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BIOL 2114 Final Exam
Spring 2012 chapters 16-29
| Answer | Question |
|---|---|
| Adrenocorticotropic Hormone | What hormone stimulates the cortex of the adrenal gland to produce its hormones? |
| adenohypophysis | What gland produces TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH, GH, and PRL? |
| adrenal medulla | What gland produces epinephrine and norepinephrine? |
| aldosterone | What hormone raises levels of sodium in the blood? |
| antidiuretic hormone | What hormone causes the kidneys to conserve water by putting it back into the blood? |
| calcitonin | What hormone lowers the level of calcium in the blood? |
| cortisol | What hormone controls the body's long term response to stress? |
| epinephrine | What hormone stimulates the fight or flight response? |
| estrogen | What hormone controls the maturation of the oocyte into an egg cell? |
| fasciculata | The zona __________________ of the adrenal cortex produces cortisol |
| follicle stimulating hormone | What pituitary gland hormone stimulates the gonads to produce gametes? |
| glomerulosa | The zona __________________ of the adrenal cortex produces aldosterone. |
| glucagon | What hormone raises blood glucose levels? |
| gluconeogenesis | The process of making glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors such as amino acids and fatty acids is _____________________. |
| glycogenolysis | The process of breaking down of glycogen in the liver in order to release glucose into the blood is ___________________. |
| growth hormone | What hormone stimulates mitosis in bone and muscle especially during childhood? |
| hormonal | The stimulus for production of thyroid hormone is __________ stimulation. |
| humoral | The stimulus for production of parathyroid hormone is __________ stimulation. |
| hypothalamus | What is the source of the releasing hormones that stimulate the adenohypophysis to release its hormones? |
| insulin | What hormone lowers blood glucose levels? |
| luteinizing hormone | What hormone causes the gonads to produce sex hormones? |
| neural | The stimulus for the release of ADH, oxytocin, and epinephrine is __________ stimulation. |
| neurohypophysis | What gland produces ADH and oxytocin? |
| oxytocin | What hormone stimulates uterine smooth muscle contraction during labor? |
| pancreas | What gland produces insulin and glucagon? |
| parathyroid | What gland produces the hormone that raises blood calcium levels? |
| parathyroid hormone | What hormone raises the levels of calcium in the blood? |
| prolactin | What hormone stimulates milk production by the mammary glands? |
| reticularis | The zona _______________ of the adrenal cortex produces small amounts of testosterone. |
| testosterone | What hormone controls the development of sperm cells? |
| thyroid | What gland produces T3/T4 and calcitonin? |
| thyroid hormone | What is the body's major metabolic hormone? |
| thyroid stimulating hormone | What hormone stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormone? |
| thyroxine | What is the chemical name of the T4 version of thyroid hormone? |
| triiodothyronine | What is the chemical name of the T3 version of thyroid hormone? |
| albumin | important plasma protein |
| aplastic | type of anemia due to bone marrow destruction |
| basophil | least numerous leukocyte; associated with allergy |
| colony stimulating factors | hormones that stimulate leukocyte production |
| eosinophil | defense against parasitic worms; also turns off inflammation |
| erythrocyte | come from a hemocytoblast |
| erythropoietin | hormone causing rbc production |
| ferritin | protein to which iron is bound while stored |
| fibrin | insoluble protein; end result of coagulation |
| fibrinogen | soluble precursor to fibrin |
| hematocrit | percentage of erythrocytes |
| hemoglobin | oxygen-carrying protein in red blood cells |
| hemolytic | type of anemia due to blood cell destruction |
| hemorrhagic | type of anemia due to blood loss |
| hemostasis | stopping of bleeding |
| hypoxia | stimulus for rbc production |
| intrinsic factor | necessary for vitamin B-12 to be absorbed from intestinal tract |
| iron | element attached to hemoglobin to which oxygen binds |
| iron deficiency | type of anemia characterized by small pale rbcs |
| leukemia | cancerous condition of a white blood cell |
| leukopenia | abnormally low white blood cell count |
| liver | Most plasma proteins produced by the _____. |
| lymphocyte | carries out the immune response |
| monocyte | phagocytic cell; immature macrophage |
| neutrophil | most numerous leukocyte |
| PDGF | growth factor from platelets which stimulates rebuilding the vessel wall |
| pernicious | type of anemia due to deficiency of vit B12 and/or intrinsic factor |
| plasmin | enzyme which degrades fibrin and destroys the clot after healing has taken place |
| plasminogen | inactive precursor of plasmin |
| platelets | develop from megakaryocytes; associated with clotting and vessel repair |
| polycythemia | abnormal excess of red blood cells leading to increased blood viscosity |
| serum | plasma from which clotting proteins have been removed |
| sickle cell | type of anemia due to abnormal hemoglobin |
| thalassemia | type of anemia due to depressed synthesis of globin chains |
| thrombin | enzyme which catalyzes the formation of fibrin |
| transferrin | transport protein for iron (not hemoglobin) |
| ADH | when released in high amounts causes intense vasoconstriction |
| acetylcholine | neurotransmitter which brings about parasympathetic nervous system effects on the heart |
| anastomoses | interconnections of vessels around organs or joints which allow alternate pathways of blood supply |
| aortic semilunar | the valve which closes when the left ventricle relaxes |
| arteries | vessels which carry blood away from the heart |
| arterioles | site of greatest peripheral resistance |
| atrioventricular node | second structure of the intrinsic conduction system; located in the interatrial septum |
| baroreceptors | mechanoreceptors that detect changes in arterial pressure; located in carotid sinuses, aortic arch, large arteries of neck and thorax |
| bicuspid | the valve which closes when the left ventricle contracts |
| blood pressure | cardiac output multiplied by peripheral resistance |
| brain | the place in the body where autoregulation of blood flow is triggered by an increase in carbon dioxide |
| calcium | increase in this mineral can lead to spastic heart contraction |
| capillaries | place where blood flow is the slowest |
| cardiogenic | type of shock due to heart failure |
| chordae tendineae | connective tissue strings which connect AV valve flaps to muscles in ventricular walls |
| coronary sinus | collects blood draining from the myocardium |
| diastolic | blood pressure reading associated with ventricular relaxation |
| elastic | The aorta is an example of a/an _______ artery. |
| endocardium | lining of the inside surfaces of the heart |
| epicardium | another name for the visceral pericardium |
| fenestrated | Capillaries that have pores are said to be ____________. |
| fossa ovalis | shallow depression which marks the spot where an opening existed in the fetal heart |
| hydrostatic pressure | force which dominates at arterial end of capillary bed to force fluid out of the circulation |
| hypovolemic | type of shock due to large-scale blood loss |
| inferior vena cava | returns blood from regions inferior to diaphragm |
| kidneys | organ which releases renin, which results in formation of angiotensin, a vasoconstrictor |
| left atrium | chamber attached to pulmonary veins |
| left ventricle | chamber attached to aorta |
| lungs | the place in the body where low oxygen leads to vasoconstriction |
| muscular | __________ arteries deliver blood to specific body organs; most named arteries. |
| myocardium | layer of the heart where the cardiac muscle is located |
| norepinephrine | neurotransmitter which brings about sympathetic nervous system effects on the heart |
| orthostatic hypotension | temporary low blood pressure and dizziness when rising suddenly from a reclining or sitting position |
| osmotic pressure | force which dominates at venous end of capillary bed to draw fluid back into the circulation |
| papillary muscles | muscles which protrude from ventricular walls to anchor AV valves in the closed position |
| parietal pericardium | covering of the heart next to the body wall |
| peripheral resistance | opposition to blood flow; measure of the amount of friction the blood encounters when passing through the vessels |
| potassium | in excess, this mineral interferes with depolarization and may lead to heart block and cardiac arrest |
| precapillary sphincter | cuff of smooth muscle which determines whether blood will enter the capillary bed |
| pulmonary semilunar | the valve which closes when the right ventricle relaxes |
| right atrium | chamber attached to the superior vena cava |
| right ventricle | chamber attached to pulmonary artery |
| secondary hypertension | high blood pressure due to identifiable disorders such as hyperthyroidism or Cushing's disease |
| sinoatrial node | pacemaker of the heart; located in right atrium |
| sodium | inhibits transport of calcium and thereby blocks heart contraction |
| superior vena cava | returns blood from regions superior to diaphragm |
| systolic | blood pressure reading associated with ventricular contraction |
| thyroxine | causes a slow, sustained increase in heart rate when released in large quantities |
| tricuspid | the valve which closes when the right ventricle contracts |
| tunica externa | part of blood vessel wall which is composed of collagen fibers to protect and anchor the vessel |
| tunica interna | part of the blood vessel wall which contains the endothelium |
| tunica media | part of the blood vessel wall which consists of smooth muscle cells and elastic fibers |
| valves | structures present in veins that prevent blood from flowing backward |
| vascular | type of shock due to extreme vasodilation; can be caused by autonomic nervous system dysfunction and septicemia |
| vascular shunt | short vessel that directly connects the arteriole and venule at opposite ends of capillary bed |
| veins | vessels which carry blood to the heart |
| vessel diameter | the most important factor in altering peripheral resistance |
| antibody | What is the antigen receptor on B cells? |
| antigen | What is a chemical substance that is recognized by the body as a foreign substance? |
| antigen-antibody complexes | What triggers the classical pathway of complement? |
| bone marrow | Where do B cells mature? |
| C3a and C5a | Which components of complement cause inflammation? |
| C3b | Which component of complement is an opsonin? |
| CD4 | What surface protein identifies T helper cells? |
| CD8 | What surface protein identifies cytotoxic T cells |
| Class I | What type of MHC molecule functions in self/nonself recognition? |
| Class II | What type of MHC molecule is found on immune system cells and helps to regulate the response? |
| cell wall polysaccharides of some pathogens | What triggers the alternative pathway of complement? |
| cell-mediated | Which type of immune response is primarily responsible for resolving viral, fungal, and parasitic infections, as well as fighting against cancer? |
| chemotaxis | The attraction of phagocytes to an area of inflammation by following an increasing concentration of inflammatory molecules. |
| cortex | Where in the lymph node are lymphocytes located? |
| cytotoxic T cells | Which cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response? |
| histamine | What substance increases vascular permeability during inflammation? |
| humoral | Which type of immune response is primarily responsible for resolving bacterial infections and can also be effective against viruses when they are outside of cells? |
| IgA | Which dimeric antibody is found in body secretions, protects the respiratory and digestive tracts, and is found in breast milk? |
| IgE | Which antibody binds to the surface of mast cells and basophils and functions in an allergic response? |
| IgG | Which antibody can trigger complement, enhance phagocytosis, and cross the placenta? |
| IgM | Which antibody is a pentamer which triggers complement and agglutinates antigens? |
| interferon | What is the general substance produced by virus-infected cells that protects uninfected cells from viral replication? |
| interleukin 1 | What substance is produced by macrophages during antigen presentation to T helper cells to help activate the T helper cells? |
| interleukin 2 | What substance is produced by T helper cells during binding with B cells to help activate the B cells? |
| lysosome | What organelle is key to the process of phagocytosis? |
| lysozyme | What is the substance found in many body fluids that breaks down the cell walls of some bacteria? |
| medulla | Where in the lymph node are macrophages located? |
| membrane attack complex | The combination of C5b,6,7,8,9 which destroys the plasma membrane of microbes is called the: |
| memory cells | What is responsible for the secondary immune response? |
| natural killer cells | These cells have the ability to kill a wide variety of microbes and tumor cells with no prior activation. |
| neutrophils and macrophages | These two types of cells are the phagocytic cells in the body. |
| opsonization | What is the process called whereby antibodies bind to an antigen and mark it for destruction by phagocytosis? |
| Peyer's patches | What is the name of the lymphoid tissue defending the digestive tract against pathogens? |
| plasma cells | What cells develop from B cells and produce antibodies? |
| redness, heat, pain, swelling | What are the four signs of inflammation? |
| specificity and memory | What are the two hallmarks of the immune system? |
| spleen | What structure stores and releases blood in times of demand and serves as a lymph node for the blood? |
| thymus | Where do T cells mature? |
| tonsils | What is the name of the lymphoid tissue defending the upper respiratory tract against pathogens? |
| valves | What do lymphatic capillaries have that blood capillaries do not have? |
| alveoli | sacs where the bulk of gas exchange occurs |
| conducting | dead air space; _______ zone |
| constrict | Poor ventilation causes pulmonary capillaries in that area of the lungs to ________. |
| diaphragm | Inspiration depends on the action of the _________ muscle. |
| dilate | Good ventilation causes pulmonary capillaries in that area of the lungs to ________. |
| elasticity | Quiet expiration is a passive process that just depends on the natural ________ of the lungs. |
| epiglottis | switching mechanism that covers the larynx during swallowing so food does not enter the trachea |
| expiratory reserve volume | amount of air that can be evacuated from the lungs after a tidal expiration |
| external respiration | gas exchange between blood and alveoli |
| inspiratory reserve volume | amount of air that can be forcibly inspired beyond tidal volume |
| internal respiration | gas exchange between blood and tissue cells |
| laryngopharynx | superior to larynx |
| larynx | voice box; also provides an open airway |
| macrophage | type of immune system cell found in the alveoli |
| nasopharynx | passageway posterior to the nasal passages |
| negative | The pressure in the pleural cavity is said to be ________ relative to both the intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressures. |
| nose | moistens, warms, filters, and cleanses air; resonating chamber, houses olfactory receptors |
| oropharynx | passageway posterior to the mouth; passageway for food and air |
| perfusion | In order to have good gas exchange in the lungs, the body has mechanisms to match ventilation with ________. |
| pleural | the name of the serous membrane cavity surrounding a lung |
| pressure | Diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide from blood to the tissue cells is a result of differences in _______ gradients. |
| primary bronchus | structure which enters a lung at the hilus |
| respiratory | actual site of gas exchange; _________ zone |
| surfactant | substance which reduces surface tension in the alveoli |
| tidal volume | amount of air that moves into and out of the lungs with each breath during normal quiet breathing |
| trachea | structure located between larynx and bronchi; lined with ciliated cells |
| uvula | prevents food from entering nasopharynx during swallowing |
| ventilation | moving air in and out of the lungs |
| vital capacity | total amount of exchangeable air |
| ADH | hormone which causes the distal and collecting tubules to be permeable to water and causes reabsorption of water into the blood |
| active transport | When ATP is used to move substances back into the blood against a concentration gradient, the process is known as ________ ________. |
| adipose | The middle supporting layer around the kidney which protects and holds them in place is the ______ capsule. |
| aldosterone | hormone which stimulates sodium transport from tubule to the blood |
| ascending | part of the loop of Henle that is permeable to sodium and impermeable to water |
| Bowman's capsule | part of the nephron which collects filtrate from the glomerulus |
| calyces | parts of the kidney which collects the urine |
| cortex | part of the kidney that contains the nephrons |
| descending | part of the loop of Henle that is impermeable to sodium and permeable to water |
| fascia | The dense connective tissue which anchors kidneys to surrounding structures is the renal ______. |
| filtration | function of the glomerulus |
| loop of Henle | part of the nephron responsible for sodium and water balance |
| macula densa | When filtrate flow needs to be faster or slower _____ ______ cells stimulate afferent arterioles. |
| medulla | part of the kidney that contains the renal pyramids |
| net filtration pressure | Glomerular filtration rate is directly proportional to ____ _______ _______. |
| osmosis | After sodium is moved by active transport back into the blood, water will move passively by _______. |
| pelvis | part of the kidney continuous with the ureter |
| peristalsis | process by which urine is propelled along urinary tract |
| solvent drag | When water leaves the proximal tubule, solutes left behind are more concentrated and then will follow by diffusion in a process called _____ ______. |
| transparent | The closest barrier surrounding the kidney is the ________ renal capsule. |
| tubular reabsorption | function of the proximal convoluted tubule |
| tubular secretion | function of the distal convoluted tubule |
| ureter | tube which connects kidney to bladder |
| urethra | tube which connects bladder to outside the body |
| vasoconstriction | When filtrate is flowing too rapidly, the regulatory cells will stimulate _________ of the afferent arteriole. |
| vasodilation | When filtrate is flowing too slowly the regulatory cells will stimulate _________ of the afferent arteriole. |
| Absorption | Transport of end products from the GI tract to blood or lymph. |
| Amylase | Enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates |
| Ascending colon | Second segment of large intestine |
| Bacterial flora | Ferment indigestible carbohydrates, synthesize B complex vitamins and Vitamin K |
| Bile | Emulsifies fats for lipid digestion |
| Cecum | First segment of large intestine |
| Chemical digestion | Breaking molecules down to the monomeric building blocks which can be absorbed; accomplished by enzymes. |
| Chief cells | Stomach cells which produce pepsinogen |
| Chyme | Mixture of partially digested food and enzymes into a creamy paste; ejected from stomach to small intestine in small amounts |
| Descending colon | Fourth segment of large intestine |
| Duodenum | First segment of small intestine |
| Enteroendocrine cells | Stomach cells which produce gastrin |
| Gallbladder | Stores bile |
| Goblet cells | Secrete mucus |
| Hepatic portal vein | Carries nutrient-rich blood from intestines to the liver |
| Ileum | Third segment of small intestine |
| Intestinal villi | Finger-like projections of the mucosa; over 1 mm high; within is a dense capillary bed and a modified lymphatic capillary called a lacteal. |
| Intrinsic factor | Required for absorption of Vitamin B12 |
| Jejunum | Second segment of small intestine |
| Kupffer cells | Hepatic macrophages |
| Large Intestine | Major function to absorb water. |
| Lipase | Enzyme that breaks down fats |
| Liver | Produces bile |
| Mechanical digestion | Includes chewing, mixing food with saliva, churning food in stomach, and segmentation of the intestines. |
| Microvilli | Tiny projections of the plasma membrane of the absorptive cells of the mucosa; bears some intestinal digestive enzymes (called brush border enzymes). |
| Mouth | Carbohydrate digestion begins here. |
| Pancreas | An accessory digestive organ that produces a broad spectrum of enzymes, water, and electrolytes with a pH of 8.0. |
| Parietal cells | Stomach cells which secrete HCl and intrinsic factor |
| Pepsin | Enzyme that breaks down proteins |
| Peristalsis | Means of propulsion involving alternate waves of contraction and relaxation of muscles in the organ walls; squeezes food along the pathway from one organ to the next. |
| Plicae circulares | Deep circular folds that extend around the circumference of the small intestine; force chyme to spiral through the lumen continually mixing the chyme with intestinal juices and allowing time for full nutrient absorption. |
| Segmentation | Mixes food with digestive juices and increases the rate of absorption by repeatedly moving different parts of the food mass over the intestinal wall. |
| Sigmoid colon | Fifth segment of large intestine |
| Sinusoids | Modified hepatic capillaries |
| Small Intestine | Lipid digestion begins; protein and carbohydrate digestion completed; nutrients absorbed. |
| Stomach | Proteins are the only thing digested here. |
| Transverse colon | Third segment of large intestine |
| Adrenal glands | Source of small amounts of testosterone in females |
| Antrum | A central fluid-filled cavity which is the hallmark of a secondary follicle. |
| Bulbourethral gland | Produces thick, clear mucus which is secreted into the urethra before ejaculation to neutralize traces of acidic urine |
| Cervix | Produces mucus to protect uterus from bacterial infections and also to keep sperm out unless it is in midcycle |
| Corpus luteum | Secretes progesterone and some estrogen - this shuts down LH and FSH from the pituitary so no more follicles develop at this time. |
| Ductus Deferens | Associated with the spermatic cord |
| Ejaculation | Caused by a sympathetic nervous system spinal reflex; |
| Ejaculatory duct | Place where sperm and seminal fluid mix together |
| Endometrium | Layer of the uterus into which a fertilized ovum will burrow; shed during menstrual cycle if implantation does not occur |
| Epididymis | Sperm gain the ability to swim here. |
| Estrogen | Simulates secondary sexual characteristics in female and maturation of oocytes |
| FSH | Stimulates spermatogenesis by causing sperm-producing cells to be receptive to testosterone's effects |
| Fimbriae | Fingerlike branches of uterine tubes which may capture an ovulated oocyte |
| Follicular phase | Part of the ovarian cycle in which the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete FSH and LH. These stimulate follicle growth and maturation and estrogen secretion. |
| Fructose | Component of semen; provides energy to sperm |
| Gamete | General term for an egg or a sperm |
| Interstitial cells | Produce testosterone |
| LH | Binds to interstitial cells and causes them to secrete testosterone which serves as final trigger for sperm formation. |
| Luteal Phase | Phase of ovarian cycle that occurs after ovulation; estrogen levels decline; previous LH surge also transforms the ruptured follicle into the corpus luteum and causes it to begin to secrete hormones. |
| Menstruation | Shedding of endometrium caused by falling progesterone levels. |
| Myometrium | Layer of the uterus which contains smooth muscle cells |
| Nitric Oxide | Produced in response to parasympathetic reflex; causes arterioles of the penis to dilate in an erection |
| Ovary | Primary sex organ in the female. |
| Ovulation | When estrogen levels get really high, the anterior pituitary is stimulated to release a burst of LH around day 14 and this occurs. |
| Perimetrium | Outermost layer of uterus; also part of the visceral peritoneum |
| Primary follicle | A developing oocyte with multiple surrounding granulosa cells |
| Primordial follicle | A developing oocyte with a single layer of surrounding cells |
| Prostaglandins | Component of semen; decreases viscosity of cervical mucus; stimulates reverse peristalsis of the uterus |
| Prostate gland | Produces an acidic fluid which contains citrate (nutrient) and several enzymes which activate the sperm |
| Scrotum | Contains testes |
| Seminal Vesicles | Produce an alkaline fluid containing fructose, coagulating enzymes, ascorbic acid, and prostaglandins |
| Seminiferous tubules | Sperm are produced here |
| Testes | Primary sex organ in the male. |
| Testosterone | Stimulates the male secondary sex characteristics; causes sperm formation; responsible for sex drive in both sexes |
| Uterine tube | Most common place for fertilization to take place. |
| Uterus | Functions to receive, retain, and nourish a fertilized ovum |
| Vesicular Follicle | The oocyte bulges from the surface of the ovary just prior to ovulation |
| Zygote | Fertilized egg; first cell of the new individual |
| Three components of Ejaculation | 1. Reproductive ducts and accessory glands contract and empty contents into the urethra, 2. Bladder sphincter muscle constricts preventing urine expulsion or reflux of semen, and 3. Smooth muscles of penis contract |
| Secretion of FSH and LH | These stimulate follicle growth and maturation and estrogen secretion. As estrogen rises it shuts down the release of FSH and LH from the pituitary but FSH and LH are still being produced and stored. |
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