CDC 3S051A
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| Who ensures equitable assignments of 3S0X1 personnel for host units? | Military Personnel Flight commander or superintendent
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| The agency that is the focal point for translating all military personnel policies and programs into actions affecting personnel and acts as the personnel resource manager is the | Military Personnel Flight
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| Regardless of command affiliation, active duty Military Personnel Flight (MPF) service all active duty Air Force members collocated | on an installation with a host command MPF
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| In the objective wing structure, the Military Personnel Flight is aligned under the | Mission Support Squadron
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| The Military Personnel Flight commander has the authority to align authorizations where needed using the MPF organization structure consisting of | one standard configuration and one manpower standard
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| To what activity must Air Force Reserve (AFRC) Military Personnel Flights forward deviation requests in order to obtain approval before implementation? | HQ AFRC/DPXM
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| Establishing a Base Individual Mobiliazation Augmentee (BIMMA) function is based on the number of individual mobillization augmentees | serviced and the total number of BIMMAAs available for this duty
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| The functional link between the Military Personnel Flight (MPF), commander's support staff, and the military personnel data system is the MPF | Personnel Systems section
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| The two elements of the Miltary Personnel Flight customer support section are customer service and | career enhancements
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| What Miltary Personnel Flight element is responsible for updating sponsor and family member personnel information? | Customer Service
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| Who ensures equitable assignment of 3S0X1 personnel for host units? | Military Personnel Flight commander or superintendent
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| To what agencies must the Military Personnel Flight (MPF) report any functional personnel problems that substantially limit a commander's support staff mission capability | MAJCOM and AFPC/DPSFM
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| Under Air Force manning standards, the number of manpower authorizations provided to Military Personnel Flights (MPF) is based on | the number of manpower authorizations in units serviced by the MPF, including GSU.
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| The Military Personnel Flight accomplishes all personnel actions where personnel are | not assigned to a GSU and the GSU has no administrative capability
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| A request to establish an Air Force Reserve satellite personnel activity must be submitted by or through the | Numbered Air Force to HQ AFRC
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| Which is not a basic parameter/interface for a satellite personnel activity (SPA) | SPA must belong to a host MAJCOM
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| A joint mission is employment of forces of | two or more services in a coordinated action toward a common mission.
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| Joint doctrine allows commanders and their staff to focus on solving problems in all of the following areas except | administrative.
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| What is NOT a personnel journeyamn duty? | Advising memberson official and personnel obligations incident to relocation, training and promotion.
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| What personnel journeyman duty corresponds with the personnel journeyman responsibilty of ensuring proper counseling of individuals on personnel benefits, programs and procedures? | Overseas personnel activities and functions
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| Creation of forces status information for the wartime function of personnel accountability depends heavily on | force manpower requirments.
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| Which wartime function is NOT considered a force sustainment mission? | Activities normally focused on the individual, rather than the unit or organization.
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| When collecting information under the Air Force Privacy Act, it is DoD policy | to protect individuals from unwarrannted invasion of their personal privacy.
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| Which item of information can you release to a third party without written consent from the individual? | Base Pay
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| When the information is to be entered into a system of records, collect all information directly from the individual in order to preclude any adverse determinations about an individual's | rights, benefits or privleges.
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| Give classified information only to persons who have been granted the appropriate clearance, have a need to know the information, and | have signed a Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement.
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| Interior pages of a classified document are conspicuously marked or stamped at the top and bottom with the | highest classification of information appearing on that page.
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| Top Secret classification required that documents be stored in a GSA-approved security container with a | secure room with an intrusion detection system.
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| On which form(s) do you record end of day security checks? | SF Form 701
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| Which method of destruction is NOT authorized for classified documents? | Tearing.
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| Which of the following may be used when sending an administrative communication with a Secret classification to an office on the installation via the Base Information Transfer System? | AF Form 12 and container numbers
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| Normally, when would you take followup action if the AF Form 12, Accountable Container Receipt, has not returned? | Within 12 workdays from date of dispatch.
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| When you discover discrepencies as you process incoming accountable communications, you must | notify the sender immediatly.
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| What statement best defines military personnel data system folders? | Folders are private or public folders used to retrieve and update personnel information.
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| Which option is available in the auto query field box in the Save Folder? | Always
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| When using military personnel data system, which function key enters you into query mode? | F7
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| When using military personnel data system, which function key initiates the search on your query criteria? | F8
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| How many catagories can you select when performing group queries in military personnel data system? | 4
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| Who is responsible for the overall operation and maintenance of personnel concept-III? | Personnel systems manager.
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| In the personnel concept-III system, what FOCUS fieldname do you use to display the number of values that exist in a specified field? | /COUNT
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| Which personnel concept-III application consists of ten major directories and is where various users processes occur? | Office automation
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| What is the function of the personnel concept-III (PC-III) Updates and Rejects office automation directory when dealing with update and reject responses? | Updates and reject responses from the Military Personnel Data System are sent to this directory.
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| When working with the Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS), all of the following are MPF responsibilities except | providing statistical summaries showing reject trends
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| Category I transactions are input by the Military Personnel Flight through the Defense Data Network to | Defense Finance and Accounting Service-Denver for input to the Defense Joint Military Pay System
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| When a member reports to the Military Personnel Flight with a pay problem or inquiry, the Military Personnel Flight | contacts theFinancial Servicees Office to determine if the pay inquiry can be resolved without the member's presence.
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| What catergory of standard products is regulated by the system and cannot be changed by the Military Personnel Flight? | Transaction Registers.
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| The purpose of the File Monitor transaction register is to notify the Military Personnel Flight (MPF) workcenter that an action is about to happen and to | ensure the MPF takes immediate corrective action on any projection that should not consummate.
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| A Data Change transaction register is produced in what sequence? | Alphabetically, by record type, by workcenter, and by the Military Personnel Flight.
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| What transaction register is produced when pay-affecting transactions input by the Military Personnel Flight are rejected at the Defense Finance and Accounting Service-Denver? | DJMS rejects
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| Personnel concept-III holds user accountable for their actions by writing each application that processed to a log file and attaching the specific users | login to that application.
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| Under the military personnel data system, what is the vital link in determining security in the human resources enviroment? | Responsibility.
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| For military personnel data system, you must have a unique UserID; the possibility that your UserID is reused is | moderately high
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| What office is the office of primary responsibility for Personnel Support for Contingency Operations policy and Combat Crisis Action Team/Manpower and Personnel Readiness Center within the Air Force Combat Operations Group? | PRU and Joint Matters Division (HQ USAF/DPFJ)
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| When discussing Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO) policy, HQ USAF/DPFJ | develops and overseas PERSCO policy for all levels of personnel.
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| A core unit type code is a method of | improving the Air Force's overall combat capability by ensuring that a command structure is available at each location.
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| Accountability for deploying personnel from the time they arrive at the depolyment processing function until they leave their home station is the responsibility of the | Personnel Deployment Function.
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| The information necessary for the PErsonnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO) team or Military Personnel Flight (MPF) at the wmployment site to account for deployment personnel gained during a contingency is contained in the | personnel accountability kit.
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| The Status of Resources and Training System is | automated reporting system that function as the central registry of all operational units for the armed forces and certain foreign organizations.
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| Which units are meassured (tracked) in Status of Resources and Training System? | Combat or combat support
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| The term operation plan applies to | any plan, except the single intergrated operation plan, for the conduct of military operations.
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| In operation(s) planning, forces, and supplies are identified in | time-phase force development data files.
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| The detail of a finished operation plan depends on the | the time available and the likelihood of executing the plan.
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| Mobilization encompasses all activities necessary to | prepare systamatically and selectively for war.
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| What are the categories of mobilization? | Full, partial, total and push-pull.
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| With appropriate mobilization authority under the total force policy, selected units and personnel may be mobilized within | 24hours
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| When full mobilization/intergration has been ordered, Air Force Reserve Master Personnel records are forwarded to | HQ AFPC.
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| When the Air Force conducts mobilization/intergration and any level of activiation has been directed, than active suty retirees are placed under the operational and administrative control of the | Regular Air Force.
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| What Personnel Support for Contingency Operation team member is responsible for developing a tentative shift schedule? | PERSCO team Chief/NCOIC
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| The MANPER-B software system is compromised of what two main application? | Main and PERSCO.
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| Which is a function of the MANPER-B module theat identifies members filling deployment taskings? | Receive, build and maintain plans database.
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| Under MANPER-B, the unit type code (UTC) section or records named "Details" identifies | the types and numbers of Air Force Specialty Codes required to perform the stated mission.
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| The Personnel Support for Contingency Operations team and Military Personnel Flights submit the departure report as soon as | all information is available but NOT later than 30 minutes.
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| Deployed Commanders usse filler and replacement requests to identify | personnel requirements needed to help meet mission objectives.
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| What agency tasks filler and replacement requirements to the command or organization that it decides can best handle the personnel requirement? | Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center
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| Under which program does the Air Force manage rotational requirements supporting long term contingency operations? | PALACE TENURE.
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| Who may authorize a member PTDY for house-hunting prior to PCS? | Current Commander.
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| Oversea returnees may be authorized up to how many days PTDY for pre-retirement relocation? | 30 days.
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| At the end of the fiscal year, Air Force members who are assigned to an operational mission at the national level can keep accured leave up to | 90 days when they have at least 60 days assigned.
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| Commanders may delegate leave approval authority for permissive temporary duty (PTDY) to a level that is no lower than the | squadron section commander.
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| When an Air Force member falls ill or needs hospilization while on leave, who may advise the leave approving authority? | The next of kin.
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| Convalescent leave begins the day of discharge from a medical treatment facility (MTF) and ends on the | day before return to duty.
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| What is emergency leave? | Charegable leave that is granted within the limits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a personal or family emergency that requires the member's presence.
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| The date that leave requests appear on the Daily Register of Transactions (DROT) must be posted to the | individual's leave request.
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| When you monitor leave authorizations, you use the AF Form 1486, Unit Leave Control Log, to | issue and control leave authorization numbers and to record leave transactions processing from the DROT.
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| Who determines if a unit will begin a new series of leave authorization numbers on 1 October? | FSO.
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| Block assignments must be verified against the Daily Register of Transactions (DROT) at least | 45 days.
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| Who CAN NOT be a rater under the performance feedback program? | A civilian GS-4 employee.
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| What is one of the responsibilities of the unit commander under the performance feedback program? | Discipline raters who fail to conduct documented performance feedback sessions.
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| Within how many days must a new supervisor provide feedback to ratee? | 60.
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| When should a ratee who is getting a change of reporting official (DRO) Enlisted Performance Report (EPR) be given performance feedback? | At least 30 days before EPR close-out.
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| What is done with the performance feedback worksheet (PFW) notice once the feedback is accomplished? | It is retained in the member's personnel information file (PIF)
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| The Individualized Newcomer Treatment and Orientation (INTRO) Program is a tool that commanders use to ensure that members who have relocation pending are able to obtain | personal assistance through sponsorship, if requested.
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| A base Individualized Newcomer Treament and Orientation (INTRO) Program manager is NOT responsible for | implementing the INTRO Program.
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| The base Individualized Treatment and Orientation (INTRO) Program manager prepares a sponsor kit that includes a | base fact sheet.
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| Within what time frame of their selection as sponsor should a sponsor mail the sponsor kit to an inbound member? | 7 calendar days.
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| When are divirced military members who do NOT have custody of their children eligible to receive basic allowance for subsistence (BAS)? | When it preserves the visitation rights of the member.
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| Enlisted members of what ranks are automatically authorized basic allowance for subsistence (BAS)? | E-7 through E-9.
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| What factors can the commander consider when authorizing basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) for members who are NOT automatically authorized to receive it? | Dining hall capacity and location of member's residence.
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| How often is a unit required to verify basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) authorizations? | Annually.
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| Who is responsible for publishing an installation instruction for validating subsistence in kind (SIK) entitlement and identification? | Support Group Commander.
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| Who is authorized a meal card? | Members of other services atationed at, or attached to, AF installations and authorized to receive SIK.
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| When members are scheduled to depart during nonduty hours, they can turn in their meal card | during normal duty hours and have it replaced with a stamped copy of the PCS Orders.
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| Who determines which optional documents are filed in a member's unfavorable information file (UIF)? | Commander.
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| Today, the commander signed section V of an AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action, putting a staff sergeant on the control roster. What is the final disposition date? | Twelve months from today.
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| Whcih document is an optional item that may be filed in an unfavorable information file (UIF)? | Article 15 punishment.
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| What is the only mandatory document that is referred to an officer with the AF FOrm 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action, before it is filed in an unfavorable information file (UIF)? | Letter of Reprimand.
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| How many duty days does a member have to acknowledge notice of an intended action to establish an unfavorable information file (UIF)? | 3.
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| What is marked in the front and the back of an unfavorable information file (UIF) folder? | The words "For Official Use Only"
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| Who should NOT be allowed to access an unfavorable information file (UIF)? | Members of enlisted promotion selection boards.
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| Upon assumption of command, when must a commander review all unit unfavorable information files (UIF)? | Within 90 days.
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| When does the unfavorable information file (UIF) monitor audit UIFs? | At least twice a year
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| When does the unfavorable information file (UIF) monitor remove documentation pertaining to Articel 15 action? | Upon receipt of a record of action from the staff jusge advocate showing that punishment was set aside.
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| What action is taken by the temporary duty (TDY) commander when an unfavorable information file (UIF) is established on members who will return to their permanent duty station after completion of TDY? | Send the completed packageto the members Unit Commander.
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| the stated purpose of the Control Roster is to | observe and monitor members who have demonstrated substandard duty performance
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| Who can place a member on a control roster? | Unit Commander
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| Which actions should Commanders consider before entering or removing a member from the Control Roster? | Directing that and EPR (enlisted) or OPR (officer) be written.
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| What happens when a member who is on the control roster receives a mandatory permanent change of station (PCS) assignment, and the projected departure date is prior to the date the member is projected to be removed from the control roster? | The control roster action expires on the date the member departs.
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| When can a member who is on the control roster change units under a permanent change of assignment (PCA) action? | When the PCA is essential to the mission and the losing and gaining commander concur.
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| When action takes place once a commander signs the AF Form 1058, Unfavorable Information File Action? | the member acknowledges the action and submits statements on his or her behalf within 3 days.
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| What MUST be included when a Record of Individual Counseling (RIC) is forwarded from the initiator to a member's commander? | The member's acknowledgement and any documents submitted by the member.
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| If a letter if counseling (LOC) is not placed in a member's unfavorable information file (UIF), it MUST be | placed in the personal information file (PIF).
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| The maximum Article 15 punishment a commander can impose is based on? | grade of commander and the offender
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| Which is usually a reqard for good behavior? | remission.
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| Which tool provides commanders with prompt and essential means to maintain good order and discipline and promotes positive behavior? | Article 15.
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| Which ranks can be demoted for just cause? | Amn through CMSGT.
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| A commander may initiate administrative demotion action after a member reenllists for events or actions that occured prior to the current enlistment | when the commander was not aware of the facts and circumstances until after the term of enlistment expired.
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| Who CAN NOT be the final decision authority for an action to administratively demote SMSgt Adams? | Wing Commander.
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| What is the lowest grade to which SSgt Bush can be demoted? | A1C
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| The commander is submitting a memorandum to demote A1C Hooper. What information does the memorandum contain? | A statement that A1C Hooper may request a personal hearing before the initiating commander.
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| Members who have been notified of a projected administrative demotion must present wither oral or written statements in their own behalf | withing 3 duty days of receipt of notification.
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| What is the minimum number of days the military personnel flight (MPF) must wait before publishing demotion orders? | Four working days after the airman acknowledges the demotion authority's decision.
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| How often is duty status reporting accomplished? | Whenever changes occur.
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| How many days can a member be placed in duty status "whereabouts unknown"? | 10.
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| Which rule applies when the commander is determining the efffective date of reported lost time on an AF FOrm 2098, Duty Status Change Report? | Do not count the day an individual is returned to duty/military control.
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| You change members duty status to "absent without leave - AWOL" when they have an unauthorized absence of more than | 24 hours, but less than 30 days.
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| You may change member's duty status to "deserter" if they are absent for less than 30 days and | have action pending on a previous unauthorized absence.
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| When considering an airman for reenlistment, commanders should NOT consider the airman's | career goals.
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| MSgt Bryce has over 20 years active service. When will he be considered under the Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP)? | When he is within 13 months of his expiration term of service (ETS).
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| The Selective Reenlistment (SRP) roster, part 1, identifies for the commander's support staff airmen who | are due SRP consideration or reconsideration during the month.
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| What does the commander's support staff provide to the immediate supervisor of a member who is due Selective Reenlistment (SRP) consideration? | A Report of Individual Personnel (RIP).
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| SrA Addison is projected to be promoted to staff sergeant next month. this month, the commander nonselected him for reenlistment. What happens now? | His promotion is cancelled because he ineligible to reenlist.
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| How long does the commander wait to make a recommendation when a person new to the unit is due Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) consideration? | No more than 90 days.
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| To whom does a career airman with 14 years active service appeal when the unit commander does not select him or her for reenlistment? | Wing Commander.
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| If airmen have appealed their nonselection for reenlistment, how many workdays do they have to acknowledge the decision of the appeal authority? | 5.
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| What part of the Selective Reenlistment Program (SRP) roster identified airmen who have not applied for a career job reservation? | Part III, CJR.
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| Who is in charge of the record function at each military personnel flight (MPF) where the AF Form 10, Unit Personnel Records Group (UPRG), is maintained? | Unit personnel records group custodian.
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| Who must set up and enforce administrative and physical safeguards for the Unit Personnel Record Groups (UPRG)? | UPRG custodian.
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| Which is not a specific purpose of the records review? | Determining a member's eligibility for a special duty assignment.
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| Record review listings are automatically produced on members that have completed a permanent change of station (PCS) | when the record status changes to present for duty and 60 days from DAS.
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| A face-to-face record review is conducted when the Chief, Customer Assistance determines that it is more advantageous or when the | member requests a face-to-face record review as an exception to policy.
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| What do you do when a source document is missing from the Unit Personnel Record Group (UPRG) and the member has a replacement copy in his or her personal record? | Ask the member to provide a copy of the document.
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| An Individual Data Review Listing (IDRL) is automatically produced | on the anniversary date od a member's date arrive station (DAS)
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| When conducting a record review, customer service screens the Unit Personnel Record Group (UPRG) and removes | obsolete documents and gives them to the member.
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| Customer Service screens the Unit Personnel Record Group (UPRG), removes obsolete documents for personnel at a geographically separated unit, places documents in an envelope and mails them to the member | in conjunctionwith a records review.
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| When processing a discharge and immediate reenlistment, which of the following documents are removed by customer service element and forwarded to HQ AFPC with the reenlistment documents? | Promotion Orders (except for current drade), waiver documents from previous enlistment, and enlistment orders.
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| The military personnel flight (MPF) element transferring the Unit Personnel Record Group must account for records transferred using | AF Form 330, Records Transmittal/Request.
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| What form does an individual use to request corrections to military records? | DD Form 149.
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| Within what time frame must the individual submit a request for correction to military records to the Air Force Board of Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR)? | Within 3 years after the error or injustice was discovered.
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| Members who submit late applications for correction to military records must explain the reason for the untimely application and state why | it would be in the interest of justice for the Board to excuse an untimely application.
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| Which of the following is NOT true concerning applicants appearing at a hearing before the Air Force Board of Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR) | The applicant may be represented by counsel but may NOT present witnesses.
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| The Air Force Board of Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR) acts for the Secretary of the AIr Force and decisions made are final except when a decision | involves an appointment in whole or part when the relief is recommended by the official
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| Members are eligible to apply for a join spouse assignment if they are on extended active duty and | meet all permanent change of station (PCS) eligibility requirements.
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| If an Air Force (AF) member is selected for an assignment and is married to a member of another US military service the AF member must complete a letter application, | include a statement from the members spouse indicating he or she wants the join spouse assignment, and submit it to the MPF Relocations Element for processing.
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| When an AF member marries en route to a permanent change of station (PCS) and the member and new spouse are assigned to different locations, the individuals must | immediately report to the nearest AF installation and apply for a join spouse assignment.
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| After updating the join spouse assignment intent code, how does Customer Service dispose of the AF Form 1048? | File the AF Form 1048 in the member's Unit Personnel Record Group (UPRG).
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| If a couple assigned to an overseas location desires to be reassigned at the same time, but they do not have the same date eligible to return from overseas (DEROS), then the one with the | earliest DEROS MUST extend.
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| If a member proceeds on a voluntary reassignment from a join spouse assignment or requests cancellation of an approved join spouse assignment, | the member cannot later join the spouse unless they are eligible under some other assignment program.
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| What is the tour length restriction when a member without dependents joins a spouse who is serving an unaccompanied tour overseas? | the member must serve the accompanied tour length.
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| Who should an AF member contact to change a join spouse assignment intent code after being selected for a join spouse assignment? | Military Personnel Flight (MPF)
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| When couple PCS to the same or adjacent locations and reside jointly, what does the military personnel flight (MPF) include in the remarks section of the PCS Orders regardless of the assignment action reason? | Assignment is to join spouse.
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| What can you use to verify identification (ID) card eligibility if you can not access the Defense Eligibility and Enrollment Reporting System (DEERS)? | A orevious DD Form 1172, Application for Uniformed Services Identification Card-DEERS Enrollment.
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| When a members status is active duty, what can you NOT use to verify eligibility for an identification card | a departmental order less than 31 days.
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| After the verifying official gives the original DD Form 1172 to the applicant and distributes the remaining as necessary, they advise the applicant that the DD Form 1172 is valid for | 90 days.
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| Upon learning of an event that indicated a family member is no longer entitled to an identification (ID) card, the MPF must immediately | terminate the family members eligibilty in the Defense Eligibility and Enrollment Reporting System (DEERS).
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| When a family members expired identification (ID) card can not be retrieved voluntarily by letter from the sponsor, unit commander, or military personnel flight (MPF), the MPF | reports the circumstances to the chief of security forces or military police of the military installation nearest the unauthorized family members address.
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| When, if ever, does the military personnel flight (MPF) destroy a DD Form 1172 and the documentation filed along with retrieval documentation in a units office files? | One year after the card expires.
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| In accordance with the special procedure for parole and excess leave, the military personnel flight (MPF) retrieves identification (ID) cards from the member and his or her family members when the | members discharge is executed.
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| If an administrative or judicial action that authorized the military personnel flight (MPF) to destroy an identification (ID) card and reissue a temporary card is NOT resolved withing 90 calendar days from the start of the action, the | MPF may reissue temporary cards for an additional 90 days if necessary.
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| The Real-time Automated Personnel Identification System (RAPIDS) provides a network of microcomputers linking the military personnel flight (MPF) to the Defense Eligibility and Enrollment Reporting System (DEERS) database to provide | on-line additions, retrieval and update of family member information to the DEERS database.
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| What is required to sign on to the Real-time Automated Personnel Identification System (RAPIDS)? | DEERS logon and password.
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| All of the following apply to changing a Real-time Automated Personnel Identification System (RAPIDS) password except | the password MUST be four to seven characters.
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| What option from the file menu in Real-time Automated Personnel Identification System (RAPIDS) expands to include beneficiary and family options? | Open a family.
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| What is the first action you take if you forget your Defense Eligibility and Enrollment reporting System (DEERS) password? | call the DEERS/RAPIDS Assistance Center (DRAC) for a temporary password.
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| Full time Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance (SGLI) is authorized for all members on active duty and for members on active duty training under a call or order that | specifies a period of 31 days or more.
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| By law, all members on active duty, active duty for training or inactive duty training, and Ready Reserves are automatically insured for the maximum coverage of $250,000 until | they make a valid election to reduce or decline coverage.
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| If a member desires Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance (SGLI) coverage in the amount of $80,000, how do you determine the premium cost? | Each $10,000 increment cost 80 cents; therefore 8 x .80=$6.40.
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| When a member is confined by civil authorities for more than 31 days under a sentence adjudged by a civil court, Servicemembers' group Life Insurance (SGLI) coverage is terminated | on the 31st day.
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| After the SGLV 8285, Request for Insurance, is completed and signed by the member and commander or authorized representative with all medical questions answered "no," the form is | filed in the indivdual's Unit Personnel Record Group (UPRG)
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| What advice do you give a member who will be survived by dependents or parents and they designate some other person or entity as beneficiary? | Advise the member to submit a signed memorandum indicating that they understand the designation is unusual and that they want the person(s) listed to receive proceeds.
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| By law, if a member has no surviving spouse or child, then the Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance (SGLI) is payable to | the member's parents in equal shares or all to the surviving parent.
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| When completeing the SGLV 8286, Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance Election and Certificate, members may specify that proceeds be paid to beneficiaries in | lump sum or 36 monthly installments.
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| How is the Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance (SGLI) form processed? | File the original in the members personnel records, give a copy to the member and proved a copy to the active or reserve components of the uniformed services for their use.
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| Which of the following individuals is NOT eligible for Veterans' Group Life Insurance? | TSgt on extended active duty in the Air Force.
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| How is Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance (SGLI) converted to Veterans' Group Life INsurance (VGLI)? | By completing an SGLV 8714, Application for Veterans' Group Life INsurance, or computer-printed form SGLV 8714, Application for VGLI.
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| When completing an application for Veterans' Group Life Insurance (VGLI), a service member does all of the following except | initialing all blocks and mailing it with check or money order to the Office of Servicemember's Group Life Insurance.
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| When a service member with Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance (SGLI) does NOT designate a beneficiary and dies within 60 days after the Veterans' Group Life Insurance (VGLI) becomes effective, the benefits are paid | in accordance with the prior SGLI designation.
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| Air Force policy requires that all Air Force personnel fully support the casualty assistance program and recognize all of the following except | accurate accountability.
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| The not seriously injured (NSI) casualty status describes a person whose injury | may or may not require hospitalization.
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| What is the appropriate casualty status for an individual when a responsible commander suspects the member may be a casualty, the absence is involuntary, but does NOT feel sufficient evidence currently exists to make a more definitive determination? | Duty Status-whereabouts unknown (DUSTWUN).
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| Which of the following is NOT generally considered conclusive evidence of death? | Positively identified recovered remains.
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| Why is the manner and cause of death omitted on the initial death report? | This information is not normally available at the time the report is submitted.
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| The actual manner and cause of death must be confirmed by a supplemental report within one duty day after receiving the | death certificate, autopsy report, or accident investigation report.
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| What action must you take within 10 days of a duty status-whereabouts unknown (DUSTWUN) declaration when the member's absence is NOT voluntary and the member is still missing? | Submit a missing report.
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| All of the following information is included in the prognosis and treatment section of a very seriously ill or injured (VSI) report except the | cause of illness or injury.
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| When feasible, casualty notifications are made in person by an Air Force representative for the following conditions | duty status-whereabouts unknown (DUSTWUN).
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| When feasible, an Air Force representative makes a casualty notification by telephone for the following condition | incapcitating illness or injury (III)
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| When, if ever, can an official death notification be made by telephone instead of being made in person by an Air Force representative? | when the NOK call inquiring about the member's status before official notification can be completed.
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| Air Force officers who are assigned to make personal casualty notifications must be in what grade and are designated as acting on behalf of what official? | Major and above;Air Force Chief of Staff
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| Because each casualty notification is different and the reaction of the next of kin (NOK) is unpredictable, at least two other AF members accompany the notification officer to attend to emergency needs that may arise. These individuals are | medical and chaplain personnel.
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| When an ill or injured member is hospitalized overseas and the next of kin (NOK) resides in the continental united states (CONUS), who assists the members commander by notifying the NOK and providing medical progress reports? | Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
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| The Air Force policy on casualty assistance is to | provide casualty assistance to family members and other designated beneficiaries of peronnel declared deceased or missing.
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| When there is more than one primary next of kin (PNOK) the primary responsibility for casualty assistance is normally assigned to the installation | providing assistance to the PNOK receiving the most benefits.
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| When must the casualty assistance representative make initial contact with the primary next of kin (PNOK) and other persons eligible for benefits or privileges made? | PNOK:24 hours; others: as soon as possible, but such contact is NOT restricted to the first 24 hours after being notified of a casualty.
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| A casualty assistance visit is mandatory when | a retiree dies within 120 days after retirement.
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| What form does the casualty assistance representative (CAR) use when explaining benefits to the next of kin (NOK) and as a checklist to track and document entitlements applied for and received? | AF Form 58, Casualty Assistance Summary (Transmittal).
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| When, if ever are survivors or family members of a casualty entitled to receive basic allowance for housing (BAH) or temporary goverment family-type quarters for up to 180 days total? | When the active duty member died in the line of duty.
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| Air Force members in missing status, additional visits or later contacts to the next of kin (NOK) should be conducted | at least once every 30 days for the first year and once every 3 months thereafter, for as long as the member remains missing.
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| Who is responsible for implementing Survivor Benefit Plan preretirement counseling? | Military personnel flight and the commander's support staff.
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| What is the amount of Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) annuity paid to the surviving dependent(s) if a member, who is receiving SBP coverage, dies while on active duty? | 55 percent of retirement pay the member would have received if retired on the date of death.
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| Except in cases of short notice retirements, members who are retiring because they have met the years of service requirement are scheduled for a Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) briefing NO later than | 120 days prior to retirement.
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| In the Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) briefing session, a member retiring for disability is advised that removal from the Temporary Disability Retired List (TDRL) affects an SBP election and that | the elecction remains in effect if the Air Force removes a member from TDRL to permanently retire because of disability.
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| Which form is used to record the member's Survivor Benefit Plan election? | DD Form 2656, Data for Payment of Retired Personnel.
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| What is the minimum base amount of Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) coverage a member can designate for a spouse or former spouse and children without Supplemental Survivor Benefit Plan (SSBP)? | $300.
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| If a retiring member has a spouse or family member (children), the election of Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) for the former spouse | allows coverage of children only if they resulted from the marriage to the former spouse.
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| How is a spouse who is unable to visit the military personnel flight (MPF) notified of a member's Survivor Benefit Plan (SBP) election? | By the original signed election and a letter sent by the MPF>
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|
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