windows Settings\Security Settings\Windows Firewall with Advanced Security |
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