worktest questions for Unit 4
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| show | C) these proteins are involved in innate immunity and not acquired immunity D) this group of proteins includes interferons and interleukins E) these proteins act individually to attack and lyse microbes (43-1) | A
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| show | A) phagocytes: chemokines B) mast cells: histamines C) phagocytes: lysozymes D) lymphocytes: interferons E) dendritic cells: interferons (43-2) | B
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| show | C) increased activity of phagocytes in an inflamed area D) clotting proteins migrating away from the site of infection E) inhibiting the release of white blood cells from bone marrow (43-3) | C
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| An invertebrate has innate immunity that can be nonspecific about which pathogens are prevented from harming its metabolism. Which of the following is most likely to function this way in the insect's intestine? | A) lysozyme B) dendritic cells C) neutrophils D) mucus E) complement (43-5) | show 🗑
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| show | B) his cells would lack class I MHC molecules C) his humoral immunity would be missing D) genetic rearrangement of antigen receptors would not occur E) his B cells would be reduced in number and antibodies would not form (43-6) | A
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| show | A) pain and whitening of the surrounding tissue B) swelling and pain C) heat, pain, and redness D) antibody producing cells E) swelling, heat, redness, and pain (43-7) | E
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| Clonal selection implies that: A) the body selects which antigens it will respond to | show | B
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| A person exposed to a new cold virus would not feel better for one to two weeks because: A) V-J gene rearrangement must occur prior to a response | show | B
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| Which of the following differentiates T cells and B cells? A) T cells can directly attack and destroy invading pathogens | show | A
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| show | A) identify specific viruses B) recognize differences among types of cancer C) distinguish self from nonself D) recognize specific parasitic pathogens E) identify specific bacterial pathogens (43-11) | C
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| show | A) B cells B) T cells C) natural killer cells D) macrophages E) plasma cells (43-12) | B
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| show | B) when natural killer cells come in contact with a tumor cell C) when B cells respond to T-independent antigens D) in the bone marrow during the self-tolerance test E) when an antigen is displayed by a dendritic cell (43-13) | E
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| show | B) DNA rearrangements in the thymus cells C) increased rate of mutation in the RNA molecules D) alternative splicing of exons after transcription E) crossing-over between the light and heavy chains of each antibody molecule during meiosis I (43-14) | A
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| These cells are involved in innate immunity, and a person lacking these cells may have a higher than normal chance of developing malignant tumors: | show | A
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| show | A) phagocytosis by neutrophils B) antibody production by plasma cells C) lysis by natural killer cells D) histamine release by basophils E) lysozyme production (43-16) | B
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| Both lysozyme and cytotoxic T cells: | A) kill cells through chemical interactions B) are part of innate immunity C) kill cells by generating a membrane attack complex D) kill cells by inducing apoptosis E) are involved in cell-mediated immune responses (43-17) | show 🗑
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| What are CD4 and CD8? A) receptors present on the surface of natural killer cells B) molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting cells where they enhance B cell activity | show | C
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| B cells interacting with helper T cells are stimulated to differentiate when: A) B cells produce IgE antibodies | show | C
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| How do antibodies of the different classes IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE differ from each other? | A) the antigenic determinants that they recognize B) the way they are produced C) the number of carbohydrate subunits they have D) their heavy chain structure E) the type of cell that produces them (43-20) | show 🗑
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| When antibodies attack antigens, clumping of the affected cells generally occurs. This is best explained by: A) bonds between class I and class II MHC molecules | show | D
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| Phagocytosis of microbes by macrophages is enhanced by which of the following? | show | D
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| What is the primary function of humoral immunity? A) defend against bacteria and viruses that have already infected cells | B) defend against fungi and protozoa C) produce antibodies that circulate in body fluids D) it's responsible for transplant tissue rejection E) protects the body against cells that become cancerous (43-23) | show 🗑
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| Jenner successfully used cowpox virus as a vaccine against the virus that causes smallpox. Why was he successful even though he used viruses of different kinds? | A) immune system responds nonspecifically to antigens B) cowpox virus made antibodies in response to presence of smallpox C) some antigenic determinants are common to both viruses D) both have antibodies with similar immunizing properties (43-24) | show 🗑
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| A transfusion of type A blood given to a person who has type O blood would result in which of the following? A) no reaction; O-type doesn't have antibodies | B) recipient's anti-A & O antibodies react if donor was heterozygote C) no reaction; O universal donor D) recipient's anti-A antibodies clump the donated red blood cells E) recipient's B antigens react with donated anti-B antibodies (43-25) | show 🗑
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| see table in worktest 43 In which of the cases would the precaution likely be taken to give the mother anti-Rh antibodies before delivering her baby? | A) Cases 1,2,3 B) Case 1 C) Case 3 D) Cases 1 and 2 E) can't be determined (43-26) | show 🗑
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| In the human disease known as lupus, there is an immune reaction against a patient's own DNA from broken or dying cells. This kind of response typifies which kind of irregularity? | A) immunodeficiency B) antigenic variation C) allergy D) cancer E) autoimmune disease (43-27) | show 🗑
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| An immune response to a tissue graft will differ from an immune response to a bacterium because: A) donor MHC molecules may stimulate rejection | show | A
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| Most newly emerging diseases, no matter how severe their effects on a population, human or otherwise, have which of the following in common? A) major pandemics, spread infection far and wide | B) tendency to die out quickly, cease to reproduce, or cause less severe effect C) destruction of host immune and cancer D) greater severity as there's more occurences E) no relationship (43-29) | show 🗑
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| show | A) brain cells B) helper T cells C) cytotoxic T cells D) cells bearing CD4 E) macrophages (43-30) | C
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| The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be ______ with its ______ environment | show | C
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| Which feature of osmoregulation is found in both marine and freshwater bony fish? | show | E
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| Unlike most bony fishes, sharks maintain body fluids that are isoosmotic to sea water. They are osmoconformers because of the way they maintain homeostasis. They osmoregulate by: A) synthesizing trimethylamine oxide; speeds salt removal from cells | B) monitoring dehydration at cell level with aquaporins C) adaptation allows cells to operate at high salt conc. D) tolerate high urea conc. that balance internal salt conc. to sea water osmolarity E) use gills and kidneys to get rid of sea salts (44- | show 🗑
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| show | B) kidneys not able to remove water in hyperosmotic; loss of homeostasis C) salt caused cells to swell and lyse D) brain cells lysed in increased osmotic pressure in hyperosmotic E) gills encrusted with salt (44-4) | A
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| Where and from what compound(s) is urea produced? | A) kidneys from glucose B) liver from glycogen C) bladder from uric acid and H2O D) kidneys from glycerol and fatty acids E) liver from NH3 and CO2 (44-5) | show 🗑
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| Which of the following is true of urea? It is: | A) the primary nitrogenous waste product of most birds B) insoluble in water C) the primary nitrogenous waste product of humans D) the primary nitrogenous waste product of aquatic invertebrates E) more toxic to human cells than ammonia (44-6) | show 🗑
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| show | A) metabolically more expensive to synthesize than urea B) low toxicity relative to urea C) can be stored as a precipitate D) soluble in water E) major nitrogenous waste excreted by insects (44-7) | D
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| The advantage of excreting wastes as urea rather than as ammonia is that: | show | B
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| Birds secrete uric acid as their nitrogenous waste because uric acid: A) allows birds to live in desert environments | B) is metabolically less expensive to synthesize than other excretory products C) requires little water for disposal, which is conducive to the function of flight in terms of weight E) soluble in water (44-9) | show 🗑
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| show | A) urea B) nitrogen gas C) ammonia D) amino acid E) uric acid (44-10) | E
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| In animals, nitrogenous wastes are produced mostly from the catabolism of: | show | E
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| The most concentrated urine is excreted by: | show | B
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| Materials are returned to the blood from the filtrate by which of the following processes? | show | C
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| show | A) earthworms B) insects C) flatworms D) cnidarians E) vertebrates (44-14) | C
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| show | A) flatworms B) sea stars C) insects D) earthworms E) jellyfish (44-15) | C
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| show | A) flame-bulb system of flatworms B) protonephridia of rotifers C) kidneys of vertebrates D) Malpighian tubules of insects E) metanephridia of earthworms (44-16) | C
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| Which of the following would contain blood in a normally functioning nephron? | show | E
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| Which structure descends deep into the renal medulla only in juxtamedullary nephrons? | show | C
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| Proper functioning of the human kidney requires active transport of sodium. If the active transport mechanisms were to stop, how would urine production be affected? | show | C
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| show | A) Bowman's capsule B) juxtamedullary nephrons C) urethra D) ureter E) podocytes (44-20) | B
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| What is unique about transport epithelial cells in the ascending loop of Henle in humans? | A) membranes are impermeable to water B) largest epithelial cells in the body C) not affected by high levels of nitrogenous wastes D) not in contact with interstitial fluid E) 50% of cell mass is smooth endoplasmic reticulum (44-21) | show 🗑
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| What is the typical osmolarity of human blood? | A) 100 mosm/L B) 200 mosm/L C) 500 mosm/L D) 30 mosm/L E) 300 mosm/L (44-22) | show 🗑
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| Which structure increases the reabsorption of Na+ when stimulated by aldosterone? | A) collecting duct B) Bowman's capsule C) distal tubules D) proximal tubule E) loop of Henle (44-23) | show 🗑
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| What would account for increased urine production as a result of drinking alcoholic beverages? | A) osmoregulator brain cells increase their activity B) increased aldosterone production C) inhibition of antidiuretic hormone secretion (ADH) D) increased reabsorption of water in proximal tubule E) increased blood pressure (44-24) | show 🗑
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| Which one of the following, if present in a urine sample, would likely be caused by trauma? | show | C
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| How does ADH function at the cellular level? A) causes membranes to include more phospholipids that have unsaturated fatty acids | show | C
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| Which of the following activities would initiate an osmoregulatory adjustment brought about primarily through the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system? | show | D
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| show | A) salt pumping by the loop of Henle B) filtration C) reabsorption D) active transport E) secretion (44-28) | B
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| How do ADH and RAAS work together in maintaining osmoregulatory homeostasis? A) ADH monitors blood osmolarity; RAAS regulates blood volume B) stimulate the adrenal gland to secrete aldosterone | C) ADH monitors osmolarity by reabsorption of water; RAAS maintains osmolarity by stimulating Na reabsorption D) only when together will nutrients be reabsorbed E) work antagonistically; RAAS stimulates water removal (44-29) | show 🗑
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| show | A) urea forms insoluble precipitate B) highly toxic urea makes the pool uninhabitable C) not enough water to dilute ammonia D) urea makes lungfish tissue hypoosmotic to the pool E) urea takes less energy to synthesize (44-30) | C
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| A simple nervous system: A) includes a minimum of 12 ganglia | show | B
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| show | A) glial cell in the brain B) a sensory neuron C) an interneuron D) a neuron that controls eye movements E) a glial cell at a ganglion (48-2) | B
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| In the communication link between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle: A) action potentials are possible only on the motor neuron | B) only the motor neuron fires action potentials C) motor neuron is presynaptic cell; skeletal muscle is postsynaptic cell D) action potentials only possible on skeletal muscle E) motor neuron is postsynaptic cell; skeletal muscle is presynaptic (48-3 | show 🗑
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| show | B) permitting passage only by positive ions C) permitting passage only to a specific ion D) permitting passage only by negative ions E) binding with only one type of neurotransmitter (48-4) | C
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| The "threshold" potential of a membrane: A) point of separation of a living from a dead neuron B) peak amount of depolarization in an action potential | show | E
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| After the depolarization phase of an action potential, the resting potential is restored by: A) opening of voltage-gated K channels and closing of Na activation gates | show | A
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| See graph in worktest 48 The membrane potential is closest to the equilibrium potential for potassium at label: | (48-7) | show 🗑
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| See graph in worktest 48 The membrane's permeability to sodium ions is at its maximum at label: | (48-8) | show 🗑
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| The cell is not hyperpolarized, but repolarization is in progress, as the sodium channels are closing or closed, and many potassium channels have opened, at label: | show | C
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| show | A) opening of voltage-gated K channels B) inhibition of the Na-K "pump" C) opening of voltage-gated Na channels D) activation of the Na-K "pump" E) closing of voltage-gated K channels (48-10) | C
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| For a neuron with an initial membrane potential at -70 mV, an increase in the movement of K ions out of that neuron's cytoplasm would result in: | A) hyperpolarization of neuron B) switching on Na-K pump to restore initial conditions C) replacement of K ions with Ca ions D) replacement of K ions with Na ions E) depolarization of the neuron (48-11) | show 🗑
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| show | A) slightly permeable to Na ions B) fully permeable to Ca ions C) fully permeable to Na ions D) impermeable to Na ions E) highly permeable to Cl ions (48-12) | A
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| Neural transmission across a mammalian synaptic gap is accomplished by: A) impulses ricocheting back and forth across the gap | B) movement of Na and K ions from presynaptic to postsynaptic C) impulses causing release of chemical signal and its diffusion across gap D) impulses traveling as electrical currents E) movement of Ca ions from presynaptic to postsynaptic (48-13) | show 🗑
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| One disadvantage to a nerve net is that it can conduct impulses in two directions from the point of the stimulus. Most of the synapses in vertebrates conduct information in only one direction: A) because Na-K pump moves ions in one direction | B) as a result of the nodes of Ranvier C) because nerve cells have dendrites D) as result of voltage-gated Na channels found in system E) because only postsynaptic cells can bind and respond to neurotransmitters (48-14) | show 🗑
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| The observation that the acetylcholine released into the junction between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle binds to a Na channel and opens it is an example of: | A) voltage-gated K channel B) ligand-gated Na channel C) second-messenger-gated Na channel D) chemical that inhibits action potentials E) voltage-gated Na channel (48-15) | show 🗑
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| The activity of acetylcholine in a synapse is terminated by: | A) active transport across presynaptic membrane B) degradation by a hydrolytic enzyme on postsynaptic membrane C) diffusion across presynaptic membrane D) diffusion across postsynaptic membrane E) active transport across postsynaptic membrane (48-16) | show 🗑
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| When several EPSPs arrive at the axon hillock from different dendritic locations, depolarizing the postsynaptic cell to threshold for an action potential, this is an example of: | show | D
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| When several IPSPs arrive at the axon hillock rapidly in sequence from a single dendritic location, hyperpolarizing the postsynaptic cell more and more and thus preventing an action potential, this is an example of: | A) spatial summation B) an action potential with an abnormally high peak of depolarization C) the refractory state D) temporal summation E) tetanus (48-18) | show 🗑
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| show | A) mitochondrial membranes B) dendritic membranes C) axon hillocks D) axonal membranes E) presynaptic membranes (48-19) | C
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| An amino acid that operates at inhibitory synapses in the brain: | show | E
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| The botulinum toxin reduces the synaptic release of: | A) endorphin B) acetylcholine C) epinephrine D) GABA E) nitric oxide (48-21) | show 🗑
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| show | A) equilibrium potential for K becomes more + B) net diffusion of Na out of cell C) neuron less likely to generate an action potential D) membrane voltage becomes more positive E) inside of cell becomes more - relative to the outside (48-22) | D
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| show | B) move at same speed along all axons C) cause membrane to hyperpolarize then depolarize D) result from Na and K diffusion through ligand-gated channels E) triggered by depolarization that reaches the threshold (48-23) | E
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| Which of the following is a direct result of depolarizing the presynaptic membrane of an axon terminal? | A) postsynaptic produces an action potential B) ligand-gated channels open; allow neurotransmitters to enter synaptic cleft C) synaptic vesicles fuse with membrane D) voltage-gated Ca channels open E) EPSP or IPSP is generated in postsynaptic (48-24) | show 🗑
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| Where are neurotransmitter receptors located? | show | E
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| Why are action potentials usually conducted in only one direction along an axon? A) ions can flow along axon in one direction | show | C
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| An advantage of asexual reproduction is that: A) enhances genetic variability | show | C
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| Sexual reproduction patterns include the example of: | A) parthenogenesis B) fragmentation C) hermaphroditism D) fission E) budding (46-2) | show 🗑
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| If you observe vertebrate organisms with parthenogenetic reproduction, internal development of embryos, and the lack of parental care for its young, you should categorize these organisms as: | show | B
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| show | B) all offspring are haploid C) vestigial penis among some of the females D) dependence on favorable weather for ovulation E) requirement for male-like behaviors in some females before their partners will ovulate (46-4) | E
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| Like many other fishes, bluehead wrasses utilize harem mating as they reproduce sexually, but unlike most fish: | A) offspring can be haploid or diploid B) they function w/o any signaling by steroid hormones C) undergo prolonged diapause during low tide D) are simultaneous hermaphrodites E) large females morph into reproductively competent males (46-5) | show 🗑
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| show | A) haploid gametes B) receptacle that receives sperm C) internal development of embryos D) behavioral interaction between males and females E) copulatory organs (46-6) | C
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| In close comparisons, external fertilization often yields more offspring than does internal fertilization, but internal fertilization offers the advantage that: A) only way to ensure survival of species | B) offspring receive greater amount of parental investment C) permits most rapid population increase D) requires less time and energy to be devoted to reproduction E) requires expression of fewer genes; maximizes genetic stability (46-7) | show 🗑
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| Organisms with a reproductive pattern that produce shelled amniotic eggs generally: A) lower embryo mortality rate to less than one in a thousand | show | D
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| show | B) region bordered by labia minora and clitoris in females C) gland secretes mucus to lubricate vaginal opening D) common exit for digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems E) source of nutrients for sperm (46-9) | D
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| Females of many insect species, including honeybee queens, can store gametes shed by their mating partners in: | show | E
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| show | B) peristaltic contraction of ovarian muscles C) beating action of flagellum on oocyte D) beating of cilia lining the oviduct E) movement through the pulsing uterus (46-11) | D
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| The junction of the upper vagina and the uterus is called the: | A) fallopian tube B) clitoris C) oviduct D) cervix E) labia majora (46-12) | show 🗑
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| show | B) the placenta; secretes cervical mucus C) ovarian endometrium; shed at time of menses D) swept into fallopian tube E) steroid-hormone synthesizing structure called the corpus luteum (46-13) | E
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| The male and female structures that consist mostly of erectile tissue include: | show | B
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| show | B) testes migrate back into the abdominal cavity C) greatly reduce volume of semen D) cause sterility; sperm not able to exit body E) enhance fertilization potency of sperm (46-15) | C
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| show | A) secretions of bulbourethral glands B) secretions of seminal vesicles C) secretions of seminiferous tubules D) anticoagulant enzymes E) secretions of prostate gland (46-16) | B
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| Among human males, both semen and urine normally travel along the: | A) ureter B) urinary bladder C) seminal vesicle D) vas deferens E) urethra (46-17) | show 🗑
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| show | A) only occurs in upper vagina B) only occurs in penis C) only occurs in clitoris D) only occurs in testes E) occurs in clitoris, vagina, and penis (46-18) | E
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| show | A) four zygotes B) one secondary oocyte C) four secondary oocytes D) two primary oocytes E) four primary oocytes (46-19) | B
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| A male's "primary" sex characteristics include: | show | A
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| The primary difference between estrous and menstrual cycles is that: A) endometrium shed by uterus during estrous cycle is reabsorbed; excreted in menstrual cycle | show | A
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| In correct chronological order, the three phases of the ovarian cycle are: | A) menstrual-> proliferative-> secretory B) follicular-> ovulation-> luteal C) proliferative-> luteal-> ovulation D) follicular-> luteal-> secretory E) menstrual-> ovulation-> luteal (46-22) | show 🗑
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| show | A) follicular-> luteal-> secretory B) proliferative-> luteal-> ovulation C) follicular-> ovulation-> luteal D) menstrual-> ovulation-> luteal E) menstrual-> proliferative-> secretory (46-23) | E
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| This hormone is secreted directly from a structure in the brain: | A) follicle stimulating hormone B) progesterone C) estradiol D) testosterone E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (46-24) | show 🗑
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| show | B) nourish and protect the egg cell C) produce prolactin D) maintain progesterone and estrogen synthesis after ovulation E) support pregnancy in 2nd and 3rd trimesters (46-25) | D
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| For normal human fertilization to occur: | A) only one sperm needs to penetrate one egg B) many ova must be released C) uterus must be enlarged D) secondary oocyte must implant in the uterus E) secretion of FSH and LH must decrease (46-26) | show 🗑
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| show | A) estrogen B) progesterone C) chorionic gonadotropin D) follicle-stimulating hormone E) hypothalamus releasing factors (46-27) | C
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| Labor contractions would be increased by the use of a synthetic drug that mimics the action of: | show | E
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| The "immunotolerance" of a pregnant woman toward her unborn child is the result of: A) complete physical separation of her cells and the child's | show | C
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| show | A) coitus interruptus & rhythm method B) male condom & female condom C) diaphragm & subcutaneous progesterone implant D) male condom & oral contraceptives E) vasectomy & tubal ligation (46-30) | E
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| A bacterium entering the body through a small cut in the skin will do which of the following? | A) stimulate natural killer cell activity B) inactivate the erythrocytes C) activate a group of proteins called complement D) stimulate apoptosis of nearby body cells E) stimulate release of interferons (43-4) | show 🗑
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