MLT BOC BLOODBANK QUESTIONS
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| The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a male blood donor is: 12.0 g/dL (120 g/L) 12.5 g/dL (125 g/L) 13.5 g.dL (135 g/L) 15.0 g/dL (150 g/L) | show 🗑
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| show | Confirmed positive test for HBsAg 10 years previously
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| show | 1(The Hct must be >38%)
Temperature must not exceed 99.5F/37.5C
blood pressure must be <180 mmHg systolic and <100 mmHg diastolic, pulse 50-100 unless an athlete [which can be lower]. Toxoids and vaccines no deferral.)
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| 8) Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution of: a. hypochlorite b. isopropyl alcohol c. 10% acetone d. PVP iodine complex | show 🗑
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| show | d. serological test for syphilis
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| 10) During the preparation of Platelet Concentrates from whole blood, the blood should be: a. cooled towards 6 C b. cooled towards 20-24 C c. warmed to 37 C d. heated to 57 C | show 🗑
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| 12) The western blot is a confirmatory test for: a. CMV antibody b. anti-HIV-1 c. HbsAg d. serum protein abnormality | show 🗑
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| 13) The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus is: a. anti-HBc b. anti-HIV-1,2 c. HbsAg d. ALT | show 🗑
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| show | d. ELISA
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| 16) A unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8 am. The expiration time for each aliquot is: a. 4 pm the same day b. 8 pm the same say c. 8 am the next morning d. the original date of the unsplit unit | show 🗑
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| 18) When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient air temps. must be recorded: a. once a day b. twice a day c. every 4 hours d. every hour | show 🗑
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| show | b. FFP = -20 C
(Fresh Frozen Plasma is stored at -18 C or below for 12 months.)
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| 20) A unit of RBCs is issued at 9 am and at 9:10 am it is returned to the blood bank. The best course of action for the tech is to: | show 🗑
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| show | . 4 C
(Red Blood Cells are stored at 1-6C.)
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| 23) If the seal is entered on a unit of RBCs stored at 1 C to 6 C, what is the maximum allowable storage period in hours? a. 6 b. 24 c. 48 d. 72 | show 🗑
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| 24) Optimum storage for Cryo AHF is: a. -20 C b. -12 C c. 4 C d. 22 C | show 🗑
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| 25) Cryo AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling? a. 4 hrs. b. 8 hrs. c. 12 hrs. d. 24 hrs. | show 🗑
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| show | d. 5 days
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| show | d. 22 C
(The required temperature for storage of platelets is 20-24 C.)
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| 28) According to AABB standards FFP must be infused within what period of time following thawing: a. 24 hrs. b. 36 hrs. c. 48 hrs. d. 72 hrs. | show 🗑
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| show | c. 12 months
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| 30) Once thawed, FFP must be transfused within: a. 4 hrs. b. 8 hrs. c. 12 hrs. d. 24 hrs. | show 🗑
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| show | a. 1 - 6 C
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| show | b. lymphocytes
(Irradiation inhibits proliferation of T lymphocytes.)
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| show | c. the entry ports from being contaminated with water
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| 38) Which of the following blood components must be prepared within 8 hrs. after phlebotomy: a. RBCs b. FFP c. Frozen rbcs d. Cryo AHF | show 🗑
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| show | b. Cryo AHF
(Cryoprecipitate is the fraction of plasma proteins that precipitate when FFP is slowly thawed at 1-6 C.)
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| show | d. quarantine for gram stain and culture
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| show | a. light spin followed by hard spin
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| show | d. haplotype
(The entire set of HLA antigens located on one chromosome is a haplotype.)
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| show | c. O
(The A and B structures cannot be developed since there is no H precursor substance due to the lack of the H gene in the blood donor.)
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| show | a. KK
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| 63) Given the following typing results, what is the donors racial ethnicity: Le(a-b-) Fy(a-b-) Js(a+b+) a. African American b. Asian American c. Native American d. Caucasian | show 🗑
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| 65) In an emergency situation, Rh-neg. red cells are transfused into a Rh-pos person of the genotype CDe/CDe. the first antibody most likely to develop is: a. anti-c b. anti-d c. anti-e d. anti- E | show 🗑
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| 66) Most blood group systems are inherited as: a. sex-linked dominant b. sex-linked recessive c. autosomal recessive d. autosomal codominant | show 🗑
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| show | c. Xg(a-) sons + Xg(a+) daughters
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| show | c. Le(a+b-)
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| show | a. rr
(Anti-f will react with cells that carry c and e on the same Rh polypeptide. No other listed genotypes produce an Rh polypeptide that carries both c and e.)
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| 74) A women types as Rh-pos. She has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG. Her baby has a negative DAT and is not affected by HDFN. What is the fathers most likely Rh phenotype. a. rr b. r"r c. R1r d. R2r | show 🗑
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| show | c. Fy(a-b-)
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| 76) 4 units of blood are needed for elective surgery. the patient serum contains anti-C, anti-e, anti-Fya and anti-Jkb. Which of the following would be the best source of donor blood: | show 🗑
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| 83) In relationship testing a "Direct exclusion" is established when a genetic marker is: | show 🗑
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| show | b. direct
(Direct exclusion of paternity is established when a genetic marker is present in the child but is absent from the mother and the alleged father.)
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| show | c. Karl Landsteiner
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| 88) Cells of the A3 subgroup will: a. react with Dolichos biflorus b. bE-with anti-A c. have a mixed field reaction with anti-A,B d. bE- with anti-H | show 🗑
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| show | c. L-fucosyl transferase
(Fucose is the immunodominant sugar for H.)
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| show | d. anti-H
(Bombay phenotypes [Oh] lack H antigen on their red cells, and produce naturally occurring anti-H in their serum.)
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| 91) The antibody in the Lutheran system that is best detected at lower temps: a. anti-Lua b. anti-Lub c. anti-Lu3 d. anti-Luab | show 🗑
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| 93) Anti-Sda is strongly suspected if: a. the patient has been previously transfused b. the agglutinates are mixed field and refractile c. the patient is group A or B d. only a small number of panel cells are reactive | show 🗑
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| show | b. induced by multiple transfusions
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| 95) Genes of the major histocompatibility complex: a. code for HLA-A,HLA-B, and HLA-C antigens only b. are linked to genes in the ABO system c. are the primary genetic sex-determinants d. contribute to the coordination of cellular and humoral immunity | show 🗑
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| show | d. group O, Le(a-b+)
(Group O have the most H substance in their saliva. The person must also be a secretor of ABH substances. Due to gene interaction between the secretor gene and Lewis gene, people who are Le[a-b+] assures H in their saliva.)
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| 99) Which of the following Rh antigens has the highest frequency in Caucasians: a. D b. E c. c d. e | show 🗑
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| 105) Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i? a. associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia b. found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis c. detected at lower temps in the serum of normal individuals | show 🗑
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| show | c. P antigen
(Autoanti-P, a cold-reactive IgG autoantibody described as a biphasic hemolysin, is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria.)
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| 103) Which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin-A: a. M,N b. Lea, Leb c. S, s d. P, P1,pk | show 🗑
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| 106) In a case of cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the patient's serum would most likely react 4+ at immediate spin with: a. group A cells, B cells and O cells, but not his own cells c. all cells of a group O cell panel and his own cells | show 🗑
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| 107) Cold agglutinin syndrome is associated with an antibody specificity toward which of the following: a. Fy:3 b. P c. I d. Rh:1 | show 🗑
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| show | b. reacts best at room temp or 4 C
(Anti-i is an IgM antibody that reacts with cord cells and i adult cells. It is not associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn since IgM antibodies do not cross the placenta.)
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| show | b. strongly immunogenic
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| show | a. react best at the IAT
(Antibodies in the Kidd blood group system are IgG and react best at the antiglobulin phase. These antibodies are associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions and reactivity can be enhanced by testing with enzyme pre
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| show | c. Fya
(The Fya and Fyb antigens are sensitive to denaturation by proteolytic enzymes.
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| 113) Anti-Fya is: a. usually a cold reactive agglutinin b. more reactive when tested with enzyme treated RBCs c. capable of causing hemolytic transfusion reactions d. often an auto agglutinin | show 🗑
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| show | d. Duffy
(The Duffy glycoprotein on red cells is a receptor for the malarial parasite Plasmodium vivax. Red cells with the phenotype Fy[a-b-] are resistant to invasion by P vivax.)
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| 121) A blood component used in the treatment of hemophilia A is: a. Factor VIII concentrate b. FFP c. Platelets d. Whole Blood | show 🗑
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| 126) An obstetrical patient has had 3 previous pregnancies. her 1st baby was healthy, the 2nd was jaundiced at birth and required and exchange transfusion, while the 3rd was stillborn. Which of the following is the most likely cause: | show 🗑
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| show | d. Kell
(HDFN is caused by maternal IgG antibodies. Outside the Rh system, the most clinically significant antibody for HDFN is anti-K
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| 128) ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn: a. usually requires an exchange transfusion b. most often occurs in 1st born children c. frequently results in stillbirth d. is usually seen only in the newborn of group O mothers | show 🗑
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| show | a. Rh HDFN is clinically more severe than ABO HDFN
DAT is strongly positive in Rh HDFN, and could be negative in ABO HDFN
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| 132) A group A, Rh positive infant of a group O, Rh positive mother has a weakly positive DAT and moderately elevated bilirubin 12 hours after birth. the most likely cause is: a. ABO incompatibility b. Rh incompatibility | show 🗑
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| show | b. change in optical density measured at 450nm
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| show | c. yes, the DAT and cord hemoglobin level both support HDFN
c (A positive DAT on cord blood has a maternal antibody coating the baby's red cells and indicates hemolytic disease of the newborn. Normal cord hgb 14-20. A cord Hgb value of 10 is anemia
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| show | a. A, CDe/CDe
a (Blood for an exchange transfusion should lack the antigen to any maternal antibodies that have entered the infant's circulation and are reactive at 37 C or AHG.)
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| 140) A blood specimen from a pregnant woman is found to be group B, Rh neg. and the serum contains anti-D with a titer of 512. What would be the most appropriate type of blood to have available for a possible exchange transfusion for her infant? | show 🗑
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| 141) Blood selected for exchange transfusion must: a. lack RBC antigens corresponding to maternal antibodies b. be <3 days old c. be the same Rh as the baby d. be ABO compatible with the father | show 🗑
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| 142) When the main objective of an exchange transfusion is to remove the infant's antibody-sensitized RBCs and to control hyperbilirubinemia, the blood product of choice is ABO compatible: a. FFP b. RBCs washed c. RBC suspended in FFP | show 🗑
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| 143) To prevent graft vs host disease, RBCs prepared for infants who have received intrauterine transfusions should be: a. saline washed b. irradiated c. frozen and deglycerolized d. group-and Rh-compatible with the mother | show 🗑
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| show | a. mother is not a candidate for RhIg
***b. mother need 1 vial RhIg
c. mother need 2 vials RhIg
d. the fetal maternal hemorrhage needs to be quantified
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| 150) The results of a Kleihauer-Butke stain indicate a fetomaternal hemorrhage of 35 mL of WHOLE BLOOD. How many vials of Rh immune globulin would be required. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 | show 🗑
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| 151) A fetal maternal hemorrhage of 35 mL of fetal Rh-pos PACKED RBCs has been detected in an Rh-neg woman. How many vials of Rh immune globulin should be given a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 | show 🗑
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| show | c. mother has not been previously immunized to the D antigen
c (RhIg should be given to nonimmunized D- females who are pregnant or have delivered a D+ infant.)
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| 154) Rh immune globulin administration would not be indicated in an Rh-neg woman who has a: a. first trimester abortion b. husband who is Rh-pos c. anti-D titer of 1:4,096 d. mother having a positive DAT | show 🗑
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| show | b. 15
b (The formula to calculate the percentage assumes the mother's blood volume as 5,000 mL. 0.003 x 5,000 mL = l5 mL.)
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| 156) Based upon Kleihauer-Betke test results, which of the following formulas is used to determine the volume of fetomaternal hemorrhage expressed in mL of whole blood. a. % of fetal cell present x 30 b. % of fetal cell present x 50 | show 🗑
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| show | a. 10 mL
a (The rosette test is a sensitive method to detect FMH of 10 mL or more.)
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| show | d. no transfusion
d (Transfusion should generally be avoided except in cases of life-threatening anemia. A hemoglobin of 10.8 g/dL [108 g/L] is not life-threatening, especially if the patient is not actively bleeding.)
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| show | d. irradiated
d (Bone marrow transplant patients are at risk for transfusion-associated graft-vs-host disease [TA-GVHD] and therefore should receive irradiated blood products.)
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| show | b. a kidney donor
b (HLA antigen typing is important to consider before organ transplantation.)
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| show | ***a. quality control the AHG reagent and check cells and repeat the panel
b. open a new vial of check cells for subsequent testing that day
c. open a new vial of AHG for subsequent testing that day
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| show | a. a handwritten band with patients name and hospital identification number is affixed to the patients leg
a (Samples must be labeled with 2 independent patient identifiers and the date of collection
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| 169) The following test results are noted for a unit of blood labeled group A, Rh-neg, anti-A 4+ anti-B 0 anti-D 3+ What should be done next? a. transfuse as a group A, Rh-neg b. transfuse as a group A, Rh-pos c. notify the collecting facility | show 🗑
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| 170) What information is essential on patient blood sample labels drawn for compatibility testing? a. biohazard sticker for AIDS patients b. patients room number c. unique patient medical # d. phlebotomist initials | show 🗑
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| 171) Granulocytes for transfusion should: a. be administered through a micro aggregate filter b. be ABO compatible with the recipients serum c. be infused within 72 hrs. of collection | show 🗑
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| 172) A neonate will be transfused for the first time with group O Red Blood Cells. Which of the following is appropriate compatibility testing? a. crossmatch with mothers serum c. no crossmatch is necessary if initial plasma screening is negative | show 🗑
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| show | b. the weak D test and control would be positive
b (A positive DAT will interfere with weak D testing, causing both the patient and control to demonstrate positive results. Any positive result in the control tube invalidates any results.)
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| show | a. recent transfusion with group O blood
b. antigen depression due to leukemia
c. false-neg cell typing due to rouleaux
**d. obtained from the heel stick of a 2 month old baby
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| show | a. if group O, they may appear to have acquired a group A antigen
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| show | c. A3 red cells
(Mixed-field reactivity is a characteristic of the A3 subgroup. Transfusion history would be important to be sure it is not 2 cell populations.)
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| 179) Which of the following is a characteristic of polyagglutinable red cells? a. can be classified by reactivity with Ulex europaeus b. are agglutinated by most adult sera c. are always an acquired condition d. autocontrol is always positive | show 🗑
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| show | b. anti-D serum followed by washing and antiglobulin serum
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| show | d. weak subgroup of A
d (Some subgroups of A are only recognized because of their lack of anti-A in the reverse typing. Often, the donors are confirmed as subgroups of A by an adsorption-elution technique.)
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