MLT ASCP BOC MICROBIOLOGY
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| show | d. chocolate agar and modified Thayer Martin agar
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| show | d. 70000
d (When 0.001 mL of urine is plated, the growth of one colony is equivalent to 1000 CPU/mL. Thus 70 colonies is 70,000 CPU/mL.)
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| 3) The lowest concentration of antibiotic that inhibits growth of a test organism is the : a. minimum inhibitory concentration b. serum inhibitory concentration c. minimum bactericidal titer d. minimum inhibitory titer | show 🗑
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| 5) The steam autoclave method of sterilization: a. uses 15 lbs. of pressure for 15 minutes b. utilizes dry heat for 20 minutes c. produces a minimum temp of 100 C d. requires a source of ethylene oxide | show 🗑
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| show | a. 0 CFU/mL
a (Urine in the bladder is normally sterile. Suprapubic aspiration removes urine directly from the bladder and yields a specimen free of urethral contamination.)
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| show | d. facultative anaerobe
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| show | b. beta-lactamase
he production of beta-lactamase [penicillinase] breaks open the beta lactam ring of penicillin, destroying its activity. Thus, N. gonorrhoeae that produce beta lactamase are resistant to penicillin.)
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| 10) Which selective medium is used for the isolation of gram-positive microorganisms? a. Columbia CNA with 5% sheep blood b. trypticase soy agar with 5% sheep blood c. eosin methylene blue d. modified Thayer-Martin | show 🗑
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| 11) The most sensitive substrate for the detection of beta-lactamases is: a. penicillin b. ampicillin c. cefoxitin d. nitrocefin | show 🗑
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| 13) An Enterococcus isolated from multiple blood cultures in a patient with endocarditis should be: a. screened for high level aminoglycoside resistance b. checked for tolerance c. assayed for serum antimicrobial activity | show 🗑
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| show | c. cation content of media
A cation concentration that is too high results in smaller zone sizes, and a concentration that is too low increases zone sizes.)
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| 15) The procedure that assures the most accurate detection of mecA-mediated oxacillin resistance in routine broth microdilution susceptibility testing against S aureus is: a. addition of 4% NaCl b. incubation at 37 d. use of cefoxitin for testing | show 🗑
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| show | c. the depth of the media was too thin
If the depth of the media is < 4 mm, this may be associated with excessively large zones and false-positive susceptibility results
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| 18) 3 sets of blood cultures were obtained from an adult patient with fever and suspected endocarditis. The aerobic bottle of one set had growth of Staphylococcus epidermidis at 5 days of incubation. This indicates that: | show 🗑
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| show | a. inoculated onto selective plating media and incubated in reduced oxygen with added CO2 at 42 C
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| 21) Which type of microscope would be most useful in examining viruses and the structure of microbial cells? a. electron b. phase-contrast c. dark-field d. bright-field | show 🗑
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| 22) After satisfactory performance of daily disk diffusion susceptibility quality control is documented, the frequency of quality control can be reduced to: a. twice a week b. every week c. every other week d. every month | show 🗑
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| show | b. decreased
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| 24) The most common cause for failure of a Gas Pak anaerobic jar to establish an adequate environment for anaerobic incubation is: | show 🗑
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| 26) Which of the following specimen requests is acceptable? a. feces submitted for anaerobic culture b. Foley catheter tip submitted for aerobic culture c. rectal swab submitted for direct smear for gonococci d. urine for culture of acid-fast bacilli | show 🗑
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| 27) Which of the following groups of specimens would be acceptable for anaerobic culture? a. vaginal, eye b. ear, leg tissue c. pleural fluid, brain abscess d. urine, sputum | show 🗑
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| 28) A liquid fecal specimen from a 3 month old infant is submitted for microbiological exam. In addition to culture on routine media for Salmonella and Shigella, this specimen should be routinely: | show 🗑
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| 29) Cerebrospinal fluid from a febrile 25 yr. old man with possible meningitis is rushed to the lab for a stat gram stain and culture. While performing the gram stain, the tech accidently spills most of the specimen. The smear shows many neutrophils and n | show 🗑
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| show | a. endocervical - chocolate, Martin Lewis
a (Chocolate agar and chocolate agar-based selective media [Martin Lewis] are routinely used for the recovery of Neisseria gonorrhoeae from genital specimens
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| show | d. Yersinia enterocolitica - cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin
(CIN agar is a selective and differential medium for the isolation and differentiation of Y enterocolitica
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| show | a. the slide was inadequately decolorized with acetone/alcohol
Inadequate decolorization with acetone/alcohol results in a smear in which host cells [neutrophils and squamous cells], as well as bacteria, all appear blue.)
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| 35) When performing a Kovac indole test, the substrate must contain: a. indole b. tryptophan c. ornithine d. paradimethylaninobenzaldehyde | show 🗑
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| show | b. beta-galactosidase
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| show | c. differential
(Differential media contain compounds, often carbohydrates, that provide a presumptive identification based on colony color or a precipitate around the colony.
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| show | d. disk diffusion
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| show | c. zones of larger diameter would result
c (A delay of more than 15 minutes between placing the disks on an inoculated plate and incubation permits excess prediffusion of the antimicrobial agent from the disk. This would result in a larger than expected
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| 45) First generation cephalosporins can be adequately represented by: a. cefotetan b. ceftriaxone c. cephalothin d. cefoxitin | show 🗑
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| show | b. penicillin
b (Penicillin inhibits penicillin binding proteins that are essential to peptidoglycan [cell wall] synthesis
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| show | c. Streptococcus pyogenes - penicillin
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| 49) Which of the following must be incubated in a microaerophilic environment for optimal recovery of the organism? a. Campylobacter jejuni b. Escheria Coli c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Proteus mirabilis | show 🗑
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| 51) Vibrio parahaemolyticus can be isolated best from feces on: a. eosin methylene blue agar b. Hektoen Shigella agar c. Salmonella Shigella agar d. thiosulfate citrate bile salts agar | show 🗑
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| show | a. Skirrow medium
a (Skirrow medium is an enriched selective blood agar medium used for the isolation of Campylobacter from specimens with mixed flora
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| show | c. should be performed on all blood and CSF isolates
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| 54) Media used to support growth of Legionella pneumophila should contain which of the following? a. X and V factors b. hemin and Vitamin K c. charcoal and yeast extract d. dextrose and laked blood | show 🗑
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| 55) The best medium for culture of Bordetella pertussis is: a. Regan-Lowe agar b. cystine blood agar c. Martin Lewis agar d. Ashdown agar | show 🗑
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| show | b. cystine glucose blood agar
Cysteine blood glucose agar is an enriched medium with beef heart infusion, peptones, glucose and rabbit blood. It also includes cystine, which is required by F tularensis for growth.)
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| show | a. sheep blood agar
a (Sheep blood agar is preferred because clear-cut patterns of hemolysis are obtained.
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| show | c. using Mueller-Hinton broth with 2% NaCl
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| show | c. a syringe filled with pus, obtained before administration of antibiotics
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| show | b. rejected as unacceptable
Anaerobic bacteria do not cause pharyngitis. The most common cause of pharyngitis is Streptococcus pyogenes.
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| 63) An antibiotic used to suppress or kill contaminating fungi in media is: a. penicillin b. cycloheximide c. streptomycin d. amphotericin B | show 🗑
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| show | b. Staphylococcus aureus
S aureus produces beta-lactamase only after exposure to an inducing agent [such as penicillin].
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| show | d. use of outdated oxacillin disks
d (Deterioration of the antimicrobial agent in the disk will cause the zone sizes to be too small [falsely resistant].
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| show | d. Moraxella osloensis
d (Moraxella osloensis is a gram-negative coccobacillus that is often plump and occurs in pairs and demonstrates a morphology similar to Neisseria.
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| show | d. nitrofurantoin
d (Certain antimicrobials, such as nitrofurantoin and norfloxacin, are used only or primarily to treat urinary tract infections. These agents should not be reported for pathogens recovered from other sites of infection.)
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| show | c. ceftrazidime + clavulanic acid
c (Extended spectrum beta lactamases [ESBL] are inhibited by clavulanic acid. Confirmatory tests for the presence of ESBL are based on the enhanced activity of a beta-lactam antibiotic, usually cefotaxime or ceftazidime,
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| show | b. the volume of blood cultured
b (The volume of blood collected is the single most important variable in the recovery of organisms in patients with bloodstream infections.
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| show | b. LIM broth
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| 87) To quality control the autoclave, a vial of Bacillus stearothermophilus is autoclaved and should they be: a. inoculated to blood agar b. incubated at 37 C c. inoculated to chocolate agar d. incubated at 56 C | show 🗑
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| 88) In a quality control procedure on a new batch of Mueller-Hinton plates using a stock culture of staphylococcus aureus, all the disk zone sizes are too small. The most likely reason for this is that the: | show 🗑
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| 89) Which of the following combinations of organisms would be appropriate as controls to test the functions listed? | show 🗑
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| show | b. novobiocin susceptibility
b (The organism in this urine culture is a Staphylococcus species. Coagulase will differentiate S aureus from coagulase-negative staphylococci [CNS] and novobiocin susceptibility will differentiate S saprophyticus from other
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| show | c. Abiotrophia defectiva
c (Nutritionally deficient streptococci such as Abiotrophia do not grow on sheep blood agar without the addition of cysteine or proximity to S aureus colonies.)
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| 92) Viridans streptococci can be differentiated from Streptococcus pneumoniae by: a. alpha hemolysis b. morphology c. catalase reaction d. bile solubility | show 🗑
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| 93) A reliable test for distinguishing Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococci is: a. oxidase b. coagulase c. catalase d. optochin susceptibility | show 🗑
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| show | c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c (Optochin susceptibility is used to differentiate S pneumoniae, which are susceptible, from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci, which are resistant.)
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| 95) In the optochin (ethylhydrocupreine hydrochloride) susceptibility test, if there is a zone of inhibition of 19-30 mm surrounding the disk following overnight incubation at 37 C, the colony most likely consists of: | show 🗑
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| 96) Which 2 diseases are usually preceded by infection with beta-hemolytic streptococci? a. rheumatic fever, undulant fever b. glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever c. rheumatic fever, tularemia d. glomerulonephritis, undulant fever | show 🗑
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| show | c. causes one type of bacterial food poisoning
c (Staphylococcus aureus produces an enterotoxin that is associated with short- incubation food poisoning.)
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| 98) A gamma-hemolytic Streptococcus that blackens bile esculin agar but does not grow in 6.5% NaCl broth is most likely: a. group B Streptococcus b. Enterococcus c. group D Streptococcus d. Streptococcus pneumoniae | show 🗑
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| 99) Gram stain examination from a blood culture bottle show dark blue, spherical organisms in clusters. Growth on sheep blood agar shows small, round, pale yellow colonies. Further tests should include: | show 🗑
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| 100) Gram-positive cocci in chains are seen on a Gram stain from a blood culture. The organism grows as a beta-hemolytic colony. Further tests that could be performed include: | show 🗑
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| show | d. in the genera Granulicatella and Abiotrophia
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| 102) After 24 hrs. a blood culture from a newborn grows catalase-negative, gram-positive cocci. The bacterial colonies are small, translucent and beta-hemolytic on a blood agar plate. | show 🗑
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| 03) A beta-hemolytic streptococcus that has been isolated from an ear culture grows up to the edge of a 0.04 unit bacitracin disk. Which of the following tests would help to determine if the organism is Enterococcus? | show 🗑
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| 104) The organism most commonly associated with neonatal purulent meningitis is: a. Neisseria meningitidis b. Streptococcus pneumoniae c. group B streptococci d. Haemophilus influenzae | show 🗑
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| show | d. Streptococcus pyogenes
d (Streptococcus pyogenes is the cause of exudative pharyngitis, commonly called strep throat.)
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| show | d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
(Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis.)
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| 108) A catheterized urine is inoculated onto blood and MacConkey agar using a 0.01 mL loop. After 48 hrs., 68 colonies of a small translucent nonhemolytic organism grew on blood agar but not MacConkey. Testing reveals small gram-positive, catalase-negativ | show 🗑
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| 109) Children who have infections with beta-hemolytic streptococci can develop: a. acute pyelonephritis b. acute glomerulonephritis c. chronic glomerulonephritis d. nephrosis | show 🗑
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| 110) A gram-positive coccus isolated from a blood culture has the following characteristics: optochin susceptibility: negative bacitracin susceptibility: negative bile esculin hydrolysis: negative hippurate hydrolysis: Positive catalase: negative | show 🗑
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| show | b. group A Streptococcus Pyogenes
b (Group A streptococci [Streptococcus pyogenes] are susceptible to bacitracin and CAMP test negative.)
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| show | c. group B Streptococcus Agalactiae
c (Group B streptococci [Streptococcus agalactiae] are resistant to bacitracin and CAMP test positive.)
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| 113) Group B, beta-hemolytic streptococci may be distinguished from other hemolytic streptococci by which of the following procedures? a. latex antigen typing b. growth in 6.5% NaCl broth c. growth on esculin medium d. bacitracin susceptibility | show 🗑
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| show | d. enterococci often show more antibiotic resistance than group D streptococci
d (Enterococcus species are more resistant to antimicrobial therapy than group D streptococci such as S bovis.)
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| 115) Streptococcus pneumoniae can be differentiated best from the viridans group of streptococci by: a. Gram stain b. the type of hemolysis c. colonial morphology d. bile solubility | show 🗑
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| show | b. relatively resistant to penicillin
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| 117) A beta-hemolytic, catalase-positive, gram-positive coccus is coagulase negative by the slide coagulase test. Which of the following is the most appropriate action in identification of this organism? | show 🗑
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| 118) Which of the following would best differentiate Streptococcus agalactiae from Streptococcus pyogenes? a. ability to grow in sodium azide broth b. a positive bile-esculin reaction c. hydrolysis of sodium hippurate d. beta-hemolysis on sheep blood | show 🗑
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| show | c. coagulase production
c (Coagulase production is the primary biochemical used to differentiate S aureus from other coagulase-negative staphylococci.)
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| 120) Which of the following organisms is, to date, considered universally susceptible to penicillin: a. Haemophilus influenzae b. Neisseria gonorrhea c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae | show 🗑
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| 121) A beta-hemolytic gram-positive coccus was isolated from the cerebrospinal fluid of a 2-day-old infant with signs of meningitis. The isolate grew on sheep blood agar under aerobic conditions and was resistant to a bacitracin disc. | show 🗑
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| show | a. 2 - 6 hrs.
a (Staphylococcus aureus produces an enterotoxin that is associated with food poisoning. Symptoms typically appear within 2 - 6 hours.)
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| 123) During the past month, Staphylococcus epidermidis has been isolated from blood cultures at 2 - 3 times the rate from the previous year. The most logical explanation for the increase in these isolates is that: | show 🗑
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| 125) A yellow colony from a wound culture tested catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. The organism gram-positive cocci in clusters. Which of the following tests should differentiate between a coagulase-negative Staphylococcus and Micrococcus? | show 🗑
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| 127) An isolate of an unknown beta-hemolytic Streptococcus is streaked perpendicular to a streak of beta-lysin-producing Staphylococcus aureus. After incubation a zone of arrowhead hemolysis is noted at the interface of the 2 streaks. What is the name of | show 🗑
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| show | d. Enterococcus faecalis
d (Enterococcus is positive for the bile esculin test while Streptococcus pyogenes and staphylococci are negative.)
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| show | b. Escherichia coli
b (>80% of uncomplicated UTIs are caused by E coli.)
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| show | c. sorbitol
c (Sorbitol replaces lactose in MacConkey. E coli 0157:H7 does not ferment sorbitol, whereas other species of E coli are positive for fermentation of sorbitol. This makes the media a good screen for 0157:H7.)
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| show | d. reduce nitrate to nitrite
d (Members of Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase negative, ferment glucose, and reduce nitrate to nitrite.)
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| 132) Which one of the following genera is among the least biochemically reactive members of the Enterobacteriaceae? a. Proteus b. Pseudomonas c. Citrobacter d. Shigella | show 🗑
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| 133) Which one of the following gram-negative bacilli ferments glucose? a. Alcaligenes faecalis b. Pseudomonas cepacia c. Acinetobacter lwoffii d. Yersinia enterocolitica | show 🗑
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| show | b. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b (Klebsiella is the only distractor that is VP positive, and the other biochemical reactions are typical for K pneumoniae.)
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| show | c. Salmonella typhimurium
c (Salmonella is the only distractor that produces H2S. Also, Klebsiella and E coli produce acid/acid reactions in TSI.)
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| show | d. Shigella dysenteriae
d (Salmonella produce H2S in TSI and Yersinia produces an acid slant and acid butt. Shigella fits this biochemical profile.)
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| show | b. Escherichia coli
b (E coli can produce several different types of toxins that result in different gastroenteritis manifestations.)
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| 141) Shigella species characteristically are: a. urease positive b. nonmotile c. oxidase positive d. lactose fermenters | show 🗑
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| show | d. boil the organism and retest with the antisera
d (Some Shigella produce capsular antigen that mask the cell wall and boiling removes the capsule.)
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| show | d. sonnei
d (Boiling removed the capsule so that the antiserum could react with cell wall antigen. Group D Shigella is S sonnei.)
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| show | d. Yersinia pestis
d (Yersinia pestis is classically described as having a "safety pin" appearance on Wayson stain. This patient's presentation is classic for bubonic plague.)
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| 152) A clean catch urine sample from a nursing home patient is cultured using a .001mL loop. It grows 67 colonies of a lactose fermenter that has the following biochemical reactions: | show 🗑
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| show | a. it is oxidase positive
a (Enterobacteriaceae ferment glucose and are oxidase negative.
However, it was moved to the Enterobacteriaceae family despite its positive oxidase reaction.)
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| show | d. Klebsiella pneumoniae / Escherichia coli
d (Of the organisms listed only Klebsiella pneumoniae is nonmotile.)
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| 156) The stock cultures needed for quality control testing of oxidase production are: a. Escherichia coli / Klebsiella pneumoniae b. Salmonella typhimurium / Escherichia coli c. Escherichia coli / Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Proteus mirabilis / Escheric | show 🗑
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| show | d. Proteus mirabilis / Escherichia coli
(Of the organisms listed only Proteus mirabilis is phenylalanine deaminase positive)
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| show | d. Serratia marcescens / Escherichia coli
(Of the organisms listed only Serratia marcescens is DNase positive.)
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| 159) Quality control of the spot indole test requires the use of ATCC cultures of: a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa / Proteus mirabilis b. Salmonella typhi / Shigella sonne d. Escherichia coli / Enterobacter cloacae | show 🗑
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| 160) An organism that exhibits the satellite phenomenon around colonies of staphylococci is: a. Haemophilus influenzae b. Neisseria meningitidis c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Klebsiella pneumoniae | show 🗑
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| show | d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces the blue-green pigment, pyocyanin.)
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| 162) A nonfermenting gram-negative bacillus is isolated from a wound. The nitrate and oxidase are strongly positive. The growth on SBA has a grape-like odor. The organism is: | show 🗑
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| 163) A small, gram-negative bacillus is isolated from an eye culture. It grows only on chocolate agar and is oxidase-variable. The most likely organism is: a. Acinetobacter lwoffii b. Haemophilus influenzae c. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia | show 🗑
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| 165) The optimal incubator temp. for isolation of Campylobacter jejuni/coli group is: a. 4 C b. 20 C c. 25 C d. 42 C | show 🗑
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| show | a. nasopharyngeal aspirate
a (Respiratory syncytial virus [RSV] infected the ciliated respiratory epithelium of the upper respiratory tract. A nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate is the optimal specimen for RSV recovery.)
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| show | b. intranuclear inclusions
b (In tissue smears or biopsy specimens, the presence of virally infected cells is indicated by intranuclear or intracytoplasmic inclusions.)
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| show | b. inhibits bacterial and fungal growth
b (Antibiotics and antifungal agents are added to viral transport medium to inhibit the growth of bacteria and fungus.)
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| 342) Which one of the following species of Mycobacterium does not usually fluoresce on fluorochrome stain? a. Mycobacterium fortuitum b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Mycobacterium ulcerans d. Mycobacterium bovis | show 🗑
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| 341) Differentiation of Mycobacterium avium from Mycobacterium intracellulare can be accomplished by: a. nitrate reduction test b. Tween hydrolysis test c. resistance to 10 ug thiophene-2-carboxylic acid hydrazide (TCH) d. DNA probe | show 🗑
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| show | b. exposed to light for 1 hour
b (Pigment production is controlled by an oxygen-dependent, light-inducible enzyme in photochromogenic mycobacteria.)
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| 335) The best medium for culture of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is: a. Bordet-Gengou agar b. Loeffler medium c. Lowenstein-Jensen medium d. cystine blood agar | show 🗑
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| show | b. detection of weakly acid-fast bacilli in infected tissue
b (Mycobacterium leprae cannot be cultured in vitro. A clinical diagnosis is made, supported by the presence of AFB in a biopsy specimen.)
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| 333) Mycobacteria that produce pigment only after exposure to light are classified as: a. photochromogens b. scotochromogens c. rapid growers d. nonchromogens | show 🗑
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| show | b. scotochromogens
b (Scotochromogens produce deep yellow or orange pigment when grown in either light or darkness.)
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| show | . rifampin
a (Primary drugs for the treatment of Mycobacterium tuberculosis include isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol.)
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| 327) AFB smear positive respiratory specimens may be reliably identified as Mycobacterium tuberculosis the same day the smear was read by: a. cording seen on the AFB smear b. nucleic acid amplification c. QuantiFERON-TB test d. DNA probes | show 🗑
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| 326) Which species of Mycobacterium includes a BCG strain used for vaccination against tuberculosis? a. tuberculosis b. bovis c. kansasii d. fortuitum/chelonae complex | show 🗑
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| show | c. capacity to withstand intracellular digestion by macrophages
c (Mycobacterium tuberculosis can remain viable but dormant in macrophages for many years.)
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| show | d. carbol fuchsin
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