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BIOL 2114 Final Exam

Spring 2012 chapters 16-29

Adrenocorticotropic Hormone What hormone stimulates the cortex of the adrenal gland to produce its hormones?
adenohypophysis What gland produces TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH, GH, and PRL?
adrenal medulla What gland produces epinephrine and norepinephrine?
aldosterone What hormone raises levels of sodium in the blood?
antidiuretic hormone What hormone causes the kidneys to conserve water by putting it back into the blood?
calcitonin What hormone lowers the level of calcium in the blood?
cortisol What hormone controls the body's long term response to stress?
epinephrine What hormone stimulates the fight or flight response?
estrogen What hormone controls the maturation of the oocyte into an egg cell?
fasciculata The zona __________________ of the adrenal cortex produces cortisol
follicle stimulating hormone What pituitary gland hormone stimulates the gonads to produce gametes?
glomerulosa The zona __________________ of the adrenal cortex produces aldosterone.
glucagon What hormone raises blood glucose levels?
gluconeogenesis The process of making glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors such as amino acids and fatty acids is _____________________.
glycogenolysis The process of breaking down of glycogen in the liver in order to release glucose into the blood is ___________________.
growth hormone What hormone stimulates mitosis in bone and muscle especially during childhood?
hormonal The stimulus for production of thyroid hormone is __________ stimulation.
humoral The stimulus for production of parathyroid hormone is __________ stimulation.
hypothalamus What is the source of the releasing hormones that stimulate the adenohypophysis to release its hormones?
insulin What hormone lowers blood glucose levels?
luteinizing hormone What hormone causes the gonads to produce sex hormones?
neural The stimulus for the release of ADH, oxytocin, and epinephrine is __________ stimulation.
neurohypophysis What gland produces ADH and oxytocin?
oxytocin What hormone stimulates uterine smooth muscle contraction during labor?
pancreas What gland produces insulin and glucagon?
parathyroid What gland produces the hormone that raises blood calcium levels?
parathyroid hormone What hormone raises the levels of calcium in the blood?
prolactin What hormone stimulates milk production by the mammary glands?
reticularis The zona _______________ of the adrenal cortex produces small amounts of testosterone.
testosterone What hormone controls the development of sperm cells?
thyroid What gland produces T3/T4 and calcitonin?
thyroid hormone What is the body's major metabolic hormone?
thyroid stimulating hormone What hormone stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormone?
thyroxine What is the chemical name of the T4 version of thyroid hormone?
triiodothyronine What is the chemical name of the T3 version of thyroid hormone?
albumin important plasma protein
aplastic type of anemia due to bone marrow destruction
basophil least numerous leukocyte; associated with allergy
colony stimulating factors hormones that stimulate leukocyte production
eosinophil defense against parasitic worms; also turns off inflammation
erythrocyte come from a hemocytoblast
erythropoietin hormone causing rbc production
ferritin protein to which iron is bound while stored
fibrin insoluble protein; end result of coagulation
fibrinogen soluble precursor to fibrin
hematocrit percentage of erythrocytes
hemoglobin oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells
hemolytic type of anemia due to blood cell destruction
hemorrhagic type of anemia due to blood loss
hemostasis stopping of bleeding
hypoxia stimulus for rbc production
intrinsic factor necessary for vitamin B-12 to be absorbed from intestinal tract
iron element attached to hemoglobin to which oxygen binds
iron deficiency type of anemia characterized by small pale rbcs
leukemia cancerous condition of a white blood cell
leukopenia abnormally low white blood cell count
liver Most plasma proteins produced by the _____.
lymphocyte carries out the immune response
monocyte phagocytic cell; immature macrophage
neutrophil most numerous leukocyte
PDGF growth factor from platelets which stimulates rebuilding the vessel wall
pernicious type of anemia due to deficiency of vit B12 and/or intrinsic factor
plasmin enzyme which degrades fibrin and destroys the clot after healing has taken place
plasminogen inactive precursor of plasmin
platelets develop from megakaryocytes; associated with clotting and vessel repair
polycythemia abnormal excess of red blood cells leading to increased blood viscosity
serum plasma from which clotting proteins have been removed
sickle cell type of anemia due to abnormal hemoglobin
thalassemia type of anemia due to depressed synthesis of globin chains
thrombin enzyme which catalyzes the formation of fibrin
transferrin transport protein for iron (not hemoglobin)
ADH when released in high amounts causes intense vasoconstriction
acetylcholine neurotransmitter which brings about parasympathetic nervous system effects on the heart
anastomoses interconnections of vessels around organs or joints which allow alternate pathways of blood supply
aortic semilunar the valve which closes when the left ventricle relaxes
arteries vessels which carry blood away from the heart
arterioles site of greatest peripheral resistance
atrioventricular node second structure of the intrinsic conduction system; located in the interatrial septum
baroreceptors mechanoreceptors that detect changes in arterial pressure; located in carotid sinuses, aortic arch, large arteries of neck and thorax
bicuspid the valve which closes when the left ventricle contracts
blood pressure cardiac output multiplied by peripheral resistance
brain the place in the body where autoregulation of blood flow is triggered by an increase in carbon dioxide
calcium increase in this mineral can lead to spastic heart contraction
capillaries place where blood flow is the slowest
cardiogenic type of shock due to heart failure
chordae tendineae connective tissue strings which connect AV valve flaps to muscles in ventricular walls
coronary sinus collects blood draining from the myocardium
diastolic blood pressure reading associated with ventricular relaxation
elastic The aorta is an example of a/an _______ artery.
endocardium lining of the inside surfaces of the heart
epicardium another name for the visceral pericardium
fenestrated Capillaries that have pores are said to be ____________.
fossa ovalis shallow depression which marks the spot where an opening existed in the fetal heart
hydrostatic pressure force which dominates at arterial end of capillary bed to force fluid out of the circulation
hypovolemic type of shock due to large-scale blood loss
inferior vena cava returns blood from regions inferior to diaphragm
kidneys organ which releases renin, which results in formation of angiotensin, a vasoconstrictor
left atrium chamber attached to pulmonary veins
left ventricle chamber attached to aorta
lungs the place in the body where low oxygen leads to vasoconstriction
muscular __________ arteries deliver blood to specific body organs; most named arteries.
myocardium layer of the heart where the cardiac muscle is located
norepinephrine neurotransmitter which brings about sympathetic nervous system effects on the heart
orthostatic hypotension temporary low blood pressure and dizziness when rising suddenly from a reclining or sitting position
osmotic pressure force which dominates at venous end of capillary bed to draw fluid back into the circulation
papillary muscles muscles which protrude from ventricular walls to anchor AV valves in the closed position
parietal pericardium covering of the heart next to the body wall
peripheral resistance opposition to blood flow; measure of the amount of friction the blood encounters when passing through the vessels
potassium in excess, this mineral interferes with depolarization and may lead to heart block and cardiac arrest
precapillary sphincter cuff of smooth muscle which determines whether blood will enter the capillary bed
pulmonary semilunar the valve which closes when the right ventricle relaxes
right atrium chamber attached to the superior vena cava
right ventricle chamber attached to pulmonary artery
secondary hypertension high blood pressure due to identifiable disorders such as hyperthyroidism or Cushing's disease
sinoatrial node pacemaker of the heart; located in right atrium
sodium inhibits transport of calcium and thereby blocks heart contraction
superior vena cava returns blood from regions superior to diaphragm
systolic blood pressure reading associated with ventricular contraction
thyroxine causes a slow, sustained increase in heart rate when released in large quantities
tricuspid the valve which closes when the right ventricle contracts
tunica externa part of blood vessel wall which is composed of collagen fibers to protect and anchor the vessel
tunica interna part of the blood vessel wall which contains the endothelium
tunica media part of the blood vessel wall which consists of smooth muscle cells and elastic fibers
valves structures present in veins that prevent blood from flowing backward
vascular type of shock due to extreme vasodilation; can be caused by autonomic nervous system dysfunction and septicemia
vascular shunt short vessel that directly connects the arteriole and venule at opposite ends of capillary bed
veins vessels which carry blood to the heart
vessel diameter the most important factor in altering peripheral resistance
antibody What is the antigen receptor on B cells?
antigen What is a chemical substance that is recognized by the body as a foreign substance?
antigen-antibody complexes What triggers the classical pathway of complement?
bone marrow Where do B cells mature?
C3a and C5a Which components of complement cause inflammation?
C3b Which component of complement is an opsonin?
CD4 What surface protein identifies T helper cells?
CD8 What surface protein identifies cytotoxic T cells
Class I What type of MHC molecule functions in self/nonself recognition?
Class II What type of MHC molecule is found on immune system cells and helps to regulate the response?
cell wall polysaccharides of some pathogens What triggers the alternative pathway of complement?
cell-mediated Which type of immune response is primarily responsible for resolving viral, fungal, and parasitic infections, as well as fighting against cancer?
chemotaxis The attraction of phagocytes to an area of inflammation by following an increasing concentration of inflammatory molecules.
cortex Where in the lymph node are lymphocytes located?
cytotoxic T cells Which cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response?
histamine What substance increases vascular permeability during inflammation?
humoral Which type of immune response is primarily responsible for resolving bacterial infections and can also be effective against viruses when they are outside of cells?
IgA Which dimeric antibody is found in body secretions, protects the respiratory and digestive tracts, and is found in breast milk?
IgE Which antibody binds to the surface of mast cells and basophils and functions in an allergic response?
IgG Which antibody can trigger complement, enhance phagocytosis, and cross the placenta?
IgM Which antibody is a pentamer which triggers complement and agglutinates antigens?
interferon What is the general substance produced by virus-infected cells that protects uninfected cells from viral replication?
interleukin 1 What substance is produced by macrophages during antigen presentation to T helper cells to help activate the T helper cells?
interleukin 2 What substance is produced by T helper cells during binding with B cells to help activate the B cells?
lysosome What organelle is key to the process of phagocytosis?
lysozyme What is the substance found in many body fluids that breaks down the cell walls of some bacteria?
medulla Where in the lymph node are macrophages located?
membrane attack complex The combination of C5b,6,7,8,9 which destroys the plasma membrane of microbes is called the:
memory cells What is responsible for the secondary immune response?
natural killer cells These cells have the ability to kill a wide variety of microbes and tumor cells with no prior activation.
neutrophils and macrophages These two types of cells are the phagocytic cells in the body.
opsonization What is the process called whereby antibodies bind to an antigen and mark it for destruction by phagocytosis?
Peyer's patches What is the name of the lymphoid tissue defending the digestive tract against pathogens?
plasma cells What cells develop from B cells and produce antibodies?
redness, heat, pain, swelling What are the four signs of inflammation?
specificity and memory What are the two hallmarks of the immune system?
spleen What structure stores and releases blood in times of demand and serves as a lymph node for the blood?
thymus Where do T cells mature?
tonsils What is the name of the lymphoid tissue defending the upper respiratory tract against pathogens?
valves What do lymphatic capillaries have that blood capillaries do not have?
alveoli sacs where the bulk of gas exchange occurs
conducting dead air space; _______ zone
constrict Poor ventilation causes pulmonary capillaries in that area of the lungs to ________.
diaphragm Inspiration depends on the action of the _________ muscle.
dilate Good ventilation causes pulmonary capillaries in that area of the lungs to ________.
elasticity Quiet expiration is a passive process that just depends on the natural ________ of the lungs.
epiglottis switching mechanism that covers the larynx during swallowing so food does not enter the trachea
expiratory reserve volume amount of air that can be evacuated from the lungs after a tidal expiration
external respiration gas exchange between blood and alveoli
inspiratory reserve volume amount of air that can be forcibly inspired beyond tidal volume
internal respiration gas exchange between blood and tissue cells
laryngopharynx superior to larynx
larynx voice box; also provides an open airway
macrophage type of immune system cell found in the alveoli
nasopharynx passageway posterior to the nasal passages
negative The pressure in the pleural cavity is said to be ________ relative to both the intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressures.
nose moistens, warms, filters, and cleanses air; resonating chamber, houses olfactory receptors
oropharynx passageway posterior to the mouth; passageway for food and air
perfusion In order to have good gas exchange in the lungs, the body has mechanisms to match ventilation with ________.
pleural the name of the serous membrane cavity surrounding a lung
pressure Diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide from blood to the tissue cells is a result of differences in _______ gradients.
primary bronchus structure which enters a lung at the hilus
respiratory actual site of gas exchange; _________ zone
surfactant substance which reduces surface tension in the alveoli
tidal volume amount of air that moves into and out of the lungs with each breath during normal quiet breathing
trachea structure located between larynx and bronchi; lined with ciliated cells
uvula prevents food from entering nasopharynx during swallowing
ventilation moving air in and out of the lungs
vital capacity total amount of exchangeable air
ADH hormone which causes the distal and collecting tubules to be permeable to water and causes reabsorption of water into the blood
active transport When ATP is used to move substances back into the blood against a concentration gradient, the process is known as ________ ________.
adipose The middle supporting layer around the kidney which protects and holds them in place is the ______ capsule.
aldosterone hormone which stimulates sodium transport from tubule to the blood
ascending part of the loop of Henle that is permeable to sodium and impermeable to water
Bowman's capsule part of the nephron which collects filtrate from the glomerulus
calyces parts of the kidney which collects the urine
cortex part of the kidney that contains the nephrons
descending part of the loop of Henle that is impermeable to sodium and permeable to water
fascia The dense connective tissue which anchors kidneys to surrounding structures is the renal ______.
filtration function of the glomerulus
loop of Henle part of the nephron responsible for sodium and water balance
macula densa When filtrate flow needs to be faster or slower _____ ______ cells stimulate afferent arterioles.
medulla part of the kidney that contains the renal pyramids
net filtration pressure Glomerular filtration rate is directly proportional to ____ _______ _______.
osmosis After sodium is moved by active transport back into the blood, water will move passively by _______.
pelvis part of the kidney continuous with the ureter
peristalsis process by which urine is propelled along urinary tract
solvent drag When water leaves the proximal tubule, solutes left behind are more concentrated and then will follow by diffusion in a process called _____ ______.
transparent The closest barrier surrounding the kidney is the ________ renal capsule.
tubular reabsorption function of the proximal convoluted tubule
tubular secretion function of the distal convoluted tubule
ureter tube which connects kidney to bladder
urethra tube which connects bladder to outside the body
vasoconstriction When filtrate is flowing too rapidly, the regulatory cells will stimulate _________ of the afferent arteriole.
vasodilation When filtrate is flowing too slowly the regulatory cells will stimulate _________ of the afferent arteriole.
Absorption Transport of end products from the GI tract to blood or lymph.
Amylase Enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates
Ascending colon Second segment of large intestine
Bacterial flora Ferment indigestible carbohydrates, synthesize B complex vitamins and Vitamin K
Bile Emulsifies fats for lipid digestion
Cecum First segment of large intestine
Chemical digestion Breaking molecules down to the monomeric building blocks which can be absorbed; accomplished by enzymes.
Chief cells Stomach cells which produce pepsinogen
Chyme Mixture of partially digested food and enzymes into a creamy paste; ejected from stomach to small intestine in small amounts
Descending colon Fourth segment of large intestine
Duodenum First segment of small intestine
Enteroendocrine cells Stomach cells which produce gastrin
Gallbladder Stores bile
Goblet cells Secrete mucus
Hepatic portal vein Carries nutrient-rich blood from intestines to the liver
Ileum Third segment of small intestine
Intestinal villi Finger-like projections of the mucosa; over 1 mm high; within is a dense capillary bed and a modified lymphatic capillary called a lacteal.
Intrinsic factor Required for absorption of Vitamin B12
Jejunum Second segment of small intestine
Kupffer cells Hepatic macrophages
Large Intestine Major function to absorb water.
Lipase Enzyme that breaks down fats
Liver Produces bile
Mechanical digestion Includes chewing, mixing food with saliva, churning food in stomach, and segmentation of the intestines.
Microvilli Tiny projections of the plasma membrane of the absorptive cells of the mucosa; bears some intestinal digestive enzymes (called brush border enzymes).
Mouth Carbohydrate digestion begins here.
Pancreas An accessory digestive organ that produces a broad spectrum of enzymes, water, and electrolytes with a pH of 8.0.
Parietal cells Stomach cells which secrete HCl and intrinsic factor
Pepsin Enzyme that breaks down proteins
Peristalsis Means of propulsion involving alternate waves of contraction and relaxation of muscles in the organ walls; squeezes food along the pathway from one organ to the next.
Plicae circulares Deep circular folds that extend around the circumference of the small intestine; force chyme to spiral through the lumen continually mixing the chyme with intestinal juices and allowing time for full nutrient absorption.
Segmentation Mixes food with digestive juices and increases the rate of absorption by repeatedly moving different parts of the food mass over the intestinal wall.
Sigmoid colon Fifth segment of large intestine
Sinusoids Modified hepatic capillaries
Small Intestine Lipid digestion begins; protein and carbohydrate digestion completed; nutrients absorbed.
Stomach Proteins are the only thing digested here.
Transverse colon Third segment of large intestine
Adrenal glands Source of small amounts of testosterone in females
Antrum A central fluid-filled cavity which is the hallmark of a secondary follicle.
Bulbourethral gland Produces thick, clear mucus which is secreted into the urethra before ejaculation to neutralize traces of acidic urine
Cervix Produces mucus to protect uterus from bacterial infections and also to keep sperm out unless it is in midcycle
Corpus luteum Secretes progesterone and some estrogen - this shuts down LH and FSH from the pituitary so no more follicles develop at this time.
Ductus Deferens Associated with the spermatic cord
Ejaculation Caused by a sympathetic nervous system spinal reflex;
Ejaculatory duct Place where sperm and seminal fluid mix together
Endometrium Layer of the uterus into which a fertilized ovum will burrow; shed during menstrual cycle if implantation does not occur
Epididymis Sperm gain the ability to swim here.
Estrogen Simulates secondary sexual characteristics in female and maturation of oocytes
FSH Stimulates spermatogenesis by causing sperm-producing cells to be receptive to testosterone's effects
Fimbriae Fingerlike branches of uterine tubes which may capture an ovulated oocyte
Follicular phase Part of the ovarian cycle in which the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete FSH and LH. These stimulate follicle growth and maturation and estrogen secretion.
Fructose Component of semen; provides energy to sperm
Gamete General term for an egg or a sperm
Interstitial cells Produce testosterone
LH Binds to interstitial cells and causes them to secrete testosterone which serves as final trigger for sperm formation.
Luteal Phase Phase of ovarian cycle that occurs after ovulation; estrogen levels decline; previous LH surge also transforms the ruptured follicle into the corpus luteum and causes it to begin to secrete hormones.
Menstruation Shedding of endometrium caused by falling progesterone levels.
Myometrium Layer of the uterus which contains smooth muscle cells
Nitric Oxide Produced in response to parasympathetic reflex; causes arterioles of the penis to dilate in an erection
Ovary Primary sex organ in the female.
Ovulation When estrogen levels get really high, the anterior pituitary is stimulated to release a burst of LH around day 14 and this occurs.
Perimetrium Outermost layer of uterus; also part of the visceral peritoneum
Primary follicle A developing oocyte with multiple surrounding granulosa cells
Primordial follicle A developing oocyte with a single layer of surrounding cells
Prostaglandins Component of semen; decreases viscosity of cervical mucus; stimulates reverse peristalsis of the uterus
Prostate gland Produces an acidic fluid which contains citrate (nutrient) and several enzymes which activate the sperm
Scrotum Contains testes
Seminal Vesicles Produce an alkaline fluid containing fructose, coagulating enzymes, ascorbic acid, and prostaglandins
Seminiferous tubules Sperm are produced here
Testes Primary sex organ in the male.
Testosterone Stimulates the male secondary sex characteristics; causes sperm formation; responsible for sex drive in both sexes
Uterine tube Most common place for fertilization to take place.
Uterus Functions to receive, retain, and nourish a fertilized ovum
Vesicular Follicle The oocyte bulges from the surface of the ovary just prior to ovulation
Zygote Fertilized egg; first cell of the new individual
Three components of Ejaculation 1. Reproductive ducts and accessory glands contract and empty contents into the urethra, 2. Bladder sphincter muscle constricts preventing urine expulsion or reflux of semen, and 3. Smooth muscles of penis contract
Secretion of FSH and LH These stimulate follicle growth and maturation and estrogen secretion. As estrogen rises it shuts down the release of FSH and LH from the pituitary but FSH and LH are still being produced and stored.
Created by: 1480781538
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