Liz ST210 Final Review (1)
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| 50. The surgeon responsible for developing the first ventricular assist pump is | DeBakey
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| 51. The surgeon that performed the first heart transplant in the US is | Cooley
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| 52. The surgeon that performed the first totally artificial heart implant is | Cooley
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| 53. The father of microbiology, virology, and immunology is | Pasteur
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| 54. When does the intraoperative phase of surgical case management begin | When the incision is made by the surgeon
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| 55. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of needs, which of these is NOT a physiological need | Safety (Food, Water, O2 are)
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| 56. When operating on a healthy adult patient, the temp in the OR should be kept bt | 65-75 Degrees
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| 57. The guidelines concerning ___ precautions state blood and certain body fluids from all Pts should be considered potentially infectious for HIV, HBV, or other blood borne pathogens | Universal
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| 58. T/F - Studies have proven that laser plume contains water, carbonized particles, intact strands of DNA | True
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| 1.The interaction of drugs molecules with target cells that result in a biochemical and physiological action is called | Pharmocodynamics
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| 2. A nonproprietary name for a drug that is often a shortened version of the chemical name and may include a reference to the intended use is called the _____ name | Generic
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| 3. The route of medication that is placed between the cheek and the teeth until it is dissolved or absorbed is called | Buccal
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| 4. T/F - Drugs are classified according to their principle action, organ or body system affected, physiological action, or its therapeutic action | True
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| 5. A/An ______ response is an unavoidable effect or disease induced by pharmachological therapy. | Iatrogenic
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| 59. Lead aprons should be laid flat or hung on an apron rack to | Prevent cracking of lead
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| 60. Codeine is an ex of what drug classification | Analgesic
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| 61. During a craniotomy, the surgeon requests the Pt be given a diuretic to reduce the swelling on the brain. Which of the following meds would the circulator give to the surgeon | Mannitol (NOT Atropine, Dig, and Oxytocic)
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| 62. Which of the following is an ex of a medication used to enhance the effect of a local or regional anesthetic | Epinephrine (NOT Atropine, Dipravan, Ketamine)
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| 63. Sodium bicarbonate is used to | Combat metabolic acidosis
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| 64. The depolarizing medication used to produce total skeletal muscle relaxation is called | Succinycholine
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| 65. Microfibrillar collagen is considered what type of med | Hemostatic
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| 66. A (an) ___ interaction occurs when a drug enhances the effect of another substance | Agonist
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| 67. ___ is the time from administration to the actions before evident | Onset
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| 68. ___ is the time from during which the drug is at max effect | Peak effect
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| 69. Pulse oximetry involves the noninvasive assessment of the | Hemoglobin saturation levels in arterial blood
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| 70. What invasive method allows the anesthesia provider the ability to monitor BP | Arterial Line
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| 71. Codeine is an ex of what drug classification | Analgesic
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| 72. Given the focused and technical task of the OR, the team must struggle against the tendency to | Lose sight of the Pt as a total person
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| 73. Omission or commission of an act that is r/t normal Pt care is the most common cause of a charge of | Negligence
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| 74. Special populations have unique ___ and ___ needs | Physical, Psychological
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| 75. Which can be used to produce professional standards of conduct | Professional membership association
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| 76. In comparison with adults, pediatric Pts have little subcutaneous fat and therefore | Have poor thermal insulation
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| 77. Why neonates and infants are not usually catheterized | High risk of trauma to the urethra
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| 78. Septic shock is caused by | Gram-neg bacteria
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| 79. What is the initial sign of a postop infection | Fever
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| 80. If a pediatric Pt has a pneumothorax, there is an accumulation of air in the | Pleural cavity
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| 81. Pts who are obese weigh ___ pounds or more over their recommended wt | 100
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| 82. What is the number of air exchanges req to keep the amt of airborne contamination in the OR to a minimum | 20
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| 83. Which is used to bring the current create back to the ESU | Grounding pad
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| 84. A life threatening allergic reaction is an ___ reactions | Anaphylactic
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| 85. A drug given to treat MH (Malignant Hyperthermia) is | Dantrolene
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| 86. ___ is commonly used in the anesthetic setting to provide breath-by-breath analysis of expired CO2 | Capnography
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| 87. The class assigned to a Pt that is brain dead and undergoing an organ procurement is | Class 6
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| 88. Lidocaine has a | Fast onset, Short duration
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| 89. Stage 2 of anesthesia is referred to as the ___ stage | Excitement
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| 6. What medication might be used by the anesthesia provider to reduce anxiety in a patient | Diazepam
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| 7. Which of the following media might be used by a general surgeon when the need for a Intraoperative cholangiogram is required for a cholecystectomy. | Hypaque
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| 8. Which of the following is NOT a antibacterial medication | Warfarin (Bactiracin, Gentamicin, Vancomycin are)
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| 9. If a patient is to have their pregnancy induced, what medication could be given to induce contraction of the uterus | Oxytocin (NOT Atropine, Diazepam, Papaverine)
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| 10. Cricoid pressure involves placing pressure on the cricoid cartilage which pushes the esophagus against the _____ vertebrae | Cervical
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| 11. T/F - Laryngospasm or bronchospasm is seen in the lightly anesthetized patient | True
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| 12. T/F Induced hypothermia involves the artifical, deliberate lowering of the body's core temperature below normal limits | True
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| 90. Stage 3 of anesthesia is referred to as the ___ stage | Surgical (Stage 1 Amnesia. Stage 2 Excitement. Stage 3 Surgical. Stage 4 Overdose)
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| 91. The phase of anesthesia that begins with the Pt awake and ends when the Pt is asleep | Induction (Phase 1 Induction., Phase 2 Maintenance. Phase 3 Emergence. Phase 4 Recovery)
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| 92. The ASA code for a Pt that has little chance of survival | Class 5
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| 93. What is the control substance classification for high abuse potential and a current acceptable medicinal use | 2
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| 94. What is the control substance classification for relatively low abuse potential and a current acceptable medicinal use | 4
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| 95. What is the control substance classification for a substance that has a small amount of codeine | 5
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| 96. Sodium bicarbonate is used to | To combat metabolic acidosis
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| 97. T/F - A red line indicates the border bt restricted and unrestricted | True
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| 13. T/F - Hypertension results in a decrease in bleeding and overall blood loss while increasing visibility within the surgical field | False
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| 14. The _____ is an ultrasonic device used to identify and assess vascular status of peripheral arteries and veins by magnifying the sound of the blood moving through the vessel | Doppler
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| 15. The reason to perform a specific procedure or prescribe a certain drug | Indication
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| 16. The term used to describe behavior of a professional person's misconduct; in fact, a negligent act committed by surgical personnel is called : | Malpractice
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| 17. T/F - Defamation can be either written or an oral statement that damages a person's reputation or good name | True
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| 18. To obtain written permission for all invasive procedures is also called _____ consent. | Informed
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| 19. T/F - The law allows for implied consent in emergency situations when no other authorized persons may be contacted | True
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| 20. What is the mechanism for reporting incidents related to any adverse patient occurrence | Incident Report
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| 21. Any need or activity related to identification and understanding of one's place in an organized universe is defined as a ______ need | Spiritual
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| 22. Any need or activity related to one's identification or interaction with another individual or group is called a ______ need | Social
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| 23. Which is a series of operating rooms around a clean central core | Racetrack
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| 24. Which is NOT a restricted area | PACU (Operaring Room, Decontamination room, and Utility room are)
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| 25. Which is a restricted area | Storage room (NOT Dressing rooms, Offices, or PACU)
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| 26. T/F - An SSI is an infection acquired at the surgical site | True
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| 27. Which is closest to the operative field | Mayo stand
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| 28. T/F - The back table is for immediate necessary instruments | False
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| 29. These are for collection of soiled counted sponges | Kick buckets
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| 30.In the O.R. the humidity is set between | 50%-55%
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| 31. Which is NOT present in a sub sterile room | Scrub sink (Blanket warmer, solution wamer, and autoclave are)
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| 32. Which support service assists in monitoring blood gasses | Laboratory
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| 33. Which is NOT a requirement of an O.R. surface | Shiny ( Smooth, fireproof, and Waterproof are)
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| 34. The pathology department examines _____ | Specimens
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| 35. _____ provides a remedy in the form of an action for damages | Tort
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| 36. T/F A ring stand can be used in absence of a slush machine | True
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| 37. The two communication systems in the O.R. suite are | Telephone and intercom
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| 38. Which is NOT a restricted area | Pre-op Holding (Storage room, anesthesia room, and supply room are)
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| 39. Surgical pathology that threatens life or limb within a relatively short time period is defined as what type of surgical classification | Emergent
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| 40. Surgical intervention that does not have to be performed immediately or within a short period of time is classified as | Elective
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| 41. If a patient comes to the hospital and is diagnosed with a torn ligament and meniscus of the of the right knee, the surgical classifcation would be | Elective
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| 42. What is the general legal term that identifies an intentional act intended to make another person fearful | Assault
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| 43. What doctrine states that each person is responsible for his or her own tortuous conduct, even though others may be liable as well | Personal liability
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| 44. Given the nature of invasive procedures, which of the following is mandatory when seeking permission to perform the procedure | Written and informed consent
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| 45. What term defines what is good for the individual and for society and establishes the nature of duties that people owe themselves and one another | Ethics
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| 46. What was established in 1985 by AST to provide guidelines for surgical technologist | Code of Ethics
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| 47.What describes the task,functions and responsibilities of a position, within an organization | Job descriptions
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| 48. Most surgical technology programs are accredited through what organization | CAAHEP
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| 49. An integrated system developed by hospitals for the prevention and control of areas of potential liability is called | Risk management
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| 98. What is the proper position for an abdominal hysterectomy | Supine (NOT Lithotomy because it's not a vaginal)
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